Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Postdural puncture headache in obstetric anaesthesia is associated with a greater likelihood of all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Sheehan’s
b) Cortical vein thrombosis
c) Bacterial meningitis

PREVIOSU ANSWERS:

a) Postpartum depression
b) Bacterial meningitis
c) Chronic back pain
d) Cerebral vein thrombosis
e) Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

A

repeat: Sheehans

sheehans not an option previously
- It was in 2019.1 sorry!

previous question answers

Encephalitis most likely answer

https://www.uptodate.com/contents/post-dural-puncture-headache

Complications of PDPH
1. Chronic Back pain
2. Hearing loss
3. Acute onset headache consider pneumopcephalus headache
4. Persistent headache
5. Increased risk of subdural haematoma
6. postpartum depression
7. bacterial meningitis
8. Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS)
9. Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

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3
Q

Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors in pregnancy are considered:

a) Not safe
b) Safe
c) Safe only in 3rd trimester
d) Safe after 1st trimester up to 48hrs prior to delivery

A

REPEAT with slightly reworded answers
A is safest answer.

Previous iterations of this Q have been controversial. NSAIDs technically safe in first trimester, but not in third (post 32 weeks) as can cause premature duct closure.

a. Not safe
or
safe only in 1st trimester

While relatively safe in early and mid pregnancy, NSAIDs can precipitate fetal cardiac and renal complications in late pregnancy, as well as interfere with fetal brain development and the production of amniotic fluid; they should be discontinued in gestational wk 32

APMSE

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4
Q

A healthy woman is admitted to the obstetric unit with threatened preterm labour at 29 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. A magnesium sulfate infusion is indicated for the purpose of:

a) Foetal neuroprotection
b) Treat BP
c) eclampsia prevention
d) Tocolysis

A

LINDON A - Foetal neuroprotection

https://www.kemh.health.wa.gov.au/~/media/HSPs/NMHS/Hospitals/WNHS/Documents/Clinical-guidelines/Obs-Gyn-Guidelines/Preterm-Labour-Magnesium-Sulphate-for-Neuroprotection-of-the-Fetus.pdf?thn=0#:~:text=MgSO4%20is%20only%20given%20to,4%20hours%20prior%20to%20delivery.

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5
Q

The commonest symptom or sign of uterine rupture during attempted vaginal birth after caesarean is:

a) Pain between contractions
b) CTG persistent foetal bradycardia
c) Variable decels on CTG
d) PV Bleeding

A

LINDON Fetal bradycardia

No idea - commonest sign is pv bleeding and fetal brady (non specific) and both answers are there!

Mentioned on MELB course that foetal Brady

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6
Q

A patient experiences a postpartum haemorrhage associated with uterine atony that is unresponsive to oxytocin and ergometrine. The recommended intramuscular dose of carboprost (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha) to be administered is:

a) 250mcg IM once
b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg
c) 500mcg IM
d) 250mcg IV
e) 500mcg IV

A

REPEAT

b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg

15-methyl-PGF2α (carboprost; Prostinfenem) which may be administered in one of two ways:

Intra-muscular injection of 0.25mg, in repeated doses as required at intervals of not less than 15 minutes to a maximum total cumulative dose of 2.0mg (ie up to 8 doses)

Source RANZCOG PPH Guideline 2021

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7
Q

21.2 The main advantage of using noradrenaline (norepinephrine) over phenylephrine for the prevention of hypotension as a result of spinal anaesthesia for elective caesarean section is

a) Better APGAR
b) Better foetal acid-base balance
c) Less nausea & vomiting
d) Less maternal bradycardia

A

less bradycardia

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8
Q

21.1, 20.1 The coagulopathy that can result from intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is due to

a. 2/7/9/10
b. All clotting factors made by the liver
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Platelet dysfunction
e. Fibrinolysis

A

a. 2/7/9/10

Hypovitaminosis of Vitamin K

(Bile required for absorption)

Source: BMC Article
https://bmcpregnancychildbirth.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12884-022-04875-w

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9
Q

22.1 The most common cause of maternal mortality in women with preeclampsia is

a. Renal failure
b. Hepatic failure
c. Intracranial haemorrhage

A

Intracranial haemorrhage

AHA
https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/epub/10.1161/HYPERTENSIONAHA.118.11513

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10
Q

23.1 A healthy woman is admitted to the obstetric unit with threatened preterm labour at 29 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. A magnesium sulfate infusion is indicated for the purpose of

A. Maternal seizure prevention
B. Fetal lung development
C. Foetal neuroprotection

A

C. Foetal neuroprotection

https://www.kemh.health.wa.gov.au/~/media/HSPs/NMHS/Hospitals/WNHS/Documents/Clinical-guidelines/Obs-Gyn-Guidelines/Preterm-Labour-Magnesium-Sulphate-for-Neuroprotection-of-the-Fetus.pdf?thn=0#:~:text=MgSO4%20is%20only%20given%20to,4%20hours%20prior%20to%20delivery.

