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FIST CERT AUG 2024 > Observed Fires (ATP 3-09.30) > Flashcards

Observed Fires (ATP 3-09.30) Flashcards

1
Q

What is an additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for mortars during a registration?

A. Adjust the sheaf
B. Time registration
C. Adjust the FPF
D. TOT registration

A

A. Adjust the sheaf

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2
Q

When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the observer base the determination for the method of fire on?

A. Vegetation
B. Wind direction
C. Hydrography
D. Cloud coverage

A

B. Wind direction

Page 5-21

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3
Q

When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, how is the sheaf adjusted?

A. On line with a 40m lateral spread, perpendicular to the O-T line
B. On line with a 50m lateral spread, perpendicular to the G-T line
C. On line with a 75m lateral spread, perpendicular to the O-T line
D. On line with a 40m lateral spread, perpendicular to the G-T line

A

D. On line with a 40m lateral spread, perpendicular to the G-T line

Page 5-21

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4
Q

What is the objective of the time portion on the precision registration?

A. 4 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point
B. 2 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point
C. 4 rounds fired with the same data 40 meters above the registration point
D. 2 rounds fired with the same data 40 meters above the registration point

A

A. 4 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point

Page 5-25

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5
Q

What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of the precision registration if the first round is spotted as a graze burst?

A. Up 20
B. Up 40
C. Down 20
D. Down 40

A

A. Up 40

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6
Q

During the time portion of the precision registration, once the observer achieves a measurable airburst, what is the command given?

A. Repeat
B. 2 rounds repeat
C. 3 rounds repeat
D. 4 rounds repeat

A

C. 3 rounds repeat

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7
Q

During the time portion of the precision registration, when three airbursts and one graze burst is spotted what is the HOB correction?

A. No correction is required
B. Up 10
C. Up 20
D. Up 40

A

A. No correction is required

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8
Q

During the time portion of the precision registration, when two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?

A. No correction is required
B. Up 10
C. Up 20
D. Up 40

A

B. Up 10

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9
Q

During the time portion of the precision registration, when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?

A. No correction is required
B. Up 10
C. Up 20
D. Up 40

A

C. Up 20

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10
Q

In the event an Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to:

A. Continue its flight path to the target un-armed and impact as a dud
B. Continue to target as a non-PGM and function as a standard HE round
C. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
D. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point and function as a standard HE round

A

C. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud

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11
Q

For Excalibur calls for fire, what is the minimum the grid locations will be expressed to?

A. 10 digits
B. 12 digits
C. 8 digits
D. 6 digits

A

A. 10 digits

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12
Q

What must the observer specify in the target location portion of an Excalibur CFF?

A. TLE
B. CEP
C. PER
D. None of the above

A

A. TLE

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13
Q

What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to create the desired effects on the target.

A. XM982
B. APKWS
C. APMI
D. Copperhead

A

C. APMI

Page 6-3

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14
Q

What fuse can be added to 155mm M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds to increase precision?

A. APKWS
B. Excalibur
C. PGK
D. APMI

A

C. PGK

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15
Q

How many submunitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?

A. 60
B. 88
C. 72
D. 42

A

A. 60

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16
Q

How many submunitions are in the M483A1 DPICM?

A. 60
B. 88
C. 72
D. 42

A

B. 88

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17
Q

How many submunitions are in the M864 DPICM?

A. 60
B. 88
C. 72
D. 42

A

C. 72

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of illumination?

A. Illuminate areas of suspected adversary activity?
B. Provide illumination for night adjustment of fires
C. Mark friendly locations for CAS attacks
D. Harass adversary positions

A

C. Mark friendly locations for CAS attacks

Page 6-13

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19
Q

What is the initial HOB in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?

