Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > Obs and Gynae > Flashcards

Obs and Gynae Flashcards

1
Q

What investigations would you do in a woman presenting with menorrhagia?

A

FBC in ALL women
pelvic exam?
TVS - if symptoms (IMB, PCB, pelvic pain, pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How would you manage menorrhagia?

A 
Depends upon if needing contraception
No contraception required
 - mefenamic acid (particularly in dysmenorrhoea)
 - tranexamic acid
Start both on day 1 of cycle
If require contraception
 - IUS (1st line)
 - COCP
 - long-acting progestogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a short-term treatment for menorrhagia?

A

Northisterone 5mg TDS to rapidly stop menstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is screened for antenatally?

A 
Sickle cell, alpha and beta thalassaemia
Infections
Down's Edward's Patau's syndromes
Foetal anomaly scan
Diabetic eye screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is sickle cell and thalassaemia screening offered and to whom? When would you test the father too?

A

All pregnant women at 8-10 weeks

Test father: If woman is genetic carrier OR if woman too late to get screening test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What questionnaire should be done with sickle cell and thalassaemia screening antenatally?

A

Family Origin Questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis done?

A

CVS at 10-12 weeks

Amnio at 15-20 weeks (don’t do amnio before 15 weeks as risk of talipes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be done if prenatal diagnosis shows baby has sickle cell or thalassaemia?

A

Offer termination OR

refer to paediatric haematologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When are infections disease antenatal screening offered and what diseases are screened for?

A

Offered to all pregnant in early pregnancy and to all unbooked women in labour
Re-offer at 20 weeks if declined in early pregnancy
HIV, Hep B, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are babies managed whose mothers are screened positive for HepB? Why is it important to screen for Hep B in pregnancy?

A

Hep B vaccine 24hrs after birth
Then at 4,8,12,16 weeks then 12 months
If baby contracts HepB perinatally, 90% risk of chronic Hep B, but if gets later as a child, risk is much lower.
Can be transmitted vertically, during delivery or during breastfeeding
Increases risk cirrhosis and liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the risks of maternal syphilis in pregnancy?

A

Can cross placenta and cause stillbirth, miscarriage, preterm labour or congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What tests can be offered to all women to check for Down’s, Edward’s or Patau’s syndromes?

A

Combined teset

Quadruple test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is the combined test and what should be offered if miss it?

A 
Combined test = 11-14 weeks (T21/13/18)
If missed/no result after 2 attempts:
Quadruple test at 14-20 weeks for T21
And 18-21 week scan for T13 and 18
Combined and quadruple offered in twin pregnancies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is assessed as part of the combined test?

A

Risk of T21 and risk of T13/18

  • Maternal age
  • serum biochemical markers: PAPP-A, free bHCG
  • USS: Nuchal translucency, crown rump length
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What results are given in combined test? What is the cut off for prenatal diagnostic testing?

A

Results: 2 results, 1 for T21, 1 for T13/18
Individual results in DC twins
Cut off for PND = 1 in 150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the purposes of the early pregnancy scan?

A 
Confirm viability
EDD - gestational age using CRL
CRL and nuchal translucency as part of combined test
Multiple or single pregnancy
Major structural anomalies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is the early pregnancy scan and how is it done?

A

8-14 weeks

Transabdominal USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is the quadruple test offered? What does it involve?

A 
Offered to late bookers, or not able to do combined test or obtain NT
14-20 weeks - tests for T21 ONLY, bloods only
 - alpha feto protein
 - total bHCG
 - oestriol
 - inhibin A
Diagnostic testing cut off = 1 in 150
Can't do individual results in DC twins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What occurs in a positive screening test for T21, T13 or T18?

A

Mother contacted within 3 working days+ offered appointment
Options:
- await anomaly scan at 20 weeks
- Non-invasive prenatal testing (private)
- invasive testing (CVS or ACS) - 0.5-1% miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is non-invasive prenatal testing?

A

Private sector but coming into NHS soon
Analyses foetal DNA from maternal blood from 10 wks
For: T21, 18, 13 and gender
99% sensitive - small risk confined placental mosaicism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is the foetal anomaly scan? What happens if it is not completed?

A

18+0 to 20+6 weeks

Offer again at 23 weeks if not completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs if abnormal results of foetal anomaly scan at 20 wks occurs?

A

Referred to foetal medicine within 3 working days
Report to National Congenital Anomalies and Rare Diseases Register (NCARDR)
Refer to neonatologists, paediatrics etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who is offered diabetic eye screening and when is it offered?

A

Women who are diabetic and become pregnant offered within 6 weeks of notification of pregnancy

  • have early booking appointment and scan
  • Diabetic midwives refer to DES
  • Maternity diabetic team can access results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the puerperium?

A

Time from delivery of placenta until 6 weeks post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What hormonal changes occur post partum?