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11
Q

21.1 A normal 75 kg term parturient may be expected to have a total blood volume of

a. 5250
b. 6000
c. 6750
d. 7500

A

d. 7500

100ml/kg blood volume in term parturient
7.5L (Average increase around 48%)

BJAed

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12
Q

21.1, 21.2 In maternal cardiac arrest the most common arrhythmia is

a) PEA
b) VT
c) VF
d) Asystole
e) SVT

A

a) PEA

I couldn’t find a great article on this anywhere. BJAED hasn’t got much either

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13
Q

23.1 In subarachnoid block for caesarean section, hyperbaric local anaesthetic compared to regular local anaesthetic has been shown to reduce the

a. Risk of total spinal
b. Analgesic properties
c. Onset of anaesthetic
d. Offset of anaesthetic
e. Chance of inadequate anaesthetic

A

reduce onset time

c) faster onset of anaesthetic

https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/28708665/ agrees with faster onset but for non obstetric surgery

UTD
hyperbaric bupivacaine because of its rapid onset and the option to modify the spinal level by changing the position of the operating table. Plain bupivacaine (ie, slightly hypobaric, prepared in saline) may also be used for spinal anesthesia for CD. The literature comparing safety and efficacy of hyperbaric with isobaric bupivacaine for CD is inconclusive

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14
Q

22.1 A 30-year-old parturient presents in labour. She has a history of Addison’s disease from autoimmune adrenalitis and has been taking prednisolone 6 mg daily for ten years. On presentation the patient is given hydrocortisone 100 mg intravenously. The most appropriate steroid replacement regimen the patient should receive during labour is

a. 25mg TDS hydrocortisone
b. 8mg/hr hydrocortisone
c. 6mg PO prednisone

A

8mg/hr

Guidelines for mx of glucocorticoids during the perioperative period for patients with adrenal insufficiency

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.14963

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15
Q

21.1 The main advantage of using norepinephrine (noradrenaline) over phenylephrine for the prevention of
hypotension as a result of spinal anaesthesia for elective caesarean section is

A. Better APGAR
B. Better foetal acid/base
C. Less nausea/vomiting
D. Less maternal bradycardia

A

less maternal bradycardia

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16
Q

21.1 A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, parity 1, undergoes an elective lower segment caesarean section for breech presentation. The international consensus statement on the use of uterotonic agents recommends that the first line uterotonic management is
a) 1unit
b) 1 unit followed by infusion 2.5-7.5 Units/hr
c) 3 units
d) 3 units followed by infusion

A

Bolus 1 IU oxytocin; start oxytocin infusion at 2.5–7.5IU.h (0.04–0.125 IU.min)

EmLSCS; 3 IU oxytocinover≥30 s; start oxytocininfusion at 7.5–15 IU.h (0.125–0.25 IU.min).

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.14757

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17
Q

23.1 According to the categorisation system used in Australia and New Zealand for prescribing medicines safely in pregnancy, category X denotes drugs which are

a. Drugs that absolutely must not be used for pregnancy. (absolute contraindication)
b. Untested drugs in pregnancy
c. Drugs safe in pregnancy

A

a. Drugs that absolutely must not be used for pregnancy. (absolute contraindication)

https://www.tga.gov.au/australian-categorisation-system-prescribing-medicines-pregnancy

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18
Q

20.1 What is the level below which we need to replace fibrinogen in a pregnant patient with a PPH

A. <1 g/L
B. <1.5 g/L
C. <2 g/L
D. <2.5 g/L
E. <3 g/L

A

<2g/L

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19
Q

23.1 For a woman who has a history of preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy, the intervention with the best evidence for prevention of preeclampsia during future pregnancies is

A. Aspirin 150mg daily (option was definitely 150mg not 100mg)
B. Mg
C. Heparin subcut
D. Ca

A

A. Aspirin 150mg daily (option was definitely 150mg not 100mg)

or

D. Ca

Aspirin should be given at a dose between 75 and 150 mg per day, started preferably before 16 weeks, possibly taken at night, and continued until delivery;

https://www.somanz.org/content/uploads/2023/06/SOMANZ_Hypertension_in_Pregnancy_Guideline_2023.pdf