A. 600
B. 500
C. 550
D. 750

A

A. 600

Page 6-14

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20
Q

What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?

a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750

A

D. 750

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21
Q

What is the initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds?

a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750

A

B. 500

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22
Q

Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?

a. Two Gun Illumination Range Spread
b. Two Gun Illumination
c. Multi-Gun Illumination
d. Two Gun Illumination

A

B/D. Two gun illumination

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23
Q

Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?

a. Two Gun Illumination Range Spread
b. Two Gun Illumination Lateral Spread
c. Multi-Gun Illumination
d. Two Gun Illumination

A

B. Two gun illumination lateral spread

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24
Q

Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?.

a. Two Gun Illumination
b. Illumination Lateral Spread
c. Illumination OTL and GTL Spread
d. Four Gun Illumination Pattern

A

D. four gun illumination pattern

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25
Q

What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?

a. 100
b. 50
c. 30
d. 200

A

D. 200

Page 6-17

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26
Q

When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples of?

a. 5 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 100 meters
d. 10 meters

A

B. 50 meters

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27
Q

During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?

a. Down 150
b. Down 120
c. Down 100
d. Down 50

A

C. Down 100

Page 6-17

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28
Q

During an illumination mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination rounds and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What is your HOB correction?

a. Up 100
b. Up 50
c. No refinement
d. Up 150

A

B. Up 50

Page 6-17

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29
Q

True/False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception

A

False

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30
Q

Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities?

a. Signaling smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Signaling smoke

A

C. Screening smoke

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31
Q

Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision?

a. Deception smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Masking smoke

A

B. Obscuring smoke

Page 6-20

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32
Q

Which range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?

A. 4 to 14 knots
B. 0 to 20 knots
C. 4 to 20 knots
D. 0 to 14 knots

A

A. 4 to 14 knots

Page 6-24

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33
Q

How wide, in meters, would you use a quick smoke mission to obscure areas?

a. 600 to 1500
b. 150 to 500
c. 600 to 1000
d. 150 to 600

A

D. 150 to 600

Page 6-29

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34
Q

True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.

A

True

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35
Q

During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC) you use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?

a. 100
b. 200
c. 400
d. 50

A

B. 200

Page 6-29

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36
Q

What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?

a. 20 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 50 meters

A

D. 50 meters

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37
Q

What is the minimum range correction for smoke?

a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 200 meters
d. 400 meters

A

B. 100 meters

Page 6-30

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38
Q

Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within _____ to _____ meters (danger close) of friendly positions.

a. 200 to 400
b. 200 to 600
c. 400 to 600
d. 100 to 400

A

A. 200 to 400

Page 7-4

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39
Q

True / False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with the desired correction.

A

True

Page 7-7

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40
Q

How far away from the target should an auxiliary adjusting point be?

a. 700 meters
b. 450 meters
c. 600 meters
d. 500 meters

A

D. 500 meters

Page 7-7

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41
Q

Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. The observer must send target description, length, width, and what else in the third transmission of the call for fire?

a. Direction
b. Elevation
c. Attitude
d. Radius

A

C. Attitude

Page 7-8

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42
Q

Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?

a. 1 mil
b. 10 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils

A

D. 100 mils

Page 7-8

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43
Q

What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?

A

A. Accurate meteorological data
B. Accurate firing unit location
C. Accurate weapon and ammunition data
D. Accurate target location and size
E. Accurate Computational procedures

Page 1-1

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44
Q

As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?

a. Accurate Firing Unit Location
b. Accurate Target Location and Size
c. Accurate Computational Procedures
d. Accurate Meteorological Information

A

B. Accurate target location and size

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45
Q

True/False: The observer serves as the “eyes” of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the “brain” of the system.

A

True

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46
Q

What and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations?

a. Joint Effects Cell
b. Fire Direction Center
c. Fire Support Element
d. Fires Cell

A

D. Fires cell

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47
Q

What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?

a. Unmanned Aircraft
b. Mortars
c. Fixed Wing Aircraft
d. Army Attack Aviation

A

C. Fixed wing aircraft

Page 1-2

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48
Q

_____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (i.e., close combat attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.

a. Close Combat Attack
b. Army Attack Aviation
c. Close Air Support
d. Joint Fire Power

A

B. Army attack aviation

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49
Q

Which branch of service employs it’s attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?

a. Army
b. Navy
c. Air Force
d. Marine Corps

A

D. Marine Corps

Page 1-3

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50
Q

True/False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.

A

True

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51
Q

_____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.

a. Army Attack Helicopters
b. Joint Fires Observer
c. Joint Combat Attack
d. Unmanned Aircraft

A

D. Unmanned aircraft

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52
Q

_____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.

a. Fires Planning
b. Target Synchronization
c. Targeted Effects
d. Massing Fires

A

D. Massing fires

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53
Q

Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?

a. Undesired Effects on Target
b. Reduction in Desired Effects on Target
c. Excessive Expenditure of Ammunition
d. All of the Above

A

D. All of the above

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54
Q

Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets, munitions, and techniques of fire must comply with what?

a. Law of War
b. Geneva and Hague Conventions
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above

A

C. Both A and B

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55
Q

Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?