A

Decrease in placental hormones
- oestrogen, progesterone, hPL, HCG
And increase in prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What occurs in convolution of uterus and genital tract?

A

Muscle - ischemia, autolysis, phagocytosis

Decidua - shed as lochia rubra, series then alba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is breastfeeding sometimes partially or fully contraceptive?

A

Prolactin inhibits ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is primary PPH?

A

Blood loss >500ml after birth of baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a major PPH vs minor PPH?

A 
Major = >1500ml loss or signs of shock
Minor = <1500ml loss and no signs of shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is secondary PPH?

A

Abnormal or excessive PV bleeding 24hrs to 2weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some causes of secondary PPH?

A 
Endometritis
Retained products of conception
Subinvolution of placental invasion
Pseudoaneurysms
Aterio-venous malformations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What investigations would you do for secondary PPH?

A

Assess blood loss/haemodynamic state
High vaginal swab
Pelvic ultrasound in some cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is VTE risk highest in pregnancy?

A

Increases massively post-partum, is 22x higher at 3 weeks pospartum
Risk persists until 6 weeks post partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What groups are high risk for VTE? What treatment do they get?

A

High risk = 6 weeks LMWH post-partum

  • previous VTE
  • antenatal LMWH
  • high risk thrombophilia
  • low risk thrombophilia and FH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is given for intermediate risk VTE post-partum? What VTE score gives this?

A

Score of 2 or more = intermediate
Tx: 10 days LMWH postnatally
Risks: CS, BMI>40, readmission or prolonged admission in puerperium, surgical procedure in puerperium, medical comorbidities
If 3 or more or persisting - lengthen treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is done for VTE risk score of less than 2?

A

Early mobilisation and hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do post-dural headaches present?

A

Headache, worse on sitting or standing
Starts within week of epidural/spinal
Neck stiffness
Photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How are post-dural headaches managed?

A

Lying flat
Simple analgesia
Fluids and caffeine
Epidural blood patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is defined as urinary retention?

A

Requiring catheter >12hr after birth
Or
not spontaneously micturating within 6 hrs post vaginal delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the risk factors for urinary retention?

A 
Epidural analgesia
Prolonged 2nd stage of labour
Forceps or ventouse delivery
Extensive perineal lacerations
Poor labour bladder care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the “baby blues”?

A

Emotional and tearful 3-10 days after giving birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give the red flags for post-partum mental health disorder

A
  • significant change in mental state/new symptoms
  • persistent feeling of incompetency or estrangement from infant
  • suicidal/self-harm persisting thoughts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What dose of aspirin is commonly given during pregnancy and what is it to prevent?

A

150mg (low dose aspirin) to prevent pre-eclampsia and subsequent premature birth or SGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What risk factors on their own indicate need for low dose aspirin?

A
  • hypertension in previous pregnancy
  • CKD
  • Autoimmune
  • T1 or T2DM
  • Chronic HTN
  • Previous SGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What risk factors do you need 2 of to require low dose aspirin?

A
  • family history of pre-eclampsia
  • BMI>35
  • Age>40
  • Primiparity
  • more than 10 years since last pregnancy
  • Multiple pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When can heart disease be worst in regards to pregnancy?

A

Afterwards - as blood pressure rises post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What Hb levels indicate anaemia in pregnancy?

A

1st trimester = <110
2nd trimester = <105
3rd trimester = <105
Post-delivery = <100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does iron deficiency anaemia increase risk of PPH?

A

Decreased oxygenation to uterus myometrium - more likely to have atony and prolonged bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does macrocytic anaemia in pregnancy suggest deficiency of?

A

Folate or B12, ferritin

Treat with folic acid 5mg (high dose) OD and check Hb level in 4 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What may happen with asthmatic women in labour?

A

1/3 get worse - increases risk of IUFGR, premature birth, CS, neonatal hypoxia
Can treat with usual medications
Oral steroids weight up risks as can lead to cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the leading cause of maternal death?

A

Cardiac disease - ischaemic heart disease

Especially after delivery with increased afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What might you screen for regarding cardiac disease in pregnant women?

A
  • usual RFs: obesity, smoking, alcohol, HTN, diabetes
    Also rheumatic fever as a child?
    Monitor foetal growth with regular growth scans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis diagnosed?

A

By exclusion
Check LFTs and bile acids for other causes, possibly liver scan
Raised bile acids and raised LFTs in OC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the features of obstetric cholestasis?

What are its risks?

A

Itching but no rash

Risks: premature birth, still birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis managed?

A

Tx: ursodeoxycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why might hyperthyroidism become a problem in pregnancy?

A

HCG can mimic TSH on thyroid TSH receptors - so worse in 1st trimester but then improves as HCG acts less on thyroid
Can lead to maternal thyrotoxicosis and cardiac failure
If TSH-Abs, can cross placenta and cause foetal thyrotoxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is hyperthyroidism managed in pregnancy?

