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FIST CERT AUG 2024 > Fire Support and Field Artillery Operations (FM 3-09) > Flashcards

Fire Support and Field Artillery Operations (FM 3-09) Flashcards

1
Q

A _____ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.

a. High-Value Target
b. High-Value Individual
c. High-Payoff Target
d. High-Yield Target

A

C. High-payoff target

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2
Q

The role of the Field Artillery is to _____ the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire and to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.

a. Suppress, Neutralize, or Destroy
b. Destroy, Deter, or Defeat
c. Disrupt, Defeat, or Destroy
d. Destroy, Deny, or Disrupt

A

A. Suppress, neutralize, or destroy

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3
Q

What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?

a. Provide Timely and Accurate Fires and to Eliminate Threats on the Battlefield
b. Mass Fires and Balance the Army Ethic
c. Coordinate Fire Support and to Deliver Indirect Fire
d. Coordinate Joint Fires and to Combine Multinational Assets

A

C. Coordinate fire support and to deliver indirect fire

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4
Q

The _____ is the senior field artillery commander for the theater, corps, division, brigade combat team who is the maneuver commander’s primary advisor to plan, coordinate, and integrate field artillery and fire support in the execution of assigned tasks.

a. Chief of Fires
b. Fire Support Commandant
c. Fire Support Officer
d. Fire Support Coordinator

A

D. Fire support coordinator

Page

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5
Q

What are the four Fire Support functions?

a. Command and Control, Target Acquisition, Attack Systems, and Delivery Systems
b. Support Forces in Contact, Support the Concept of Operations, Synchronize and Converge FS Across All Domains, and Sustain and Protect the FS System
c. Destroy Adversaries, Eliminate Threats, Protect the Force, and Provide Accurate and Timely Fire Support
d. Violently Apply Lethal Fires, Operate In the Spirit of the Offense, Operate as a Single Entity, and Act in Accordance with the Law of War

A

B. Support Forces in Contact, Support the Concept of Operations, Synchronize and Converge FS Across All Domains, and Sustain and Protect the FS System

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6
Q

Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?

a. Fire Support Team
b. Fire Support Element
c. Fires and Effects Coordination Center
d. Forward Observer

A

D. Forward observer

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7
Q

What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated?

a. Scheme of Maneuver
b. Fire Plan
c. Annex D
d. Offensive Plan

A

B. Fire plan

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8
Q

The _____ is a specialized, regionally focused Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander’s liaison with the air component. A _____ is co-located with the joint or combined AOC.

a. Ground Liaison Detachment
b. Battlefield Coordination Detachment
c. Fires and Effects Coordination Cell
d. Joint Fires Cell

A

B. Battlefield coordination detachment

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9
Q

The _____ is an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units. _____s are under the operational control of the ASOC and have two primary missions: to advise ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations (the responsibility of the air liaison officer [ALO]) and provide terminal attack control of CAS aircraft (the responsibility of the JTACs).

a. JFO
b. TACP
c. JTAC
d. TACE

A

B. TACP

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10
Q

What is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit effective employment of capabilities that create the required effects?

a. Target Acquisition
b. The Targeting Process
c. Attack Guidance
d. Target Exploitation

A

A. Target acquisition

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11
Q

What are actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission?

a. Military Defeat
b. Military Deception
c. Military Delay
d. Military Destroy

A

B. Military deception

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12
Q

Army _____ operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by protecting Army aviation assets near the forward line of own troops (FLOT) or during cross-FLOT operations. _____ also includes the protection of Air Force aircraft (such as CAS aircraft) supporting the ground commander’s operation.

a. Immediate Suppression
b. Destruction Mission
c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense
d. Offensive Task

A

C. Suppression of enemy air defense

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13
Q

_____ is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they engage friendly forces.

a. Counterfire
b. Reactive Counterfire
c. Proactive Counterfire
d. Deliberate Counterfire

A

C. Proactive counterfire

Page 3-7

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14
Q

_____ provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.

a. SEAD Mission
b. Reactive Counterfire
c. Immediate Suppression
d. Proactive Counterfire

A

B. Reactive counterfire

Page 3-7

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15
Q

What task/effect is to render a force incapable of achieving its objectives?