Calcium supplementation (1.5g/day) should therefore be offered to women with moderate to high risk of preeclampsia, particularly those with a low dietary calcium intake (247)

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20
Q

22.2 Which of the following risk factors for preeclampsia in isolation would be sufficient to recommend commencing low-dose aspirin?

a. Age >40
b. >10 years since last pregnancy
c. Family hx of pre eclampsia
d. autoimmune disease
e. BMI >35

A

d. autoimmune disease (with potential vascular complications)

RANZCOG

Maternal characteristics that are associated with an increased likelihood of pre-eclampsia include:
- previous pre-eclampsia, particularly when more serious or early onset before 34 weeks
- pre-existing medical conditions (including chronic hypertension, underlying renal disease, or pre-gestational diabetes mellitus),
- underlying antiphospholipid antibody syndrome,
- multiple pregnancy

UTD: Preeclampsia: Prevention
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/preeclampsia-prevention

Based on the available data (see ‘Evidence of efficacy’ above), we recommend low-dose aspirin prophylaxis for women at high risk for preeclampsia. There is no consensus on the exact criteria that confer high risk. It is reasonable to use the US Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) high-risk criteria, which are also endorsed by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG).

The incidence of preeclampsia is estimated to be at least 8 percent for pregnant women with any one of these high risk factors:
●Previous pregnancy with preeclampsia, especially early onset and with an adverse outcome
●Multifetal gestation
●Chronic hypertension
●Type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus
●Chronic kidney disease
●Autoimmune disease with potential vascular complications (antiphospholipid syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus)

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21
Q

22.2 An analgesic which is a category A drug using the Australian and New Zealand categories for prescribing medicines in pregnancy is

a. codeine
b. morphine
c. fentanyl
d. tramadol
e. oxycodone

A

a. codeine

Oxycodone B
Morphine C
Tramadol C
Fentanyl C

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22
Q

20.1 A change in respiratory physiology which occurs during pregnancy is DECREASED

a) Oxygen consumption
b) Diaphragmatic excursion
c) Minute ventilation
d) FEV1
e) ERV

A

e) ERV

e) ERV
- diaphragm displaced by gravid uterus = reduced ERV and RV = decreased FRC

FRC decreases by approximately 20 percent during the latter half of pregnancy, due to a decrease in both ERV and residual volume

Chest wall configuration — Outward flaring of the ribs, which begins early in pregnancy, and the progressively enlarging uterus raise the diaphragm up to 4 cm above its usual resting position [6]. However, diaphragmatic excursion during respiration is not impaired and actually increases by up to 2 cm.

23
Q

20.2 Complications from dural puncture and resultant intracranial hypotension do NOT include

a) Cortical vein thrombosis
b) Seizure
c) Subdural haematoma
d) Encephalitis
e) Stroke

A

d) Encephalitis

Complications of dural puncture include:
1. PDPH
2. hearing loss
3. pneumocephalus (if LOR to air)
4. chronic headache
5. chronic back pain
6. subdural haematoma
7. cerebral vein thrombosis
8. bacterial meningitis
9. diplopia
10. cranial nerve palsy
11. seizures

24
Q

21.2 A normal 75 kg term parturient may be expected to have a total blood volume of

a) 5250mls
b) 6000mls
c) 6750mls
d) 7500mls

A

d) 7500mls

Compared with the blood volume (65 to 70 mL/kg) in nonpregnant women, the blood volume in pregnant women at term is increased to 100 mL/kg

25
Q

22.2 The recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for surgical termination of pregnancy is

a. Clindamycin 600 mg
b. Cephalexin 500 mg
c. Doxycycline 400 mg
d. Cephazolin 2g
e. Cephazolin 2g and metronidazole

A

c. Doxycycline 400mg

Insertion of Mirena-> no antibiotics
exception is acute PID-> clindamycin

https://ranzcog.edu.au/wp-content/uploads/2022/05/Prophylactic-Antibiotics-in-Obstetrics-and-Gynaecology.pdf

26
Q

23.1 You are using intraoperative cell salvage during a high-risk caesarean section. The salvaged blood has been washed and reinfused through a leukodepletion filter. This process should remove all of the following EXCEPT

A. Vernix
B. Alpha fetoprotein
C. Foetal RBC
D. Amniotic fluid
E. Foetal squamous cell

A

c) Foetal RBC

All others removed with leukodepletion filter

27
Q

23.1 A woman who is to undergo a caesarean section reports that she is allergic to amoxicillin. The reaction is limited to a rash. For surgical antimicrobial prophylaxis, you should administer

A. Cefoxitin
B. Cefazolin
C. Doxycycline
D. Clindamycin

A

Cefazolin

A first-generation cephalosporin is recommended, such as 2g intravenous cefazolin. The dose should be increased to 3g for women weighing over 120kg. Consideration should also be given to a repeat dose if the procedure is prolonged (over 3 hours).

