Obstetrics Flashcards

(133 cards)

1
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A
  • Apperance
  • Pulse
  • Frimace (reflex irritability)
  • Activity
  • Respiration
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2
Q

When is APGAR given?

A

1 minute after birth and again at 5 minutes

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3
Q

What is a normal, low, and critically low APGAR score?

A
  • Normal: = to or greater than 7
  • Low: 4-6
  • Critically low: = to or less than 3
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4
Q

What are the APGAR categories for appearance?

A
  • 0: blue, pale
  • 1: pink body, blue extremities
  • 2: pink
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5
Q

What are the APGAR categories for pulse?

A
  • 0: absent
  • 1: below 100 bpm
  • 2: over 100 bpm
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6
Q

What are the APGAR categories for grimace?

A
  • 0: floppy
  • 1: minimal response to stimulation
  • 2: prompt response to stimulation
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7
Q

What are the APGAR categories for activity?

A
  • 0: absent
  • 1: flexed arms and legs
  • 2: active
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8
Q

What are the APGAR categories for respiration?

A
  • 0: absent
  • 2: slow and irregular
  • 3: vigorous cry
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9
Q

What are dizygotic or fraternal twins?

A
  • 2/3 of multiple gestations
  • fertilized 2 ova by 2 different sperms
  • not the same genetic material
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10
Q

What are monozygotic or identical twins?

A
  • 1/3 of multiple gestations
  • fertilization of 1 ova that splits
  • same genetic material
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11
Q

How much weight can a patient gain with multiple gestations?

A

37-54 lbs

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12
Q

How are multiple gestations diagnosed?

A

US + elevated hCG + AFP

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13
Q

What are monochorionic monoamniotic (mo/mo) twins?

A

single placenta, one chorion, one amnion

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14
Q

What are monochorionic diamniotic (mo-di) twins?

A

Single placenta, single chorion, two sacks

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15
Q

What are dichorionic diamniotic (di-di) twins?

A

two placentae, two chorion, two sacs

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16
Q

What are management recommendations for multiple gestations?

A
  • 2 prenatal vitamine with iron
  • 1 mg folate and 1000 mg of vitamin D daily
  • More frequent US & visits
  • Sleep on the left side
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17
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor & delivery?

A
  1. Engagement
  2. Descent
  3. Flexion
  4. Internal rotation
  5. Extension
  6. External rotation
  7. Expulsion
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18
Q

What is engagement?

A

fetal head enters into pelvis

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19
Q

What is descent?

A

Fetal head descends into pelvis

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20
Q

What is flexion?

A

head flexes to smallest diameter to present to the pelvis

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21
Q

What is internal rotation?

A

fetal vertex rotates from the transverse position to the anterioposterior position

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22
Q

What is extension?

A

vertex extends beyond pubic symphysis

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23
Q

What is external rotation?

A

after the head is delivered, baby externally rotates to allow for babys shoulders to pass

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24
Q

What is stage 1 of labor?

