Obstetrics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

When are children competent to consent?

A

When they can understand the nature and consequences of treatment

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2
Q

4 reasons why you can breech confidentiality for children

A

too immature to understand/ consent (see Frazer guidelines)
force or threat of force dangerous to health
drugs/ alcohol used to influence them
known to police as having abusive relationships with children/young people

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3
Q

How old is a child when they are presumed competent to consent to treatment

A

16-18 years

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4
Q

When can a child refuse treatment

A

If they are over 18

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5
Q

What happens if a competent child refuses treatment

A

A parent/court might allow management in their best interest

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6
Q

What is the difference between the frazer guidelines and gillick competence?

A

Frazer guidelines: If under 16 for contraceptives

Gillick competence: General issues around consent

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7
Q

5 points for frazer guidelines

A
understand advice
cannot inform parents
dangerous to their health unless they get contraception
have sex anyway
in their best interest
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8
Q

What 3 acts are used for consent in people with learning difficulties?

A

learning disability, sex and the law (2005)
sexual offences act (2003)
mental capacity act

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9
Q

What do people with learning difficulties need in order to consent to sex ?

A

They need capacity to know the mechanisms and the consequences of sex

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10
Q

What would you do if a patient came to you after a rape

A

Refer to sexual assault referral centre (SARC) where a forensic physician does Hx and examination

Checks for pregnancy, HIV, Hep B, suicidal ideation and safeguarding

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11
Q

how can you assess the quality of NHS services

A

Number of processes (referral/smears) and Outcome (mortality/morbidity, STI, unplanned pregnancy)

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12
Q

4 issues with NHS services

A

societal (less services), cultural (language, modesty), economic (access), political (e.g. law regarding abortion)

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13
Q

4 sexual health services

A

GP
Family planning clinics (STI, unplanned pregnancy)
Pharmacies
SARC

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14
Q

3 GU services

A

GUM clinic
GP
A&E

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15
Q

2 gynae services

A

Gynaecologist

GP

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16
Q

4 midwife/obstetric services

A
Hospital
Antenatal services
Community midwife
GP
Early assessment unit
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17
Q

Define stillbirth

A

A baby delivered after 24 weeks with no signs of life

1/200

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18
Q

Defineneonatal death

A

Death of a LIVE BORN infant within 28 days (3/1000)

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19
Q

Define early neonatal health

A

Within 7 days

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20
Q

Define post-neonatal death

A

From 28 days to 1 year (1/1000)

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21
Q

Define stillbirth rate

A

Number of stillbirths per 1000

4/1000

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22
Q

Define perinatal mortality rate

A

Number of stillbirths + early neonatal deaths per 1000 total
(7/1000)

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23
Q

Define infant mortality rate

A

Number of deaths in first year per 1000 live births (4/1000)

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24
Q

Define maternal mortality rate

A

Within 42 days of TOP/whilst pregnant

9/100,000

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25
Q

What recent campaign has reduced infant mortality rate in the UK

A

Sleep campaign

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26
Q

8 risk factors for stillbirth in the UK

A

Foetal growth restriction (biggest cause)
Congenital abnormality
Multiple birth

Maternal age (<25 or >40), ethnicity (black/Asian have 50% increased risk), poverty, substances, obstetric complications.

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27
Q

5 causes of stillbirth in the UK
4 causes worldwide
1 key fact about worldwide stillbirths

A
  • 92% occur before onset of labour
  • 54% are unexplained
  • 25% due to asphyxia/ trauma e.g. cord prolapse/ abruption
  • 15% due to congenital abnormalities
  • 10% due to infections

Worldwide, 50% of deaths occur during labour, maternal infections inc malaria, syph and HIV, post term pregnancy and poorly controlled maternal health conditions e.g. NTH, DM
(most are preventable)

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28
Q

4 biggest causes of neonatal death in the UK and 1 worldwide

A
  • prematurity is biggest killer (resp. disorders followed by neurological disorders)
  • congenital abnormalities (heart, NTD, etc)
  • obstetric complications e.g. shoulder dystocia
  • infections

Globally, majority are due to infections

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29
Q

What global percentage of stillbirths occur in low/middle income countries

A

98%

75% in ssa

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30
Q

8 strategies for prevention of stillbirth in the UK

A

Vit D, folate and iron
Stop smoking (SIDS/ neonatal breathing difficulties), alcohol, medication
Certain foods (raw meat, soft chesses, liver)
Screen for diseases
Breastfeeding
CTG training

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31
Q

5 ways to reduce perinatal deaths

A
  • thermal protection, dry the goddam baby
  • hygiene
  • breastfeeding
  • assessment
  • prevention (vit K, Hep B and BCG if necessary)
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32
Q

First down syndrome screening

A

11-14 weeks
Combined test
Increased nuchal BHCG; low PAPP-A

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33
Q

Second down syndrome screening

A

15-20 weeks
Quadruple test
High inhibin A and BHCG, low AFP and low unconjugated oestriol

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34
Q

What happens if there is a low and high chance of downs syndrome
and what are the cut offs?

