Obstetric Pt Flashcards

1
Q

explain dilutional anemia w pregnancy 3rd semester normal hgb 11-12g/dL

A

blood volume increases ~40% plasma volume increases ~50% RBC volume only increases ~20% progesterone and estrogen activate RAAS, which causes water retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pregnancy increases which factors?

A

VII, VIII, IX, and fibrinogen (I). fibrinolysis activity decreases. platelets stay the same. end result is a hypercoagulable pt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

WBC in 3rd trimester

A

can get up to 30,000mm during labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

airway changes

A

glottic lumen narrows due to swelling edema makes tissues more prone to bleeding use smaller tube 6.0 ETT use shorter handle to not hit breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

O2 consumption

A

33% higher just before labor. 100% higher w labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GI: progesterone causes..

A

-GI smooth muscle relaxation - delayed gastric emptying -increased risk of gallbladder disease (progesterone inhibits SM, so can’t clear from the gallbladder leading to biliary stasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

renal

A

-increased CO leads to increase in GFR and CC -BUN lowers to 8mg/dL -creat lowers to 0.5mg/dL -glucose in urine bc absorption can’t keep up w flow -trace protein in urine for same reason -uterus can compress the ureter and cause urinary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

uterine blood flow at term

A

800mL/min (10% CO) most ends up in intervillous space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

molecular weight to cross

A

>1000 daltons cross poorly. most anesthetic drugs are <500Da and cross readily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

stages of labor stage 1

A

cervical dilation in response to REGULAR uterine contractions effacement occurs (softening, shortening, and thinning of cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

stages of labor stage 2

A

full cervical dilation to delivery of fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

stages of labor stage 3

A

includes delivery of the the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 Ps of successful vaginal delivery

A

powers-uterine contractions

passenger-fetal positioning to get into position

passage-bony pelvis shape, relaxation and soft tissue relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

parenteral opioid effects

A

spinal and supraspinal effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

neuraxial opioid effects

A

bind in substantia geltinosa (Rexed lamina II) in dorsal horn of spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal magnesium level

A

1.7-2.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Therapeutic Magnesium level

A

5-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mag level when patellar reflexes are lost

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mag level when respiratory arrest

A

15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mag level when cardiac arrest

A

>25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mag MOA

A

*competitive antagonist of calcium. Also decreases release of Ach at NMJ and sensitivity of motor endplate to Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

unwanted fetal effects from indomethacin (3)

A

premature closure of ductus arteriosus, pulm htn, low amniotic fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MAC level when uterine atony becomes a concern

A

MAC >0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

G T P A L

A

G-Gravidity T-term births P-preterm births A-abortion (spontaneous/elective) L-living children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

distance from skin to epidural space in a thin pt

A

3cm if thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

distance from skin to epidural space in an adult

A

4-6cm in adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

distance from skin to epidural space in an obese pt

A

up to 8 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

duration of a spinal

A

<2hours why they are rarely used for labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

levels that epidurals are inserted

A

L2-3 or L3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

epidural analgesia dosing

A

8-12mL/hour up to 15mL/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

volume for epidural boluses

A

6-10mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

spinal dose (volume)

A

1.6mL+/- opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

neuraxial opioids act where

A

on the substantia geltinosa in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (Mu receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

uncomplicated C-section blood loss

A

500-1000mL EBL amniotic fluid is usually 700 counted in the EBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why can’t chronic HTN be managed w ACE inhibitors?

A

they cause renal damage in pregnancy and congenital abnormalities in the fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a molar pregnancy

A

absence of a fetus w placental formation (can still cause preeclampsia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

Hemolysis, Elevated LFTs, Low Platelets, other S/S:epigastric pain, jaundice, N/V. Hepatic rupture is rare and indicates immediate delivery needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

eclampsia

A

when seizures are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

platelet cut off for neuraxial for preeclamptic pts

A

80,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the defn. of antepartum hemorrhage?

A

vaginal bleeding after 24 weeks gestation and into immediate postpartum period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how much bleeding occurs in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

>500mL vaginal delivery or >1000mL cesarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is 80% of post-partum hemorrhage from?