A

250 meters

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56
Q

Who is in charge of the FIST and also the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?

a. Company/Troop FSO
b. Battalion/Squadron FSO
c. Company/Troop FSNCO
d. Battalion/Squadron FSNCO

A

A. Company/Troop FSO

Page 1-6

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57
Q

The _____ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The _____ translates the guidance into fire support tasks.

a. Maneuver Commander / FSO
b. Brigade FSO / Battalion FSO
c. Brigade Commander / Brigade FSO
d. DIVARTY Commander / FIST

A

A. Maneuver commander/FSO

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58
Q

Select all that apply: What is a Target?

a. An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action.
b. A country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed.
c. An area designated and numbered for future firing.
d. An impact burst that hits the target.

A

All of the above

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59
Q

What is a target that is identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting?

a. Target
b. Time Sensitive Target
c. Target of Opportunity
d. Unplanned Target

A

C. Target of opportunity

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60
Q

A _____ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned, using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives.

a. Established Target
b. Approved Target
c. Priority Target
d. Planned Target

A

D. Planned target

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61
Q

A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.

a. Scheduled Target
b. Specified Target
c. Time Sensitive Target
d. Priority Target

A

A. Scheduled target

Page 1-7

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62
Q

A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.

a. Scheduled Target
b. On-call Target
c. Deliberate Target
d. Dynamic Target

A

B. On-call target

Page 1-7

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63
Q

A _____ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.

a. Priority Target
b. Immediate Suppression
c. Final Protective Fire
d. On-call Target

A

A. Priority target

Page 1-7

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64
Q

What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?

A

Final protective fires

Page 1-7

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65
Q

When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?

a. 150 / 50
b. 300 / 50
c. 280 / 75
d. 300 / 75

A

D. 300 / 75

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66
Q

When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?

a. 400 / 50
b. 350 / 75
c. 210 / 35
d. 400 / 75

A

A. 400 / 50

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67
Q

What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?

a. DA Form 4856
b. DA Form 4187
c. DA Form 4655
d. DA Form 5429

A

C. DA Form 4655

Page 1-9

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68
Q

A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.

a. Collective Target Set
b. Series of Targets
c. Multiple Targets
d. Group of Targets

A

D. Group of targets

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69
Q

A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.

a. Sequential Targets
b. Series of Targets
c. Collective Target Set
d. Program of Targets

A

B. Series of Targets

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70
Q

A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.

a. Sequential Targets
b. Series of Targets
c. Group of Targets
d. Program of Targets

A

D. Program of targets

Page 1-12

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71
Q

What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?

a. Fire Support Team
b. Fire Support Element
c. Fire Direction Team
d. Fire Support Cell

A

A. Fire support team

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72
Q

Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using what?

a. Target Lists, Final Protective Fires, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Sync Map
b. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays
c. Target Lists, Sync Map, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays
d. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Sync Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays

A

B. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays

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73
Q

_____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

a. Fire Support Coordination
b. Indirect Fires Execution
c. Fire Support Planning
d. Joint Fires Coordination

A

A. Fire support coordination

Page 2-2

74
Q

_____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces.

a. Army Attack Aviation
b. Danger Close
c. Close Combat Attack
d. Close Air Support

A

D. Close air support

Page 2-2

75
Q

_____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.

a. Terminal Attack Control (TAC)
b. Close Air Support (CAS)
c. Close Combat Attack (CCA)
d. Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA)

A

A. Terminal attack control

Page 2-2

76
Q

What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

A

A. Type 1 control

Page 2-3

77
Q

What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

A

B. Type 2 control

Page 2-3

78
Q

What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

A

C. Type 3 control

Page 2-3

79
Q

What does each letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?