  • For women with a history of immediate or delayed nonsevere hypersensitivity to
    penicillins, cefazolin, as above, remains appropriate.
  • For women with a history of immediate or delayed severe hypersensitivity to penicillins, use Clindamycin 600mg iv plus Gentamicin 2mg/kg iv.
  • For women colonised with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureas (MRSA) or at increased risk of being colonised with MRSA, add Vancomycin 15mg/kg iv.
  • Azithromycin may be considered at caesarean sections performed during labour or at least four hours after rupture of membranes (2). Administration of azithromycin 500mg has been shown to reduce a composite outcome of endometritis, wound infection or other infection (3). However, a strong recommendation in favour of routine use is not yet warranted given the concerns around the external validity of the paper, inducing resistance to azithromycin and possible effects on the establishment of the indigenous microbiome.
28
Q

20.1 A woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents with nausea and vomiting. Among other blood test abnormalities, her alanine transaminase (ALT) level is 400 IU/l (normal <34) and her International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 2.3. This is most consistent with

a) Hyperemesis gravidarum
b) HELLP syndrome
c) PET with severe features
d) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
e) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

a) Acute fatty liver

Key differences between AFLP and HELLP
- Coagulopathy with deranged INR in AFLP Vs. Thrombocytopenia in HELLP
- Thrombocytopaenia in HELLP, Plts tend to be unaffected in AFLP
- Degree of transaminitis in stem consistent with aFLP

Swansea Criteria for AFLP: Atleast 6 or more of the features described:
- Vomiting
- Abdominal pain
- Polydypsia/polyuria
- Encephalopathy
- Elevated Bilirubin
- Hypoglycaemia
- Elevated urate
- Leucocytosis
- Ascites/ Bright liver on US scan
- Elevated transaminases
- Elevated Amonia
- Renal impairment
- Coagulopathy
- Microvesicular streatosis on liver biopsy

AFLP:
Pathophysiology
- Variant of pre-eclampsia
- presents in the late 3rd trimester
- more common in women with multiple pregnancies and lower BMI
- Women with the condition are more likely to have children with disorders of B-fatty oxidation
- Associated with high maternal mortality, on average 1 death per year

Daignosis and presentation:
- Diagnosis by Swansea criteria in absence of another explanation
- Imaging with CT or MRI a liver biopsy or fat stain may support diagnosis
- present with non-specific symptoms of:
Nausea and vomiting
Malaise
Associated Htn and proteinuria
- Renal impairment develops in 90% of patients
- Fulminant hepatic failure can occur
- Patients may develop hepatic encephalopathy, coagulopathy and profound hypoglycaemia
- Metabolic acidosis and elevated lactate are not part of diagnostic criteria but are important features
- Pancreatitis and ARDS are other rare complications

Delivery and Anaesthetic concerns:
- Delivery must be expedited once the patient is stablized due to high foetal mortality
- Specific anaesthetic concerns are top correct hypoglycaemia and coagulopathy before delivery
- Plt function tends to remain stable unlike HELLP syndrome
- Uneventful regional anaesthesia has been reported and may improve hepatic blood flow but is often precluded due to coagulopathy
- Symptoms can deteriorate post-partum with worsening liver, renal function and coagulopathy for 48hrs

29
Q

20.1 Complications of dural puncture with intracranial hypotension do not cause

A) Cortical vein thrombosis
B) Seizure
C) Subdural haematoma
D) Encephalitis
E) Stroke

A

d) Encephalitis

UTD:
OTHER COMPLICATIONS OF DURAL PUNCTURE

PDPH is the most common adverse outcome of dural puncture and is generally self-limited and benign.