A
  • onset of true regular contractions until full dilation/effacement of cervix
  • 10-12 hrs
  • latent phase: onset until 2-4 cm dilated
  • active phase: extends until >9 cm
  • deceleration/transition phase: cervix completes dilation
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25
What is stage 3 of labor?
* from delivery of infant until delivery of placenta
25
What is stage 2 of labor?
* time of full dilation until delivery * 1-2 hours * early/variable decelerations common * passive and active phases
26
What are fetal stations?
a measurement of how high ot low the baby is * -3: above ischial spines * 0: at ischial spines * 3: below ischial spines (time to push)
27
What is the first trimester screen and when is it done?
* Plasma hCG, PAPP-A, nuchal translucency * 11-13 wks * CVS sampling if indicated
28
What chromosome abnormalities does the 1st trimester sceen look for?
* Downs (21): ↑↑ NT, ↓↓ PAPP-A, ↑ hCG * Edwards (18): ↑↑ NT, ↓↓ PAPP-A & hCG * Pataus (13): ↑ NT, ↓↓ PAPP-A & ↓ hCG
29
What is the QUAD screen and when is it done?
* AFP + inhibin-A + estriol + BhCG * 15-20 weeks
30
What chromosome abormalities does the QUAD screen look for?
* Downs (21): ↑ hCG & ↑ inhibin-A * Edwards (18): ↓ estriol, ↓↓ hCG * Pataus (13): ↑ AFP * Turners (X/0): ↑↑ hCG & inhibin-A
31
What is the MCC of spontanous abortion?
chromosomal abnormalities
32
What is a threatened abortion?
* cervical os: closed * POC: retained
33
What is an inevitable abortion?
* cervical os: open * POC: retained
34
What is an incomplete abortion?
* cervical os: open * POC: some passed
35
What is a complete abortion?
* cervical os: closed * POC: completly passed
36
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
* implantation anywhere but the endometrium * MC: fallopian tube * MCC: occlusion of tube due to adhesions * typically presents 6-8 weeks after LMP
37
What are risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?
* strongest RF: previous ectopic * hx PID, IUD
38
What are symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy?
**Unilateral/lower abd pain + bleeding/spotting + amenorrhea** * ruptured: severe abdominal or shoulder pain (kehr sign), syncope, hypotension
39
How is an ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?
hCG less than expected * > 1500 should show up on TVUS
40
How do you treat an ectopic pregnancy?
* hCG < 5000 without fetal activity: methotrexate * emergent: laparoscopy * trend BhCG until levels return to normal
41
How is gestational diabeties diagnosed?
GTT screening at 24-28 weeks * 50g 1 hr glucose test: > 140 * 100g 3 hr test: fasting > 90, 1 hr > 180, 2 hr > 155, 3 hr > 140
42
How is gestational diabeties treated?
* Diet & exercise * Severe: insulin * Alt. glyburtide or metformin * Comp.: polyhydramnios
42
What are symptoms of gestational trophoblastic disease?
painless vaginal bleeding, uterine size greater than gestational age, hyperemesis gravidarum, preclampsia 6-16 weeks
43
What is gestational trophoblastic disease?
neoplasm due to abnormal placental development with trophoblastic tissue proliferation arising from gestational tissue * 2 types: complete (MC), partial * complete: empty, no viable fetus * partial: some fetal tissue + trohoblastic hyperplasia
44
How is gestational trophoblastic disease diagnosed?
* earilest it can be dx: 8 wks * hCG > 100,000 * US: snowstorm pattern and grapelike vesicles
45
How is gestational trophoblastic disease treated?
* benign/low risk: chemo (methotrexate) * high risk: chemo + surgery/radiation * **surgical: suction curettage/hysterectomy** * Monitor weekly hCG until return to baseline
46
What is cervical insufficiency?
inability of the cervix to retain a pregnancy through the 2nd trimester due to premature cervical dilation in the absense of uterine contractions
47
What are risk factors for cervical insufficency?
**ehlers-donlos syndrome**, cervical trauma during labor/delivery, cervical dilations
48
What are symptoms and physical exam findings of cervical insufficency?
* Sx: ASX or pelvic pressure & vaginal discharge * PE: soft, effaced, dilated cervix with grossly prolapsed or ruptured membranes
49
How is cervical insufficency diagnosed?
* 2 consecutive 2nd trimester losses or early premature births * TVUS: cervical length less than 25 mm before 24 wks
50
How is cervical insufficency treated?
cerclage placement at 12-14 weeks
51
52
What is placenta abruptio?
* premature separation of normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall after 20 weeks resulting in hemorrhage * most occur before labor and after 30 wks * **MCC of third trimester bleeding**
53
What are risk factors for placenta abruptio?
**HTN**, cocaine, smoking
54
What are symptoms of placenta abruptio?
**3rd trimester painful vaginal bleeding** +/- severe contraction, firm/tender uterus
55
How is placenta abruptio diagnosed?
clinically - **NO VAGINAL EXAM**
56
How is placenta abruptio treated?
stabilize patient, prepare for hemorrhage * < 34 wks: tocolytics + steriods + bed rest * > 34 wks: delivery
57
What is placenta previa?
when the placenta attaches low in the uterus * complete: covers all of interal os * partial: covers portion of internal os * marginal: covers edge of internal os
58
What are symptoms of placenta previa?
sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding after 28 weeks * absense of abfominal pain ot uterine tenderness