A

uterine atony

43
Q

what are atony risks?

A

multiparity, prolonged oxytocin infusions, polyhydramnios

44
Q

placenta previa s/s

A

PAINLESS vaginal bleeding significant blood loss

45
Q

What is Vasa Previa?

A

fetal vessels implanted on cervical OS fetal mortality 70% rupture of vessels is emergency rare

46
Q

placenta accreta

A

abnormal growth of the placenta ONTO the myometrium most common

47
Q

placenta increta

A

abnormal growth of the placenta INTO the myometrium

48
Q

placenta percreta

A

abnormal growth of the placenta into other non-uterine structures

49
Q

LBW

A

<2500g (5lb, 8 oz)

50
Q

VLBW

A

<1500g (3lb, 4oz)

51
Q

ELBW extremely LBW

A

<1000g (2lb, 3 oz)

52
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160 BPM

53
Q

FHR variability

A

best indicator of fetal wellbeing nervous system responses to adjust the HR up or down represents a functional nervous system

54
Q

moderate variabiliity on fetal HR monitoring

A

5-25bpm

55
Q

increase/decrease HR CO SV SVR MAP (SBP, DBP)

A

HR = increase

CO = increase

SV = increase

SVR = decrease

MAP = decrease

SBP = decrease a little

DBP = decrease more

56
Q

Postpartum CO

A

-increases because great vessels in abdomen are no longer compressed allowing for increased venous return

57
Q

Why does CO change?

A

-increase in HR + SV (larger effect)

58
Q

increase of decrease of RASS activation?

A

increase

59
Q

EKG changes

A

-left axis deviation (3rd trimester), right axis deviation (1st trimester) -shortened PR and QTc

60
Q

aortocaval compression

A

-supine position starting at 20 weeks -treatment is left uterine displacement

61
Q

increase/decrease Minute Ventilation FRC ERV RV CC dead space

A

Minute Ventilation = increase due to tidal volume FRC = decrease ERV = decrease RV = decrease CC = same dead space = increase

62
Q

respiratory blood gas

A

compensated metabolic alkalosis

63
Q

nervous system changes

A

-increased SNS -increased sensitivity to LA and GA

64
Q

liver

A

-enzymes increase -albumin level decrease -cholinesterase activity decreases

65
Q

spiral arteries

A

-terminal arteries that spill into the intervillous space

66
Q

do maternal and fetal blood interact (touch)?

A

-no

67
Q

differences in fetal circulation

A

-foramen ovale -ductus arteriosus -ductus venosus (shunt in liver) -umbilical artery(2)/vein

68
Q

factors affecting placental drug transfer to fetus

A

-concentration gradient -molecular weight (<1000 Daltons) -lipid solubility -ionization

69
Q

fetal circulation factors affecting placental drug transfer to fetus

A

-diluted in intervillous blood -redistributed -fetal first-pass effect -fetal shunt

70
Q

drugs that don’t cross the placenta

A

-glycopyrrolate -anticoagulants -muscle relaxants -sugammadex -insulin

71
Q

progesterone

A

promotes smooth muscle relaxation

72
Q

oxytocin

A

-promotes smooth muscle contraction -prostaglandin production

73
Q

labor stage 1 - pain

A

-due to cervical distention, stretching lower uterine segment, myometrial ischemia -T10-L1 -unmyelinated C-fibers -poorly localized visceral pain

74
Q

labor stage 2 - pain

A

-due to stretching/distension of pelvic floor, vagina, perineum -pudendal nerves, S2-S4 -myelinated

75
Q

pregnancy pharmacology risk categories

A

A: controlled studies demonstrate no risk B: controlled animal studies demonstrate no risk C: studies have revealed adverse effects on fetus D: fetal risk but benefit outweighs risk X: known fetal abnormalities