A

1/150 is cut off

Go for amniocentesis

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35
Q

2 benefits of screening for downs syndrome

A

Allows the parents to prepare and plan

Gives them an informed choice if they want to terminate

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36
Q

3 arguments against screening for downs syndrome

A

Risk of false positive and negatives
Spontaneous abortion with diagnostic testing (1%)
Suggesting Down’s syndrome life is less important

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37
Q

When should you seek fertility help

A

After 1 year of trying (6 months if over 35 years)

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38
Q

First line for infertility

A

Lifestyle change

39
Q

Epidemiology of fertility

A

Affects 1/7 couples

84% should conceive within 1 year

40
Q

5 causes of infertility and %

A
30% male factor
20% ovulation failure
15% tubal damage
20% unexplained
15% other
41
Q

Investigations for infertility

A

Semen analysis
Serum progesterone 7 days prior to next period
Oestrogen
FSH/LH

42
Q

Medication used for infertility where the cause is known

A

Clomifene (SERM, increases HPG axis)

43
Q

How long do you wait after investigations before IVF is considered

A

1 year

44
Q

How many cycles of Intrauterine Insemination (IUI)?

3 criteria

A

Up to 6 cycles

If unable to have vaginal intercourse (e.g. disability)
Condition that means need help to conceive (e.g. STI)
Same sex relationship

45
Q

How many cycles of IVF if below 43 years

A

Up to 3 cycles on the NHS if:
Below 43 years and 2 years of trying with 12 cycles of artificial insemination
Between 23 and 39 AND there is a fertility problem OR infertile for more than 3 years

46
Q

Does any previous self-funded count towards 3 funded by NHS

A

Yes

47
Q

How many cycles of IVF if aged 40-42 years

A

1 cycle of IVF if after 2 years of regular sex or 12 cycles of insemination

  • never had IVF
  • no evidence of fertility problems
  • risks have been discussed
48
Q

2 lifestyle criteria for IVF

A

Non smoking

Healthy BMI

49
Q

Epidemiology of assisted reproduction

A

2% of all babies in the UK

25% success rate

50
Q

What are the 5 stages of IVF?

A
Ovarian hyperstimulation
Oocyte recovery
Insemination
Embryo culture and transfer
Luteal phase support
51
Q

What happens during ovarian hyperstimulation?

A

GnRH agonist given to cause pituitary downregulation to prevent premature ovulation (increased then decreased oestrogen)
jMG, LH, FAH and hCG to stimulate folliculogenesis

52
Q

When does oocyte recovery occur?

A

34-36 hours after hCG infections

US for transvaginal oocyte recovery

53
Q

Percentage of sperm which fertilise during insemination

A

Put sperm in petri dish with oocytes

50-70% fertilise

54
Q

What happens during embryo culture and transfer

A

Fertilised oocytes examined, selected and inserted into the uterus

55
Q

What happens during luteal phase support

A

Progesterone supplementation to support the pregnancy until 10 weeks (when placenta begins to make progesterone)

56
Q

What is intrauterine insemination (IUI)

A

Separate healthy sperm and inject them into the uterus

57
Q

Benefits and drawbacks of IUI

A

Good for male infertility
If you can’t have sex, same sex or HIV
Cheaper

Worse outcomes

58
Q

What happens during intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

A

Same as IVF but sperm are INJECTED into oocytes instead of left to mix in a petri dish

59
Q

2 indications for ICSI

A

Indicated when quality of sperm is poor/low sperm count or when pregnancy has failed in the past

60
Q

What happens during pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PIGD)

A

Single cell removed from the blastocyst and screened for diseases

61
Q

3 things people can donate
Who uses it?
Ethics?

A

Oocyte, Sperm or Embryo
Same-sex
Ethics of anonymity

62
Q

When would you use surrogacy

A

When the mother can no-longer carry the foetus

63
Q

Legality of surrogacy

A

Surrogate is the legal mother and cannot hand over legal responsibility until 6w postnatal

64
Q

6 risks of IVF to mother

A

ectopic, OVHS, multiple gestation GD, anaemia, pre-eclampsia, miscarriage

65
Q

3 risks of IVF to the foetus

A

Prematurity (and consequences), IUGR, Miscarriage

66
Q

What does the court/adoption agency consider in regards to the child’s welfare in subfertility

A

Effect on child on not being a member or original family
Harm (children’s act 1989) child has suffered or is at risk of suffering
In adoption, child’s religious, racial, cultural and linguistic background

67
Q

3 arguments for IVF

A

Procreative autonomy: respect patient choices, minimalize state interference
Infertility can affect mental health
Welfare interest of future child

68
Q

2 arguments against IVF

A

Embryos have moral status (destruction of embryos)

Harm to those conceive (OHSS, multiple, ectopics)

69
Q

Positive and Negative right of IVF

A
  • Positive rights: no obligation to provide parents with means to have children
  • Negative right: obligation not to interfere with peoples decision to have children
70
Q

What does the HFEA Act 1990 State?