A 
Propylthiouracil or carbimazole
Both risks
PTU - maternal liver failure
Carbimazole - foetal anomalies
Monitor foetal growth with growth scans - restricts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can maternal hypothyroidism lead to in pregnancy?

A

Poor neurodevelopment, learning difficulties or early foetal loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is hypothyroidism managed in pregnancy?

A

Thyroxine - increase by 25mcg especially in 1st trimester - start asap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is diabetes (chronic or gestational) managed in pregnancy?

A

Diabetic eye screening offered week6 and check renal function
Stop ACE-inhibitors and statins
Regular appointments to monitor BM chart, blood pressure and urinalysis
BM chart - aim for <5.3 fasting and <7.8 after meal
Treat with: metformin, insulin or glibenclamide
Monitor after pregnancy annually as at increased risk of T2DM with GDM
Folic acid 5mg- increased risk neural tube defects
Foetal growth scans - risk of macrosomia and polyhydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the maternal and neonatal risks of GDM?

A

Maternal: progressive retinopathy, hypoglycaemia, DKA, pre-eclampsia, premature labour
Neonate: IUFGR, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, foetal anomaly, stillbirth, miscarriage, neonatal hypoglycaemia distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the risks of renal disease in pregnancy?

A

Maternal: pre-eclampsia, severe HTN, CS due to this
Neonate: IUFGR, stillbirths, anomalies due to medication e.g. ACE-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is renal disease in pregnancy managed?

A

Risk assessment pre-pregnancy
Monitor blood pressure, urinalysis for proteins
Creatinine monitoring - if goes up then is bad as should be low in pregnancy
Foetal growth scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What neurological conditions are common in pregnancy?

A

Epilepsy and migraines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What may occur with epilepsy in pregnant women?

A

Can get worse - increased seizure frequency or sudden expected death if poorly controlled
Counsel medication - don’t take valproate!
Risk of foetal anomalies - medication or epilepsy itself, foetal hypoxia risk, spina bifida
Risk of seizures during labour - exhaustion + pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is epilepsy managed in pregnancy?

A

Counsel on medication
Folic acid 5mg
Monitor for foetal anomalies
Plan for delivery + analgesia (avoid pethidine)
Postpartum support - advice in caring for baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What should you do if you suspect VTE?

A

DVT - Dopper ultrasound
PE - VQ scan and CTPA
Therapeutic dose LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the characteristics of gestational hypertension?

A

No hypertension prior to pregnancy
New hypertension after 20th week (>140/90)
Very little proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the characteristics of pre-eclampsia?

A

New hypertension after 20th wk

With proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

Hypertension diagnosed before pregnancy, or before 20th week or during pregnancy that is not resolved post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is pre-eclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension?

A

HTN and no proteinuria <20 weeks but new onset proteinuria after 20 weeks
Hypertension and proteinuria <20 weeks but sudden increase in proteinuria, BP, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?

A

BP: Systolic >140, diastolic >90

Proteinuria >0.3g protein/24hr or +2 urine dip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What classifies mild, moderate or severe pre-eclampsia?

A 
Mild = 140-140/90-99
Mod = 150-159/100-109
Sev = 160/110+ + haematological impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What classifies pre-eclampsia as early or late?

A

Early = <34 weeks

Late > 34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What features may you get in severe pre-eclampsia?

A 
>160/110, 5mg proteinuria or 3+
Oliguria <400ml/24hrs
Visual changes, headache, scotomata, mental status change
Pulmonary oedema
Epigastric or RUQ pain
Impaired LFTs
Thrombocytopenia
IUFGR
Oligohydramnios
Rapid weight gain - fluid retention
Retinal vasospasm/oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What neurological findings may you have on examination if imminent eclampsia?

A

Brisk reflexes
Sustained ankle clonus
Neuromuscular irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What lab findings may you get in imminent eclampsia?

A

Low platelets, LFTs raised

Raised serum uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How should you manage mild pre-eclampsia <37 wks?

A

If new onset, hospitalise to check

Then can be managed at home with HBPM and maternal and foetal evaluation twice a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How should you manage pre-eclampsia with persistent proteinuria, high BP, restricted foetal growth and abnormal lab results <37 weeks?

A

Hospitalise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How would you manage mild pre-eclampsia >37 weeks, stable condition and unfavourable cervix?

A

Deliver at 40 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How would you manage mild pre-eclampsia >37 weeks, with favourable cervix, foetal jeopardy, persistent headaches and visual disturbances?

A

Give MgSO4

Delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How would you manage mild gestational hypertension without proteinuria (not pre-eclampsia)?

A

Manage at home with HBPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How would you manage acute severe HTN?