59
How is placenta previa diagnosed?
**NO VAGINAL EXAM** * transabdominal US: to screen * TVUS: to confirm * Kleihaver-betke test for all Rh - women
60
How is placenta previa treated?
strict pelvic rest and bed rest * planned c-section at 34-37 weeks + hysterectomy
61
What are the guidelines for elective abortions?
>8 weeks gestation: medical abortion * methotrexate/misoprostol >12 weeks gestation: surgical abortion * 4-12 wks: suction curettage (D&C) * greater than 12 wks: D&E
62
What is preclampsia?
**TRIAD: nondependent edema, HTN, proteinuria**
63
How is preclampsia diagnosed?
**BP >140/90** on 2 seperate occasions after 20 wks **+ proteinuria** * >300 mg per 24hr collection * protein:creatinin > 0.3 **OR in the absence of proteinuria** * thrombocytopenia: platelets < 100,000 * creatinine > 1.1 * RUQ or epigastric pain unresponsive to tx * pulmonary edema * visual disturbances/headaches
64
How is preclampsia treated?
**prevent eclampsia + BP control + delivery** * seizure prophylaxis: magnesium sulfate (monitor patellar reflex - calcium gluconate if mag toxicity) * BP: hydralazing, labetalol, nifedipine * >32 wks: deliver w/ induction * Future pregnancies: low dose ASA
65
What is eclampsia?
**elevated BP + proteinuria + seizures**
66
What are symptoms of eclampsia?
HTN after 20 wks gestation + protinuria + evidence of end-organ dysfunction (visual changes, AMS, pulmonary edema, seizures)
67
How is eclampsia diagnosed?
Control BP + delivery * magnesium sulfate: 4-6g over 15-20 min followed by 1-2g per hour (monitor patellar reflex) * BP: hydralazine, contuine for 12-24 hrs after delivery
68
What is HELLP syndrome?
* Hemolytic anemia: bite cells, schistocytes, high lactate & bilirubin, low Hgb * Elevated Liver enzymes * Low Platelets: < 100k
69
When to suspect HELLP syndrome?
epigastric pain + headache + HTN Tx: delivery
70
What is augmentation?
induction of labor, increases contractions * prostaglandins, oxytocin, mechanical dilation, artifical ROM
71
What induction agent would you give a patient with a Bishop score greater than 6?
Favorable for success of induction * IV oxytocin, aminotomy (artifical ROM)
72
What induction agent would you give for a patient with a Bishop score less than 6?
Unfavorable for successful induction * prostaglandin gel or transcervical balloon catheter
73
How is hyperemesis gravidarum diagnosed?
* weight loss of > 5 % of pre-pregnancy body weight * UA: ketonuria * hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
74
How is hyperemesis gravidarum treated?
* Inital: lifestyle modification * 1st line: pyridoxine +/- doxylamine * 2nd line: phenergan, zofran or metoclopramide
75
What is the leading cause of neonatal sepsis?
GBS
76
How is pyelonephritis treated in a pregnant patient?
IV ceftriaxone
77
What is intrahepatic cholestasis?
liver disease that occurs during pregnancy characterized by increased serum bile acids and elevated LFTs * MC in 3rd trimester * recurs in 1/2 of pregnancies
78
What are symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis?
purititis on plams and soles
79
How is intrahepatic cholestasis treated?
ursodexyxholic acid to ↑ hepatic bile flor * Induce labor at 36-37 weeks gestation
80
How should seizures be managed in pregnancy?
* taper to lowest effective dose * if no seixure in 2 years, stop meds * **no depakote or valproic acid**
81
How should DVT be managed in pregnancy?
heparin
82
How should thyroid disorders be managed in pregnancy?
* hyper: PTU (1st trimester), methimazole * hypo: levothyoxine
83
How should SLE be treated in preganancy?
ASA, heparin, steriods * **NO methotrexate**
84
What is intraamniotic infection (chorioamnionitis)?
serious complication of pregnancy due to infection or inflammation of the fetal amnion membrane and chorion membrane * caused by upward migration of vaginal flora
85
What are symptoms of IAI (chorioamionitis)?
fever > 100.4, leukocytosis (>15,000), purulent cervical os fluid, baseline fetal tachycardia * maternal tachycardia, uterine tenderness, ill/toxic appearing, hypotension, diaphoresis
86
How is IAI (chorioamnionitis) diagnosed?
Clinical * fever + leukocytosis + fetal tachycardia OR purulent fluid from cervical os * Confirm: needle aspiration & analysis of amniotic fluid
87
How is IAI treated?
ABX + quick delivery * IV ampicillin + gentamycin * + clindamycin or metronidazole if c-section
88
What is the frank breech presentation?
MC * hips flexed & knees extended * feet adjacent to head
89
What is complete breech presentaion?
* both hips flexed * both knees flexed
90
What is incomplete (footling) breech presentation?
* one or both hips not completely flexed * presenting part may be buttock or one or both feet
91
What is McRoberts maneuver?
* hyperflexion and abduction of maternal hips towars the abdomen without pressure then with suprapubic pressure * for shoulder dystocia
92
What is Rubin maneuver?
* for shoulder dystocia * pressure on accessible shoulder towards anterior chest of fetus to decrease diameter
93
What is Woods corkscrew maneuver?
* for shoulder dystocia * rotation fo the fetal shoulder 180°
94
What is Zavenilli maneuver?
* for a true emergency of shoulder dystocia * place head back into pelvis and perform c-section
95
What is normal acceleration of fetal heart rate?