A

no treatment unless welfare of child has been taken into account (including need for a father)
- changed to 2008 to remove father and just supportive parenting

71
Q

Epidemiology of TOP

A

30% of pregnancies terminated

92% before 13 weeks

72
Q

What does the Abortion Act (1990) state about the foetus?

A

Foetus holds no legal status until birth

73
Q

When was the abortion act amended from 28 weeks to 24 weeks

A

1990

74
Q

2 laws regarding medical practitioners in termination

A

Done by a medical practitioner in NHS hospital or licenced premise
Two medical practitioners signs HSA1 agree unless it is an emergency (HSA2)

75
Q

5 key points for TOP

A

A: continuing pregnancy involves greater risk of life to pregnant women than if terminated
B: Termination is necessary to prevent permanent injury to physical/mental health of mum
C: pregnancy < 24w and continuing pregnancy means greater risk than if terminated to physical/mental of pregnant woman
D: < 24w and continuing pregnancy means greater risk to physical/mental heath of existing children of pregnant woman
E: if child was born it would suffer physical or mental abnormalities > seriously handicapped.

76
Q

i. e. > 24w, threatens mums life, permanent injury to mum, child has serious handicap (A,B,E)
i. e. < 24w risk>benefit of preg vs TOP to physical/mental health of mum or her children (C,D)

A

?

77
Q

When can you continue with a TOP in under 16 year olds

A

If Gillick competent AND

  • Girl understands all aspects and implications
  • Cant persuade her to tell her parents/ allow us to tell them
  • Physical/mental health is likely to suffer unless they receive treatment
  • In the best interest of the young person to receive treatment without parents
78
Q

3 routes to get an abortion

A

Contact advisor e.g. British pregnancy advisory service (BPAS), Marie Stopes
GP for referral to abortion service
Visit contraception clinic/ family planning clinic/ sexual health clinic/ Gum for referral

79
Q

Length of time from initial appointment to abortion

A

2 weeks

80
Q

Can a doctor refuse

A

Yes, unless it is an emergency

They need to refer quickly to another person

81
Q

5 things to do prior to TOP

A
Screen for STO
Discuss contraception
Check smear
Give ABX prophylaxis
Give Anti-D if needed after procedure
82
Q

What infection can you get?

A

Post-operative salpingitis

83
Q

TOP procedure if less than 9 weeks

A

use mifepristone (anti-progesterone – cervix easier to open) followed by misoprostol (prostaglandins) 48h later to stimulate uterine contractions

84
Q

TOP procedure if less than 13 weeks

A

Misoprostol 3h before surgery – reduce cervical trauma

Surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents

85
Q

TOP if more than 15 weeks

A

Surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (mini-labour)

86
Q

TOP procedure if more than 22 weeks

A

Feticide is performed by using KCL in umbilical vein or foetal heart.

87
Q

4 complications of TOP

A

Infection (10%)
Cervical trauma (1%)
Failed TOP (1%)
Haemorrhage 1/1000)

88
Q

6 arguments for TOP

A
  • respects mothers autonomy
  • prevents harm to mothers health
  • prevents harm to foetus’ health
  • may be due to crime e.g. rape
  • may not be able to cope with a child
  • more backstreet abortions
89
Q

4 arguments against TOP

A
  • Pro-life: ends life of fetus with moral status of a person (their rights)
  • religions reasons
  • abortions for Down’s syndrome – suggest they have a lower moral status than other children
  • subjects more parents to unnecessary procedures.
90
Q

What are the four types of FGM?

A

Type 1: patrial/total removal of clitoris
Type 2: Removal of clitoris and labia minora
Type 3: Narrowing vaginal oriface by cutting labina minora/majora
Type 4: All other harmful procedures

91
Q

?Where is FGM most common and why?

A

Africa, Middle East, Malaysia, Indoesia

Preservation of virginity, promoting hygiene, cultural norms and religion

92
Q

Consequences of FGM for girl

A

Infection, pain, dyspareunia, self-harm, depression

93
Q

Suspect FGM

A

Illegal

Call police