a. Defeat
b. Deceive
c. Delay
d. Destroy

A

A. Defeat

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16
Q

What task/effect is when a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy’s momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged?

a. Suppress
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Delay

A

D. Delay

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17
Q

What task/effect is a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?

a. Destroy
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Neutralize

A

A. Destroy

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18
Q

What task/effect is a tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion?

a. Divert
b. Disrupt
c. Defeat
d. Deceive

A

B. Disrupt

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19
Q

What task/effect is the act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention?

a. Diversion
b. Deceive
c. Defeat
d. Delay

A

A. Diversion

Page 3-25

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20
Q

What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?

a. Delay
b. Neutralize
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress

A

B. Neutralize

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21
Q

_____ is a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets or a prolonged effort over time covering a large number of targets.

a. Suppression Fire
b. Offensive Fire
c. Destruction Fire
d. Preparation Fire

A

D. Preparation fire

Page 3-25

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22
Q

What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission?

a. Neutralize
b. Delay
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress

A

D. Suppress

Page 3-26

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23
Q

Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by _____ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.

a. Massing Fire
b. Placing Indirect Fire
c. Denying Enemy
d. Converging Fires

A

A. Massing fires

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24
Q

_____ is the act of designing a force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission.

a. Retrograde
b. Task-Organizing
c. Coordinating Fires
d. Mission-Organizing

A

B. Task-organizing

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25
Q

What command relationship means to be assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy?

a. Assign
b. Task Organized
c. Operational
d. Organic

A

D. Organic

Page 4-7

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26
Q

What command relationship means to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the unit or personnel?

a. Assign
b. Organic
c. Attach
d. Task

A

A. Assign

Page 4-7

27
Q

What command relationship is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?

a. Tactical Control
b. Operational Control
c. Organizational Control
d. Positive Control

A

C. Organizational control

Page 4-7

28
Q

What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?

a. Positive Control
b. Operational Control
c. Organizational Control
d. Tactical Control

A

D. Tactical control

Page 4-7

29
Q

Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance?

a. General Support
b. Operational Support
c. Reinforcing
d. Direct Support

A

D. Direct support

Page 4-8

30
Q

Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit?

a. General Support-Reinforcing
b. Reinforcing
c. Indirect Support
d. General Support

A

B. Reinforcing

Page 4-8

31
Q

Which support relationship is support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof?

a. General Support
b. General Support-Reinforcing
c. Direct Support
d. Close Support

A

B. General support-reinforcing

Page 4-8

32
Q

Which support relationship is a relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit?

a. General Support
b. General Support-Reinforcing
c. Direct Support
d. Close Support

A

A. General support

Page 4-8

33
Q

A _____ is a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance and control up to the aimpoint or submunitions dispense with terminal accuracy less than the lethal radius of effects.

a. Heat Seeker
b. Cluster Munition
c. Precision Munition
d. Joint Fire Unit

A

C. Precision munition

Page 4-10

34
Q

The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve accurate _____ on a target.

a. Accurate and Sufficient Fires
b. Lasting Operational Effects
c. First-Round Fire for Effect
d. Fires that Support the Scheme of Maneuver

A

C. First-round fire for effect

Page 4-10

35
Q

What is NOT a method for responsive fires?

a. Rehearsals
b. Planning Fire Support Requirements in Advance
c. Streamlining the Call for Fire by Shortening the Number of Transmissions
d. Continually Training Observers in all Aspects of Fire Support

A

C. Streamlining the Call for Fire by Shortening the Number of Transmissions

Page 4-11

36
Q

A _____ is an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.

a. Defensive Operation
b. Offensive Operation
c. Concept of Fires
d. Scheme of Maneuver

A

A. Defensive operation

Page 6-6

37
Q

What is a type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?

a. Terrain Denial
b. Specified Defense
c. Terrain Defense
d. Area Defense

A

D. Area defense

Page 6-10

38
Q

What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?

a. Area Defense
b. Deception Defense
c. Mobile Defense
d. Mobile Strike

A

C. Mobile defense

Page 6-11

39
Q

What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?

a. Retrograde
b. Retreat
c. Recession
d. Reconnoiter

A

A. Retrograde

Page 6-12

40
Q

What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?

a. Preparation Fires
b. Deliberate Contact
c. Movement to Contact
d. Scheme of Maneuver