A

F- Fire support tasks
A- Allocation of assets
P- Positioning guidance
A- Attack guidance
R- Restrictions
C- Coordinating instructions
A- Assessment

Page 2-4

80
Q

Select all that apply: What types of close air support terminal attack control can a joint fires observer provide target information in support of?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

A

B. Type 2 control
C. Type 3 control

Page 2-6

81
Q

How many options are used to employ the fire support team?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2

A

C. 3

Page 2-6

82
Q

Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team
b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST

A

A. Battalion fire support team

Page 2-6

83
Q

Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company or troop level?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team
b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST

A

B. Company / Troop FIST

Page 2-6

84
Q

Which FIST employment option makes it to where most platoons in the maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team
b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST

A

C. Option 3 - Platoon Forward Observer

Page 2-7

85
Q

Which forward observer control option would you use for a more experienced and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above

A

A. Option 1 - Decentralized

Page 2-8

86
Q

Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire support asset to an FO from which they may request fire support?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above

A

Option 2 - Designated

Page 2-8

87
Q

Which forward observer control option would you use for maximum control that requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above

A

C. Centralized

Page 2-8

88
Q

Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

A

A. Option 1 - control

Page 2-9

89
Q

Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander’s vehicle?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

A

B. Option 2 - observation

Page 2-9

90
Q

Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

A

C. Option 3 - Independent observer

Page 2-9

91
Q

Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be-

a. A graduate of a primary duty skill identifier and additional ASI producing school.
b. Designated in writing by the first O-4 in the unit chain of command.
c. Maintain qualification as described in the ATP 3-09.30 and the JFO MOA
d. All of the Above

A

A. A graduate of a primary duty skill identifier and additional ASI producing school.

Page 2-10

92
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of L-Location.

a. Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an observation post.
b. Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar FDC, and supported maneuver organization.
c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces.
d. The team should prepare its OF fan for use and begin its terrain sketch.

A

C. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces.

Page 2-13

93
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?

a. Observation
b. Communication
c. Targeting
d. Security

A

B. Communication

Page 2-13

94
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of T-targeting.

a. Locate targets using the most accurate and expedient means available, incorporate the targets into the terrain sketch.
b. Conceal the laser designator and rangefinder and operate all lasing devices within safety parameters.
c. Affix the night and thermal device near the laser designator and rangefinder as soon as possible.
d. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.

A

D. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.

Page 2-13

95
Q

True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O - Observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces recognition.

A

True

Page 2-14

96
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?

a. Position Occupation
b. Precision Targeting
c. Position Refinement
d. Position Improvement

A

D. Position improvement

Page 2-14

97
Q

What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets’ location?

a. Precision Target Location Equipment
b. LLDR
c. Map, Compass, and Binoculars
d. PFED

A

A. Precision target location equipment

Page 3-1

98
Q

_____ is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.

a. Targeting
b. Mensuration
c. Accuracy
d. Orienting

A

B. Mensuration

Page 3-2

99
Q

An observer must be able to self-locate to within _____ meters or _____ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.

a. 1 or 150
b. 10 or 150
c. 10 or 100
d. 100 or 250

A

C. 10 or 100

Page 3-2

100
Q

Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be-

a. North, Magnetic, or Map
b. Mils, Degrees, Cardinals
c. True North, Grid North, or Magnetic North
d. True, Map, or Magnetic

A

C. True north, grid north, or magnetic north

Page 3-3

101
Q

When converting degrees to mils you must multiply the number of degrees by what to determine mils?

a. 17.8
b. 4.20
c. 17.5
d. 15

A

A. 17.8

Page 3-4

102
Q

What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?

a. OT Factor
b. Angle T
c. Vertex Angle
d. Vertical Angle

A

B. Angle T

Page 3-5

103
Q

If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?

a. End the mission.
b. Double the OT factor.
c. Double the corrections.
d. Cut the corrections.

A

D. Cut the corrections

Page 3-5

104
Q

The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _____ with shorter hash marks at _____ increments.

a. 100 meters and 10 meters
b. 10 meters and 5 meters
c. 100 mils and 50 mils
d. 10 mils and 5 mils

A

D. 10 mils and 5 mils

Page 3-6

105
Q

True/False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all observers.