-Hearing loss (hypoacusia) may occur after dural puncture, and has been variably reported in up to 10 to 50 percent of patients after spinal anesthesia
- unilateral or bilateral, and may occur even in the absence of headache.
- Hearing loss is usually transient, but there are reported cases of hearing loss lasting for years after spinal anesthesia, unintentional dural puncture (UDP) and diagnostic lumbar puncture (LP).
- thought to relate to intracranial hypotension, with risk factors similar to risk factors for PDPH.
- In small studies, larger needle size and cutting needles have been associated with increased incidence of hearing loss.
- Epidural blood patch (EBP) has been performed with resolution of hearing loss.

  • Injection of air into the subarachnoid space during placement of neuraxial block may result in acute onset of severe headache and other neurologic signs and symptoms.
  • This complication may occur with an UDP if air, rather than saline, is used for loss of resistance to identify the epidural space.
  • A pneumocephalus headache can occur within a few seconds if the epidural is placed with the patient in the sitting position, but may be delayed until the patient sits up if the epidural is placed in the lateral decubitus position.
  • Regardless of onset delay, the headache is usually maximal at onset (ie, “thunderclap”).
  • Treatment of pneumocephalus headache is symptomatic.
  • Limited data suggest that normobaric oxygen therapy leads to more rapid resolution; hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be indicated for more severe cases of pneumocephalus.
  • Dural puncture is rarely associated with long-lasting complications.
  • Cases of persistent headache have been reported, some of which have required surgical repair of the dural rent or fluoroscopically-guided blood patch.
  • Increased chronic back pain has also been reported in patients who have had UDP, with no increased risk conferred by EBP as treatment for the PDPH.
  • PDPH may also be associated with persistent headache, chronic low back pain, bacterial meningitis, and postpartum depression.
  • EBP is not indicated as treatment for any of these complications.
  • In rare cases, dural puncture has been associated with reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS) and posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), but causation is uncertain; several of these reports involved obstetric patients with possible preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are also associated with RCVS and PRES.
30
Q

21.1 A 30-year-old woman is administered an anaesthetic for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. She is breastfeeding her six-week-old infant. During anaesthesia she receives the following drugs: propofol, fentanyl, sevoflurane, rocuronium, oxycodone, parecoxib, ondansetron, sugammadex and cefuroxime. The best advice regarding breastfeeding after anaesthesia is to

a) Discard 12 hours post procedure
b) discard 24 hours post procedure
c) discard 1st feed
d) discard first 2 feeds
e) discarding not required

A

e) discarding not required

31
Q

21.2 Postdural puncture headache in obstetric anaesthesia is associated with a greater likelihood of all of the following EXCEPT

a) Postpartum depression
b) Bacterial meningitis
c) Chronic back pain
d) Cerebral vein thrombosis
e) Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

A

No answer provided. ?encephalitis
These are all complications of dural puncture.

Encephalitis most likely answer

https://www.uptodate.com/contents/post-dural-puncture-headache

Complications of PDPH
1. Chronic Back pain
2. Hearing loss
3. Acute onset headache consider pneumopcephalus headache
4. Persistent headache
5. Increased risk of subdural haematoma
6. postpartum depression
7. bacterial meningitis
8. Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS)
9. Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

32
Q

23.1 Compared to a continuous epidural infusion, patient controlled epidural analgesia does NOT reduce

A. cesarean section rate.
B. Instrumental delivery.
C. Total dose of local anaesthetic.
D. height of block, motor block.
E. clinical workload

A

A. cesarean section rate.

Blue Book 2021

PCEA benefits include a decrease in motor blockade and decreased total local anaesthetic consumption. PCEA also reduces anaesthetic workload by significantly decreasing the requirement for clinician boluses while delivering similar analgesia, patient satisfaction and obstetric outcomes44. PCEA is most frequently used in combination with either PIB or CEI.

There is an associated decrease in instrumental deliveries in nulliparous women with intermittent bolus techniques with no difference in caesarean section rate. Caesarean section rates are unchanged for women with either type of epidural, compared to those without.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK69143/

Unscheduled anaesthetic interventions (6 RCTs): significantly fewer patients required clinician top-ups with PCEA compared with CEI. The RD was 27% (95% CI: 18, 36, p<0.00001). Similar findings were obtained when only studies with a quality score of 3 or more were analysed (RD 35%, 95% CI: 19, 51, p<0.0001). No heterogeneity was detected (p=0.36).

Amount of local anaesthetic (8 RCTs): different regimens were used and significant heterogeneity was detected (p<0.0001). All studies found that higher local anaesthetic doses were used with CEI than with PCEA.

Motor block (4 RCTs): significantly fewer patients had ‘no motor weakness’ with PCEA than with CEI; the RD was 18% (95% CI: 6, 31, p=0.003).