A

C. Movement to contact

Page 6-17

41
Q

What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?

a. Movement to Contact
b. Exploitation
c. Attack
d. Deliberate Attack

A

C. Attack

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42
Q

What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?

a. Deep Fires
b. Attack
c. Disruption
d. Exploitation

A

D. Exploitation

Page 6-21

43
Q

What is a type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?

a. Exploitation
b. Neutralize
c. Movement to Contact
d. Pursuit

A

D. Pursuit

Page 6-22

44
Q

What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?

a. Passage of Lines
b. Security Operations
c. Signaling Operations
d. Force Protection

A

B. Security operations

Page 6-25

45
Q

What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force’s combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?

a. Forward Passage of Lines
b. Movement to Contact
c. Position Exploitation
d. Passage of Lines

A

D. Passage of lines

Page 6-27

46
Q

What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?

a. Breach
b. Clear
c. Attack
d. Offense

A

A. Breach

Page 6-31

47
Q

A _____ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment.

a. Collateral Damage Estimate
b. Measure of Performance
c. Effects Assessment
d. Measure of Effectiveness

A

B. Measure of performance

Page A-9

48
Q

A _____ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.

a. Assessment
b. Measure of Effectiveness
c. Measure of Performance
d. Patterns of Life

A

B. Measure of effectiveness

Page A-9

49
Q

Permissive fire support coordination measures _____ the attack of targets. Fires must be cleared with both terrain owners and other airspace users.

a. Restrictive
b. Redundant
c. Increase
d. Facilitate

A

D. Facilitate

Page B-1

50
Q

A _____ is a line beyond which conventional surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination but does not eliminate the responsibility to coordinate the airspace required to conduct the mission.

a. Fire Support Coordination Line
b. Coordinated Fire Line
c. Restrictive Fire Line
d. Boundary

A

B. Coordinated fire line

Page B-1

51
Q

A _____ is a fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement, and short of the line, all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement.

a. Coordinated Fire Line
b. Free Fire Area
c. Fire Support Coordination Line
d. Phase Line

A

C. Fire support coordination line

Page B-2

52
Q

A _____ is a specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ.

a. Restrictive Fire Area
b. Coordinated Fire Area
c. Coordinated Fire Line
d. Free Fire Area

A

D. Free fire area

Page B-4

53
Q

A _____ is a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires. A _____ facilitates the expeditious air-to-surface lethal attack of targets.

a. Kill Box
b. Airspace Coordination Area
c. Free Fire Area
d. No Fire Area

A

A. Kill box

Page B-6

54
Q

True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.

A

True

Page B-7

55
Q

A _____ is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.

a. No Fire Area
b. Free Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Impact Area

A

A. No fire area

Page B-7

56
Q

A _____ is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.

a. Restricted Area
b. No Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Restrictive Firing Line

A

C. Restrictive fire area

Page B-8

57
Q

A _____ is a specific boundary established between converging, friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing.

a. Restrictive Fire Line
b. Coordinated Fire Line
c. Phase Line
d. Boundary

A

A. Restrictive fire line

Page B-9

58
Q

A _____ is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas (JP 3-0). _____(ies)(s) divide up areas of operation and define responsibility for clearance of fires. _____(ies)(s) are both permissive and restrictive in nature.

a. Coordinated fire line
b. Phase line
c. Fire support coordination line
d. Boundary

A

D. Boundary

Page B-13

59
Q

A _____ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability.

a. Free Fire Area
b. Position Area for Artillery
c. Firing Point
d. Firing Area

A

B. Position area for artillery

Page B-15

60
Q

Which radar zone is an area of coverage by weapons locating radar which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission?

a. Critical Friendly Zone
b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone

A

A. Critical friendly zone

Page B-17

61
Q

Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area from which the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems?

a. Critical Friendly Zone
b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone

A

D. Call for fire zone

Page B-17

62
Q

Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitors closely to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?

a. Critical Friendly Zone
b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone

A

C. Artillery target intelligence zone

Page B-18

63
Q

Which radar zone is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions and that is normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being acquired by friendly radars?

a. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
b. Call for Fire Zone
c. Critical Friendly Zone
d. Censor Zone

A

D. Censor zone

Page B-19

FIST CERT AUG 2024 (5 decks)

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