A

False

106
Q

Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils? How far away should observers move away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings?

a. 1 mil and 100 meters
b. 10 mils and 50 meters
c. 1 mil and 50 meters
d. 10 mils and 100 meters

A

B. 10 mils and 50 meters

Page 3-7

107
Q

What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests unless otherwise stated?

a. True North
b. Magnetic
c. Lensatic
d. Grid

A

D. Grid

Page 3-7

108
Q

Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?

a. 20
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1

A

B. 10 mils

Page 3-7

109
Q

When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest how many meters?

a. 10
b. 5
c. 1
d. 100

A

A. 10 meters

Page 3-8

110
Q

When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang)?

a. 350
b. 400
c. 450
d. 250

A

A. 350

Page 3-8

111
Q

Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, you observe the flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?

a. 5600 meters
b. 6300 meters
c. 3500 meters
d. 4900 meters

A

D. 4900 meters

Page 3-8

112
Q

An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?

a. 16
b. 17
c. 12
d. 15

A

B. 17

Page 3-10

113
Q

Vertical shift is only sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is greater than or equal to how many meters? Vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how many meters?

a. 30, 10
b. 50, 10
c. 35, 5
d. 5, 5

A

C. 35, 5

Page 3-13

114
Q

What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?

A

A. Skyline
B. Intermediate hills, crests, and ridges
C. Other natural terrain features
D. Manmade features
E. Labels

Page 3-14

115
Q

What are the methods of target location?

A

A. Grid coordinates using precision imagery with mensuration tools
B. Laser grid
C. Laser polar
D. Grid coordinates using map spot
E. Polar plot
F. Shift from a known point

Page 3-15

116
Q

Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for the following TLE categories:

a. CAT I ____________________
b. CAT II ____________________
c. CAT III ____________________
d. CAT IV ____________________

A

A. CAT I: 0-6 meters
B. CAT II: 7-15 meters
C. CAT III: 16-30 meters
D. CAT IV: 31-91 meters

Page 3-20

117
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?

a. Detection
b. Location
c. Identification
d. Clarification

A

D. Clarification

Page 3-23 & 24

118
Q

What are the six elements of the call for fire?

A

A. Observer identification
B. Warning order
C. Target location
D. Target description
E. Method of engagement
F. Method of fire and control

Page 4-2

119
Q

What does the warning order consist of?

a. Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location
b. Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE
c. Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location
d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location

A

D. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location

Page 4-2

120
Q

What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire?

a. Adjust Fire
b. Suppress
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

A

B. Suppress

Page 4-2

121
Q

What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?

a. Adjust Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

A

D. Immediate suppression or immediate smoke

Page 4-2

122
Q

True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.

A

False

Page 4-2

123
Q

Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?

a. Same as a standard grid mission.
b. Deviation correction, range correction, and height of burst correction.
c. In the form of a grid to the burst location.
d. Sent only as a refinement.

A

C. In the form of a grid to the burst location

Page 4-3

124
Q

True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location

A

False

Page 4-3

125
Q

In a polar plot mission, a _____ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer’s location.

a. Altitude
b. Elevation
c. Angle T
d. Vertical Shift

A

D. Vertical shift

Page 4-3

126
Q

True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.

A

False

Page 4-4

127
Q

The observer must describe the target in enough detail that the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should contain the following:

A

A. What the target is
B. What the target is doing
C. The number of elements in the target
D. The degree of protection
E. The target size and shape if significant

Page 4-4

128
Q

What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?

a. So the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use.
b. So the commander can approve the target engagement.
c. To determine the priority on the High Payoff Target List (HPTL).
d. So the ground commander can make a Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA).

A

A. So the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use.

Page 4-4

129
Q

The method of engagement consists of:

a. type of mission, ammunition, danger close, attitude, and mark
b. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, danger close, and mark
c. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, attitude, distribution, and mark
d. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark

A

D. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark

Page 4-5

130
Q

True / False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.

A

True

Page 4-5

131
Q

True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.

A

False

Page 4-5

132
Q

What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?

a. 600m / 750m
b. 600m / 1000m
c. 600m / 700m
d. 600m / 500m

A

A. 600m / 750m

Page 4-5

133
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?

a. To orient self in zone of observation.
b. To indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers.
c. To mark the Illumination optimal height of burst.
d. Both A and B

A

C. To mark the Illumination optimal height of burst.

Page 4-5

134
Q

If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?

a. Ammunition
b. Volume of fire
c. Followed by
d. Projectile

A

C. Followed by

Page 4-6

135
Q

If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give _____.

a. Depth
b. Attitude
c. Radius
d. Altitude

A

D. Attitude

Page 4-6

136
Q

What are the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?