Analgesia: there was no difference in the visual analogue scores between the treatments in the 7 RCTs that used them.

There was no significant difference between PCEA and CEI for: patient satisfaction (5 RCTs); total duration of first and second stage of labour (3 RCTs); incidence of Caesarean section or instrumental delivery (9 RCTs); incidence of low Apgar scores at 1 and 5 minutes after birth (6 RCTs); hypotension (6 RCTs); high block (3 RCTs); pruritus (2 RCTs); shivering (1 RCT) or nausea (1 RCT). The results for all of these outcomes were reported in the review.

Both PCEA and CEI appear to be safe for the mother and the neonate. Patients who receive PCEA are less likely to require anaesthetic intervention, require lower doses of local anaesthetic and have less motor block than those who receive CEI.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK69143/

33
Q

22.1 Regarding the Australian and New Zealand categorisation system for prescribing medicines in pregnancy, Category C medicines are ones which

A

c= Drugs which, owing to their pharmacological effects, have caused or may be suspected of causing, harmful effects on the human fetus or neonate without causing malformations. These effects may be reversible.

Category A
Drugs which have been taken by a large number of pregnant women and women of childbearing age without any proven increase in the frequency of malformations or other direct or indirect harmful effects on the fetus having been observed.

Category B1
Drugs which have been taken by only a limited number of pregnant women and women of childbearing age, without an increase in the frequency of malformation or other direct or indirect harmful effects on the human fetus having been observed.

Studies in animals have not shown evidence of an increased occurrence of fetal damage.

Category B2
Drugs which have been taken by only a limited number of pregnant women and women of childbearing age, without an increase in the frequency of malformation or other direct or indirect harmful effects on the human fetus having been observed.

Studies in animals are inadequate or may be lacking, but available data show no evidence of an increased occurrence of fetal damage.

Category B3
Drugs which have been taken by only a limited number of pregnant women and women of childbearing age, without an increase in the frequency of malformation or other direct or indirect harmful effects on the human fetus having been observed.

Studies in animals have shown evidence of an increased occurrence of fetal damage, the significance of which is considered uncertain in humans.

Category C
Drugs which, owing to their pharmacological effects, have caused or may be suspected of causing, harmful effects on the human fetus or neonate without causing malformations. These effects may be reversible. Accompanying texts should be consulted for further details.

Category D
Drugs which have caused, are suspected to have caused or may be expected to cause, an increased incidence of human fetal malformations or irreversible damage. These drugs may also have adverse pharmacological effects. Accompanying texts should be consulted for further details.

Category X
Drugs which have such a high risk of causing permanent damage to the fetus that they should not be used in pregnancy or when there is a possibility of pregnancy.

34
Q

20.1 The threshold plasma fibrinogen level at which you should start replacement during postpartum haemorrhage is

a. 1.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
e. 3.0

A

C

https://ranzcog.edu.au/wp-content/uploads/2022/05/Prevention-and-Management-of-Postpartum-Haemorrhage.pdf

35
Q

22.1 In the World Maternal Antifibrinolytic (WOMAN) trial, tranexamic acid administration within three hours of birth reduced the

a) Decreased all cause mortality
b) Decreased mortality due to bleeding
c) Decreased transfusion
d) Decreased use of Bakri balloons
e) Increased rate of VTE

A

b) Decreased mortality due to bleeding

TXA decreased death due to bleeding.

No difference in all cause mortality.
No difference in use of blood products. No difference in surgical interventions. No difference in thromboembolic events.

36
Q

21.2 A trainee becomes aware that a patient they have just anaesthetised for emergency surgery is breastfeeding and seeks your advice regarding recommencement of breast feeding. You advise that breast feeding is contraindicated because during the admission today the patient
received

a) Tramadol
b) Codeine
c) Ketamine
d) Midazolam

A

Codeine

Source Appendix ANZCA PG 07

37
Q

22.2 Cyclooxygenase type 2 inhibitors (COX-2) in pregnancy are considered

a. Not safe
b. safe
c. safe only in 1st trimester
d. safe only in 1st and 3rd trimester
e. not safe for 3rd trimester and 48 hours post delivery

A

a. Not safe
or
c. safe only in 1st trimester

While relatively safe in early and mid pregnancy, NSAIDs can precipitate fetal cardiac and renal complications in late pregnancy, as well as interfere with fetal brain development and the production of amniotic fluid; they should be discontinued in gestational wk 32

APMSE

38
Q

20.2 A preeclamptic woman presents with a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. An appropriate first line treatment to reduce the blood pressure is

a. Labetalol
b. Nifedipine
c. Magnesium
d. Methyldopa
e. Perindopril

A

Labetalol

RANZCOG
first line drugs are
> methyldopa
> labetalol
> oxprenolol.