* ≥ 32 weeks gestation * HR peak of ≥ 15 bpm above baseline with a duration of 15sec-2min from onset to return
96
What is reactive accleratino of fetal heart rate?
Two normal accelerations within 20 minutes
97
What is an early deceleration?
* lowest fetal HR at the **SAME TIME** as peak contraction * due to vagal tone and head compression during contraction
98
What is a variable deceleration?
* ↓ in fetal HR ≥ 15 bpm for 15 sec-2 min * due to cord entrapment under fetal shoulder
99
What are late decelerations?
* lowest fetal HR **AFTER** the peak of the contraction * due to uteroplacental insufficency
100
What is category I of fetal distress?
* Normal fetal HR * normal baseline * moderate variability * no late decelerations
101
What is category II of fetal distress?
* indeterminate fetal HR * anything that doesnt fall into categories I or II and warrents further investigation
102
What is category III of fetal distress?
abnormal fetal HR + atleast 1 of the following * abseent variability * recurrent late declerations * bradycardia * sinusoidal pattern (fetal anemia)
103
What is VEALCHOP?
* Variable: Cord compression * Early: Head compression * Accelerations: Ok * Late: Placenta insufficency
104
What is premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
membrane rupture before the onset of labor or refular uterine contraction ≥ 37 weeks
105
What are symptoms and physical exam findings of PROM?
* Sx: sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina * PE: pooling of amniotic fluid in vaginal fornix
106
How is PROM diagnosed?
Clinical - **avoid digital exam!** To confirm: * **+ nitrazine paper test** * **microscopic ferning** * US: absent or very low levels of amniotic fluid
107
How is PROM treated?
Prompt induction of labor with oxytocin * Complications: IAI or endometritis if prolonged
108
What is preterm premature rupture of membranes (pPROM)?
* membrane rupture before 37 weeks
109
How is pPROM treated?
* 20-36wks: steriods + ABX (ampicillin, erythromycin) + tocolysis + bethamethosone * daily BPP, NST, aminocentesis * prompt delivey if sxs of maternal/fetal infection or distress
110
What is preterm labor?
* before 37 weeks gestation * regular uterine contraction ~5 min apart that occur with cervical dilation, effacement or both * **MCC of infant morbidity/mortality**
111
112
What are the 4 main causes of preterm labor?
1. pathologic uterine distension: multiple gestation, polyhydramnios 2. blood vessel hemorrahe & abruption: maternal HTN 3. **exaggerated response to inflammation or infection: activation of TNF** 4. premature activation of HPA
113
Howis preterm labor diagnosed?
regular uterine contractions + 1 of the following * cervical dilation ≥ 3 cm * cervical length < 20 mm on TVUS * cervical length 20-29mm on TVUS + positive fetal fibronectin
114
How is preterm labor treated?
* >34 wks: deliver * <34 wks: ABX + steriods + tocolytics
115
What are tocolysis?
Its Not My Time! * Indomethacin: before 32 weeks * Nifedipine: after 32 weeks * Magnesium sulfate: neuroprotective * Terbutaline: BBW may cause maternal death and cardiac events
116
How can preterm labor be prevented?
weekly injections of 17 alpha hydrocyprogesterone caproate from 16-36 weeks
117
What is oligohydramnios?
* too little amniotic fluid * ↑ in perinatal mortality * AFI < 5 on US
118
How is oligohydramnios treated?
* induce labor * dilure meconium in amniotic fluid to decrease aspiration risk
119
What is polyhydramnios?
* too much amniotic fluid * MCC chromosome abnormalities * AFI > 20-25 on US * Tx: ROM
120
What is a prolapsed umbilical cord?
* umbilical cord presents outside the cervix before fetus is delivered * emergency! inhibits blood flow and can lead to fetal demise * RF: breech position
121
What are symptoms of a prolapsed umbilical cord?
changes on fetal HR tracings, variable late decelerations or prolonged bradycardia
122
How is a prolapsed umbilical cord treated?
* cord decompression (manual) * **standard: emergent C-section** * if delay: terbutaline 0.25mg to decrease contractions and alleviate pressure on cord
123
What is endometritis?
infection of the decidua (pregnancy endometrium) * MC after c-section * MCC: anaerobic streptococci
124
What are symptoms of endometritis?
* 5-10 days after delivery * Classic: lower abdominal pain + fever + tachycardia + uterine tenderness * foul smelling lochia
125
How is endometritis diagnosed?
WBC > 20K, UA
126
How is endometritis treated?
**IV clindamycin + gentamycin ** * may add ampicillin or metro if no response in 24-48 hrs * suspect septic pelvic thrombophlebitis if no imporvment after 3-5 days (palpable cord-like mass) * Prophylaxis: ceftazolin within 60min of c-section
127
What is a 1st degree perineal laceration?
involves only the perineal skin
128
What is a second-degree perineal laceration?
involves the perineal body and deeper tissues (bulbospongious muscle, superficial transverse perineal muscle)
129
What is a third-degree perineal laceration?
extends into the capsule and muscle of the rectal sphincter * 3a <50% * 3b >50% * 3c: both external and internal anal sphincter
130
What is a 4th degree perineal laceration?
extends through the spincter and into the rectal mucosa
131
What is a episiotomy?
surgical incision from vaginal opening to anus to assit with vaginal delivery * reserved for when 3rd/4th degree lacerations are likely * MC mediolateral