A

Fire when ready
At my command
Cannot observe
Time on target
Time to target
Coordinated illumination
Continuous illumination
Cease loading
Check fire
Continuous fire
Repeat
Request splash
Do not load
Duration

Page 4-7

137
Q

If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?

a. At My Command
b. Fire When Ready
c. Repeat
d. Mark

A

A. At my command

Page 4-7

138
Q

Which method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?

a. Unobserved
b. Lost
c. Lost Line of Sight
d. Cannot Observe

A

D. Cannot observe

Page 4-7

139
Q

Which method of control would an observer use to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?

a. Time on Target
b. Time to Target
c. Request Time
d. Duration

A

A. Time on target

Page 4-7

140
Q

Which method of control would an observer use to specify the time, in minutes and seconds post hack statement, rounds impact on the target?

a. Time on Target
b. Time to Target
c. Request Time
d. Duration

A

B. Time to target

Page 4-7

141
Q

True / False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact.

A

True

Page 4-8

142
Q

What method of control would an observer utilize if they wished to tell the FDC the total time to engage a target?

a. Time on target
b. Duration
c. Time
d. Interval

A

B. Duration

Page 4-8

143
Q

What four items does the MTO consist of?

A

A. Unit(s) to fire
B. Change to call for fire
C. Number of rounds
D. Target number

Page 4-10

144
Q

Select all that apply: What additional information can be sent separately or along with the MTO?

a. Probable Error in Range
b. Angle T
c. PRF Code
d. Time of Flight

A

All of the above

Page 4-11

145
Q

What are the 9 lines for the 9-Line CAS Brief?

A

Line 1: Ingress point or Battle position
Line 2: Heading and offset
Line 3: Distance
Line 4: Target elevation in feet
Line 5: Target description
Line 6: Target location
Line 7: Mark type
Line 8: Friendlies
Line 9: Egress

Page 4-11

146
Q

What are the 5 lines for the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?

A

Line 1: Observer Identification and warning order
Line 2: Friendly location and mark
Line 3: Target location
Line 4: Target description and mark
Line 5: Remarks

Page 4-14

147
Q

How many transmissions are transmitted to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?

a. Three Transmissions
b. Five Transmissions
c. One Transmission
d. Two Transmissions

A

D. Two transmissions

Page 4-15

148
Q

What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “DNL” or after establishing a priority target?

a. Ready
b. Laid
c. In Position Ready to Fire
d. Aimed On

A

B. Laid

Page 4-17

149
Q

What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “At My Command” or “By Round, At My Command”?

a. Ready
b. Laid
c. In Position Ready to Fire
d. Aimed On

A

A. Ready

Page 4-17

150
Q

What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?

a. Splash
b. Shot
c. Rounds Complete
d. End of Mission

A

C. Rounds complete

Page 4-17

151
Q

_____ is the observer’s determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.

a. Spotting
b. Correction
c. Impact
d. Adjusting point

A

A. Spotting

Page 5-1

152
Q

True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.

A

True

Page 5-1

153
Q

What are the five HOB spottings and what do they mean?

A

A. Air - A round or group that bursts in the air
B. Graze - A round or group that detonates on impact
C. Mixed - A group of rounds that results in an equal number of airbursts and graze bursts
D. Mixed air - A group of rounds that results in both airbursts and graze bursts when most of the bursts are airbursts
E. Mixed graze - A group of rounds that results in both airbursts and graze bursts when most of the bursts are graze bursts

Page 5-2

154
Q

What are the eight range spottings?

A

A. Over
B. Short
C. Target
D. Range correct
E. Doubtful
F. Lost
G. Unobserved
H. Unobserved over or short

Page 5-2

155
Q

As an FO calling for fire you observe a round impact beyond the adjusting point. What range spotting would that be?

a. Target
b. Air
c. Doubtful
d. Over

A

D. Over

Page 5-2

156
Q

During the impact portion of a registration you spot a round that impacts on the registration point. What range spotting would that be?

a. Range Correct
b. Target
c. Mixed
d. Spot On

A

B. Target

Page 5-2

157
Q

While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1020. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact you neither see nor hear the round impact. What spotting would you make?

a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot Observe

A

C. Lost

Page 5-2

158
Q

While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1025. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact you aren’t able to visually acquire the impact, but you hear it but you’re unable to make out if it’s over or short. What spotting would you make?

a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot Observe

A

B. Unobserved

Page 5-2

159
Q

What are the three deviation spottings?

A

A. Left
B. Right
C. Line

Page 5-3

160
Q

True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).

