Obs/Gynae/Psych/Crit Care/FNM/Derm/Stats Flashcards

1
Q

Antibody which causes neonatal heart block in pregnant women with lupus

A

Anti-Ro (SSA) Anti-La (SSB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

enzyme deficiency causing acute fatty liver disease of pregnancy

A

Fetal long-chain deficiency (LCHAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Trimester in which acute fatty liver disease of pregnancy occurs

A

3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cause of pruritis/RUQ pain in 2nd and 3rd trimester with NORMAL ultrasound liver.

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

nausea + vomiting + ketonuria + elevated liver enzymes in 1st trimester pregnancy

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Biggest predictor of IBD in pregnancy

A

Disease activity at conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lung function parameter most effected in pregnancy

A

Residual volume/ Functional residual capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of asymptomatic Factor V Leiden (no VTEs) in pregnancy

A

Risk assessment and surveillance ultrasounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Reason for testing TSHR antibodies in pregnant women with graves disease in 3rd trimester

A

Predict risk of neonatal graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reason for tight BSL control in Gestational diabetes

A

Significantly increased risk of macrosomia and neonatal adiposity, even with slight elevations in fasting glucose levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When to avoid low tidal volume NIV in ARDs

A

Any type of cerebral insult due to risk from hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

P value definition

A

Of observing a result at least this magnitude due to chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of severe hyponatremia <130 with symptoms, post prolonged exercise.

A

hypertonic 3% saline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complication of correcting hyponatremia too quickly

A

osmotic demyelination syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Protective factor in paracetamol poisoning

A

ACUTE alcohol consumption (chronic is a risk factor). Reduces the risk of paracetamol induced hepatitis by reducing the toxic metabolites made by the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difference between hypochondriac and somatisation disorder

A
somatisation = symptoms 
hypochondriac = no symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mechanism of Lithium in diabetes insipidus

A

Chronic lithium ingestion can lead to resistance to ADH, resulting in polyuria and polydipsia in up to 20 to 40 percent of patients. Lithium enters the principal cells of the collecting duct through epithelial sodium channels in the luminal membrane. It then accumulates in these cells and interferes with the ability of ADH to increase water permeability.

Lithium is detected as sodium in the body. When sodium is high then there is increased sodium/lithium excretion and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DMARDs with highest risk of SCC

A

Azathioprine, Cyclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mx of Catatonia

A

Benzodiazepines

ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Normal changes to respiration in pregnancy

A
  1. Increased oxygen consumption
  2. increased tidal volume
  3. Decreased residual volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the molecule required in paracetamol to convert the toxic metabolite NAPQI into a non-toxic form?

A

Glutathione (provided by NAC infusion as liver has a limited supply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enzymes which act on paracetamol

A

CYP2E1
CYP3A4
enzymes for sulfation and glucuronidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cardiac infiltrate caused by CLOZAPINE

A

Eosinophils

24
Q

Lead time vs length time bias

A

Lead time bias - A screening program incorrectly seems to increase survival as the condition is picked up earlier.

Length time bias - It is less aggressive disease with longer durations that are picked up on screening programs. Therefore screening seems to improve survival.

25
Q

Drug for prevention of pre-eclampsia

A

Aspirin

26
Q

Management of Narcolepsy in pregnancy

A

Napping

27
Q

Benefit of buprenorphine over methadone in addiction medicine

A

Buprenorphine has a ceiling to its sedative and analgesia effects

28
Q

Why does morphine need to be avoided in renal failure

A

Build up of the morphine metabolite (not morphine itself) MG6 - causes sedation (and mild analgesia)

29
Q

Ferritin aim in pregnancy

A

> 30

30
Q

Spirometry changes in pregnancy

A

reduced FRC and RV (breathe out further)

31
Q

Asthma drug which increases risk of preterm delivery

A

Steroids

- risk also increased by generally poorly controlled asthma

32
Q

Effect of dialysis on pregnant women with ESKD

A

more dialysis = better outcomes.

- more frequent = better BP control and lower pre-eclampsia

33
Q

Drug which reduces the risk of pre-eclampsia

A

aspirin

34
Q

Definition of Pre-eclampsia

A

hypertension with other organ involvement

35
Q

Diastolic BP aim in pregnancy

A

80 - 85

36
Q

Systolic BP aim in pregnancy

A

110 -140

37
Q

Cause of sudden death/ arrest in labor/ post partum

A

amniotic fluid pulmonary embolism

38
Q

Management of cholestasis of pregnancy

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

39
Q

Histology of IgG4 disease

A

lymphoplasmacytic tissue infiltration and storiform fibrosis

40
Q

T test

A

compares the means of two independent groups with normal distributions and continuous data.

It is called ANOVA test if it is 3 or more groups.

41
Q

ANOVA test (AKA analysis of variance)

A

compares the means of three or more independent groups with normal distributions and continuous data.

42
Q

Mann Whitney U test

A

compares the means of two independent groups, with or without normal distributions

Use wilcoxon test if the groups are paired (eg test and control groups)

43
Q

Chi squared

A

compares two NOMINAL groups (eg age and grey hair) to see if they are associated

44
Q

Spearman test

A

Compares two ORDINAL tests to assess for association (eg amount of smoking and number of lung cancers)

45
Q

Anti-epileptic that does not work for alcohol withdrawal seizures

A

Phenytoin

46
Q

Difference between delirium tremens and alcoholic hallucinosis

A

Alcoholic hallucinosis - 12-24hrs after last drink

Delirium tremens - 2-5 days after last drink

47
Q

Antipsychotic most likely to cause hyperprolactinemia

A

Risperidone

48
Q

Anti-dopaminergic SE

A
Euphoria 
Agitation 
Dystonia's
Akathisia
Parkinsonism 
Hyperprolactinemia
49
Q

Anti -Serotonin related SE

A
Headache 
Nausea 
Insomnia 
Agitation 
Sexual dysfunction
50
Q

Anti-Noradrenaline related SE

A

Postural hypotension
Agitation
Euphoria

51
Q

Antipsychotics with highest risk of extrapyramidal SE

A
  1. Haloperidol
  2. Chlorpromazine
  3. Depots
52
Q

Antipsychotic causing worst postural symptoms

A
  1. Chlorpromazine

2. Clozapine

53
Q

Antipsychotic LOWERING prolactin level

A

Aripiprazole

54
Q

Antipsychotic with lowest weight gain risk

A

Haloperidol

55
Q

Antipsychotics with high weight gain risk

A

Olanzepine
Quetiapine
Clozapine

56
Q

Antipsychotic with long QT

A

Amisulpride

Ziprasidone

57
Q

Effect of steroids in septic shock

A

NO mortality benefit