76
Q

MAC for pregnant women

A

-reduced up to 40%

77
Q

first line treatment for hypotension

A

phenylephrine

78
Q

most common sign of hypotension in spinal anesthesia

A

maternal nausea/vomiting

79
Q

Uterotonics

A

-methergine: avoid in HTN, preeclampsia, PVD, ischemic heart disease -prostaglandin E3: avoid in asthma, glaucoma, renal/pulmonary/hepatic disease -prostaglandin E1: given for uterine atony, side effects - malaise -prostaglandin F2a: side effects bronchospasm, increase PVR, PHTN -oxytocin: increases strength + frequency of contractions, side effects - hypotension from preservative, water intoxication

80
Q

Tocolytics

A

-calcium channel blockers -magnesium sulfate - competitive antagonist of calcium, increases sensitivity to NMB -nitroglycerin

81
Q

local anesthetics: amines vs ester

A

amines: two i’s in name, metabolized by liver ester: one i in name, metabolized by cholinesterase

82
Q

local anesthetics: bupivacaine

A

-long, sensory>motor -0.0625%-0.125% -black box = 0.75% -preferentially bind to cardiac receptors leading to refractory cardiac arrest

83
Q

local anesthetics: ropivacaine

A

-long, sensory>motor -less cardiotoxic than bupivacaine -0.1%-0.2%

84
Q

local anesthetics: lidocaine

A

-transient neurological symptoms -subarachnoid space administration potentially neurotoxic -metabolites that can cause seizures

85
Q

local anesthetics: 2-chloroprocaine

A

-rapid onset, short duration (epidural use) -reduces effectiveness of opioids

86
Q

neural axial opioids: respiratory monitoring

A

-lipophilic = 2 hours -hydrophilic = 12 hours

87
Q

neural axial opioids: side effects

A

-less complete analgesia -perineal tone maintained -pruritus -nausea/vomiting -sedation -respiratory depression

88
Q

neural axial opioids: morphine

A

-less lipophilic -may cause HSV reactivation

89
Q

neural axial opioids: dosing

A

-epidural bolus = similar to IV dose -intrathecal = 1/10 of epidural dose

90
Q

local anesthetic test doses

A

-use to confirm non-vascular, non-sub arachnoid placement -aspiration -3 mL test dose between contractions (1.5% lidocaine, 1:200,000 epinephrine)

91
Q

neuroaxial complications: most common drugs

A

bupivacaine > ropivacaine > levobupivacaine > lidocaine > 2-chloroprocaine

92
Q

neuroaxial complications: treatment

A

-stop drug, administer O2, support ventilation -20% lipid therapy 1.5 mL/kg over 1 minute than 0.25-0.5 mL/kg/min infusion -anticonvulsants (not cardiac depressing) -avoid vasopressin, BB, CCB, LA

93
Q

post dural puncture headache: risks

A

-large bore needle -younger age -bevel orientation -beveled cutting needles -inexperienced operator -air for loss of resistance syringe

94
Q

post dural puncture headache: treatment

A

-bed rest -caffeine -oral analgesia -epidural saline -epidural blood patch -sphenopalatine ganglion block

95
Q

optimal timeframe between induction and delivery of fetus

A

-3 minutes -patient draped and surgeon ready before induction

96
Q

MAC level necessary to avoid anesthesia awareness

A

0.8

97
Q

c-section: necessary epidural level

A

T4

98
Q

c-section: epidural volume

A

1-2 mL per dermatome level

99
Q

c-section: blood loss

A

-500-1000 mL -amniotic fluid is counted in blood loss (300-1500 mL)

100
Q

pre-eclampsia criteria

A

-HTN -proteinuria -non-dependent edema (+/-) *must be greater than 20 weeks pregnant

101
Q

pre-eclampsia treatment

A

-definitive=delivery -corticosteroids (infant lungs) -magnesium sulfate -labetalol, esmolol

102
Q

pre-eclampsia anesthesia considerations

A

-prefer neuraxial -laryngoscopy risk -avoid opioids before delivery -usually remain hypertensive throughout

103
Q

what is polyhydramnios?

A

too much amniotic fluid

104
Q

fetal hgb

maternal hbg

A

fetal 15

maternal 12