A

True

Page 5-3

161
Q

As an observer on the hill, you spot a round to the right of the observer-target line. Using your binoculars you measure the angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right. How would you record your spotting of the round?

a. Left 40
b. Depends on OT Factor
c. Right 40
d. 40 Right

A

D. 40 right

Page 5-3

162
Q

What are the 15 subsequent corrections in sequence (in order)?

A

A. Observer-target direction
B. Danger close
C. Trajectory
D. Method of fire
E. Distribution
F. Projectile
G. Fuze
H. Volume
I. Deviation correction
J. Range correction
K. Height of burst correction
L. Target description
M. Mission type and method of control
N. Splash
O. Repeat

Page 5-7

163
Q

Send the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than _____ from the previously announced direction.

a. 10 mils
b. 50 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils

A

D. 100 mils

Page 5-7

164
Q

What correction do you need to send before a control correction during an immediate suppression or when attacking a new target without sending a new call for fire?

a. Altitude
b. Target description
c. Number of rounds
d. Repeat

A

B. Target description

Page 5-9

165
Q

What are the four adjustment techniques used to conduct area adjustment fires?

A

A. Successive bracketing
B. Hasty bracketing
C. Creeping fire
D. One round adjustment

Page 5-10

166
Q

Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Precision Fire
d. Successive Bracketing

A

D. Successive bracketing

Page 5-10

167
Q

Which adjustment technique is best when responsive fires are required, and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Hasty Bracketing
d. Successive Bracketing

A

B. One round adjustment

Page 5-12

168
Q

You’re an observer on the hill and you identify an enemy approximately 500 meters from your position. You announce DANGER CLOSE in your method of engagement. While adjusting your rounds, which adjustment technique is best suited for your situation?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Hasty Bracketing
d. Successive Bracketing

A

A. Creeping fire

Page 5-12

169
Q

Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE once the _____ meter bracket is split. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.

a. 50, 38, 100
b. 100, 25, 200
c. 50, 25, 100
d. 100, 38, 200

A

D. 100, 38, 200

Page 5-13

170
Q

How is a registration initiated?

a. With a message to observer.
b. H18 this is H44, adjust fire, over.
c. H18 this is H44, registration, over.
d. With a courtesy call.

A

A. With a message to observer

Page 5-14

171
Q

The objective of an impact registration is to get spottings of _____ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.

a. 2 rounds (1 over and 1 short)
b. 2 rounds (target hit or range correct)
c. 4 rounds (target hit or range correct)
d. 4 rounds (2 over and 2 short)

A

D. 4 rounds (2 over and 2 short)

Page 5-15

172
Q

True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two over and two short) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.

A

True

173
Q

While conducting a registration you spot a round target or range correct. What does that round provide a spotting as?

a. Both over and short
b. Target
c. Line
d. Accurate and sufficient

A

A. Both over and short

Page 5-15

174
Q

During an impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before _____.

a. Splitting a 400 meter bracket
b. Adding or dropping
c. Splitting a 200 meter bracket
d. Corrections are made

A

C. Splitting a 200 meter bracket

Page 5-15

175
Q

During an impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, how many round(s) are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. FFE

A

B. 2

Page 5-16

176
Q

During an impact registration, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, what is the range refinement necessary to move the impact toward the registration point?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20

A

C. No range refinement is necessary

Page 5-16

177
Q

If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be from the last data fired?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20

A

A. Add or drop 10

Page 5-16

178
Q

What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?

a. DA 5429
b. DA 4187
c. DA 2185
d. Shell Report

A

A. DA 5429

Page 5-18

178
Q

If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20

A

D. Add or drop 20

Page 5-17

179
Q

In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then _____ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____.

a. Multiply, 10 mils
b. Divide, 10 meters
c. Subtract, 1 meter
d. Add, 1 mil

A

B. divide, 10 meters

Page 5-19

180
Q

Using the following information, what should the observer send to the FDC as their deviation refinement for a registration? OT Factor of 2; Spottings of +7R, +15R, -5L, and +3R.

a. Left 20
b. Right 20
c. Right 10
d. Left 10

A

D. Left 10

Page 5-20

181
Q

Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a _____ meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within _____ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only _____ round over and _____ round short are required.

a. 50, 25, 2, 2
b. 100, 50, 2, 2
c. 50, 25, 1, 1
d. 100, 50, 1, 1

A

D. 100, 50, 1, 1

Page 5-20

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