Second line agents are:
- hydralazine
- nifedipine
- prazosin.

Acute Rx:
Labetalol: 20-40mg IV q10min
Nifedipine 10-20mg PO Q45min
Hydralazine 5-10mg IV q20min

39
Q

20.1 Epidural filters are designed to retain particles down to a diameter of

A. 20 nanometers
B. 200 nanometers
C. 2 micrometers
D. 20 micrometers
E. 200micrometers

A

B. 200 nanometers (0.2 micrometres)

40
Q

22.2 AFE incidence highest in
a) HELP Syndrome
b) LSCS
c) Instrumental delivery
d) Preeclampsia
e) Spontaneously

A

LUCS

41
Q

22.2 You are reviewing a primigravida at 32 weeks gestation with a Fontan circulation in the anaesthetic preassessment clinic. Peripartum care should avoid the use of

a. Terbutaline
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ergometrine
d. Lignocaine 2% with adrenaline 1:200 000
e.

A

Ergometrin increases PVR and SVR

42
Q

20.1 Of the following, the maternal cardiac condition that represents the highest risk of mortality associated with pregnancy is

a. Bicuspid aortic valve with significantly dilated aortic root
b. Fontan circulation
c. HOCM
d. PDA

A

A - Modified WHO class 4

B - Modified WHO class 3 (4 if ANY complication)
C - Modified WHO class 2-3 (if severe AS - 4)
D - Modified WHO class 1

Class 4 = 40-100% risk of event

Source
https://academic.oup.com/eurheartj/article/39/34/3165/5078465

Table:
https://academic.oup.com/view-large/186437995

43
Q

21.2 A woman experiences a post-partum haemorrhage associated with uterine atony that is unresponsive to oxytocin and ergometrine. The recommended intramuscular dose of carboprost (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha ) to be administered is

a) 250mcg IM once
b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg
c) 500mcg IM
d) 250mcg IV
e) 500mcg IV

A

15-methyl-PGF2α (carboprost; Prostinfenem) which may be administered in one of two ways:
Intra-muscular injection of 0.25mg, in repeated doses as required at intervals of not less than 15
minutes to a maximum total cumulative dose of 2.0mg (ie up to 8 doses)

Source RANZCOG PPH Guideline 2021

44
Q

22.2 A woman experiences a postpartum haemorrhage associated with uterine atony that is unresponsive to oxytocin and ergometrine. The recommended intramuscular dose of carboprost (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha) to be administered is

a) 250mcg IM once
b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg
c) 500mcg IM
d) 250mcg IV
e) 500mcg IV

A

b) 250mcg IM q15mins, up to 2mg

QLD maternity guidelines
Carpoprost 250mcg IM
Repeat every 15-90min as r

45
Q

23.1 The main advantage of using noradrenaline (norepinephrine) over phenylephrine for
the prevention of hypotension as a result of spinal anaesthesia for elective
caesarean section is

a) Better APGAR
b) Better foetal acid-base balance
c) Less nausea & vomiting
d) Less maternal bradycardia

A

d) less maternal bradycardia (repeat)

46
Q

20.1 A postpartum woman presents with numbness over the anterior thigh, and weakness on flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. An epidural was sited for labour and she underwent an instrumental delivery. The most likely site of the injury is the:

a) Femoral nerve
b) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
c) Lumbosacral plexus
d) Obturator nerve
e) Sciatic nerve

A

a) Femoral nerve

Nerve roots: L2-L4

Motor functions: Innervates the anterior thigh muscles that flex the hip joint (pectineus, iliacus, sartorius) and extend the knee (quadriceps femoris: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius),

Sensory functions: Supplies cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh (anterior cutaneous branches of the femoral nerve) and the medial side of the leg and foot (saphenous nerve).

47
Q

22.2 A woman is diagnosed with preeclampsia and fetal growth restriction at 30 weeks gestation. Her haemodynamics are most likely to show
a) Increased CO, Decreased SVR
b) Decreased CO, Decreased SVR
c) Decreased CO, Increased SVR
d) No change CO, Increased SVR

A

c) Decreased CO, Increased SVR

It is plausible that a case of pre-eclampsia that occurs earlier in gestation and is associated with fetal growth restriction is related to low cardiac output and high peripheral vascular resistance with a much similar profile as observed in women with fetal growth restriction without HDP. In cases of later and term gestation pre-eclampsia, babies tend to be larger and there is a predominantly high cardiac output, low peripheral vascular resistance and raised intravascular volume state. Certainly, the clinical phenotype of a very ‘dry’, intravascularly depleted woman at 26 weeks with a growth restricted baby and conversely of a well-perfused oedematous woman with a bounding pulse and large baby at 38 weeks rings true: both have hypertension, but the mechanisms may be diametrically opposite.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5569150/

48
Q

21.1 A woman with preeclampsia presents with a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. An appropriate first line treatment to reduce the blood pressure is

a. Labetalol
b. Nifedipine
c. Magnesium
d. Levodopa

A

labetalol

https://www.bjaed.org/article/S2058-5349(20)30114-1/fulltext
The threshold for initiating antihypertensive treatment for all hypertensive disorders in pregnancy has been lowered. A sustained BP ≥140/90 mmHg warrants treatment, targeting a BP ≤135/85 mmHg.

The main aim of controlling the maternal BP is the prevention of intracerebral haemorrhage and stroke. The rate of stroke during the peripartum period in women with pre-eclampsia is 133 per 100,000, with haemorrhagic stroke being more common than ischaemic stroke.
NICE recommends offering oral labetalol as initial therapy, followed by nifedipine and then methyldopa as alternatives.

Second- and third-line agents include hydralazine and prazosin.

Women with severe hypertension (SBP ≥160 mmHg, DBP ≥110 mmHg, or both) should be admitted to hospital for assessment and treatment in a monitored setting.

Hypertensive emergencies can be treated with intravenous labetalol, hydralazine and immediate-release oral nifedipine without the need for invasive cardiac monitoring.

Labetalol 20 mg i.v. can be given over 2 min, and increased incrementally up to 80 mg i.v. If the BP remains high, another antihypertensive agent such as hydralazine can be added.

An initial dose of hydralazine 5–10 mg i.v. over 2 min can be followed by a further 10 mg i.v. after 20 min if the BP remains high.

A suggested initial dose of immediate-release oral nifedipine is 10 mg, followed by a further 20 mg if the BP remains high after 20 min.

49
Q

21.2 A pregnant woman requires a caesarean section delivery within 30 minutes for fetal distress.
Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m2. She has multiple sclerosis with lesions in her brain
and spinal cord and receives monthly injections of the disease-modifying drug ofatumumab.
The most appropriate plan for her delivery is

a) Spinal
b) CSE
c) Epidural
d) GA

A

a) Spinal
Makarla

Epidural and vaginal delivery
? GA

all are safe in MS
The MAN I think is to signify advanced MS

(Really there isn’t heaps of evidence)

Source World Fed Anaesthetists

https://resources.wfsahq.org/wp-content/uploads/359_english.pdf
(What a terrible question)

50
Q

A pregnant woman requires a caesarean section delivery within 30 minutes for fetal distress.

Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m2. She has multiple sclerosis with lesions in her brain and spinal cord and receives monthly injections of the disease-modifying drug ofatumumab.

The most appropriate plan for her delivery is

a) Spinal
b) GA
c) CSE
d) Epi

A

a) Spinal
Makarla

Epidural and vaginal delivery
? GA

all are safe in MS
The MAN I think is to signify advanced MS

(Really there isn’t heaps of evidence)

Source World Fed Anaesthetists

https://resources.wfsahq.org/wp-content/uploads/359_english.pdf
(What a terrible question)

51
Q

The needle whose tip is pictured is a

a) Sprotte
b) Quinke
c) Touhy
d) Whitacre

A

c) Touhy

52
Q

Somatic pain in the second stage of labour is NOT transmitted via the

a) Pudendal nerve
b) Illioinguinal
c) pelvic splanchnic
d) genitofemoral

A

c) pelvic splanchnic
-> visceral not somativ nerve

53
Q

A 30 year old parturient presents in labour. She has a history of Addison’s disease from
autoimmune adrenalitis and has been taking prednisolone 6 mg daily for ten years. On
presentation the patient is given hydrocortisone 100 mg intravenously. The most appropriate steroid replacement regime the patient should receive during labour is

a. 25mg TDS hydrocortisone
b. 8mg/hr hydrocortisone
c. 6mg PO prednisone

A

8mg/hr

Guidelines for mx of glucocorticoids during the perioperative period for patients with adrenal insufficiency

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.14963