A

Parenteral hydrazaline and labetalol
(avoid labetalol in asthmatics or CF)
Oral nifedipine - use with caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the indications for delivery in pre-eclampsia?

A

Gestational age >37wks
Platelet count < 100 000
Progressive decline LFTs, renal function
Suspected placental abruption
Persistent symptoms e.g. headache, visual, RUQ
Foetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How would delivery be done in pre-eclampsia?

A

Vaginal preferable with epidural
Induced within 24 hrs
Give hydralazine and labetalol prior to labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is classed as low birth weight?

A

<2.5kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What might be some spontaneous causes of preterm birth?

A

Preterm labour
Premature rupture of membranes
Cervical weakness
Amnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are non-recurrent risk factors for pre-term birth?

A

Vaginal bleeding
Antepartum haemorrhage
Multiple pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are recurrent risk factors for pre-term birth?

A 
Race, previous birth history
Genital infection
cervical weakness
Socioeconomic factors
Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What infections may predispose to preterm birth?

A

Genital - bacterial vaginosis

Non-genital - UTI, pyelonephritis, appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How is bacterial vaginosis treated?

A

Metronidazole and erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are primary prevention methods for spontaneous pre-term birth?

A 
Smoking cessation
STD prevention
Prevention of multiple pregnancy
Planned pregnancy
Variable work shifts
Physical and sexual activity advice
Cervical assessment 20-26 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is tertiary prevention of preterm birth?

A

Prompt diagnosis and referral
Tocolytics, antibiotics
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is diagnosis of preterm labour?

A

Persistent uterine contractions AND change in cervical dilatation or effacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is secondary prevention of pre-term labour?

A

Screening through
- TVS
- Qualitative foetal Fibronectin test
Offered to women who are high risk for preterm birth or are threatening e.g. cervix <3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is done in the TVS screening for preterm birth?

A

TVS measures length of cervix - should be more than 20cm unshortened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is fibronectin test?

A

Fibronectin = exctracellular matrix protein at choriodecidual interface
If present on vaginal swab after 20 weeks - may mean membrane detachment
10 min procedure with ELISA monoclonal antibody on swab
Gives risk of delivering pre-term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What can cause false fibronectin results?

A

False positive: Sexual intercourse, Vaginal bleeding, Cervix manipulation
Lubricants - false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What hormone may be given to reduce risk of preterm birth?

A

Progesterone - IM or pessary

For past history of PTB or short cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What indicates a cervical cerclage?

A

Cervical incompetency

Or previous PTB or short cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Would you do a cervical examination if membranes are ruptured?

A

No, as can introduce infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What do growth scans measure?

A

Foetal growth - HC, AC, FL, weight
Liquor volume
Umbilical artery dopplers
Scans every 3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What parameters on growth scans are good?

A

Foetal growth between 10th and 90th centile and not moving across centiles - staying on trajectory
End-diastolic artery flow - absent or reverse is bad!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does asymmetrical IUFGR mean?

A

Small body with normal head size - more common restriction of growth
Usually due to placenta insufficiency - smoking, diabetes, HTN, pre-eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does symmetrical IUFGR mean?

A

Small head and body in proportion to one another

Intrinsic factors - infection eg TORCH, global growth restriction, neurological sequalae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the complications of IUFGR?

A

Premature birth, still birth, low birth weight - increased risk of SIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How is intermittent auscultation during labour done?

A

For low risk mothers
After contraction, listen with Pinard stethoscope or hand-held Doppler for 1 minute
Repeat at least every 15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is a CTG and what is it used for?

A

Used for continuous foetal heart monitoring in higher risk mothers. Uses Dopper USS to:
measure foetal heart rate, mother’s heart rate and uterine contractions
Hospital-based, restricts maternal movement,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the risk of ultrasound on foetus?

A

Can convert energy into heat - but very low risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the mneumonic for interpreting CTGs?

A 
Dr - Define risk
C - contractions
Bra - baseline rate
V - variability
A - acceleration
D - deceleration
O - overall impression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What counts as an acceleration or deceleration?

A

Rises/falls more than 15 beats for more than 15s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are you looking for in CTG variability?

A

Early, late or variable accelerations or decelerations in relation to time of contraction
LATE IS BAD! - possible cord compression
Normal range = 5-25bpm from baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What should baseline rate be on a CTG?

A

Baseline = 110-160 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What decelerations are concerning?

A 
Late!
>90 mins variable or early decelerations
Acute bradycardia >3 mins
Decelerations lasting >60s
Reduced variability within deceleration
Biphasic deceleration shape
Tachysystole (more than 5 contractions/10mins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What counts as a pathological CTG?

A

2 or more non-reassuring features OR 1 abnormal feature

1 non-reassuring = suspicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the gold standard for foetal heart rate monitoring and what circumstances is it done in?

A 
Scalp ECG (STAN)
At least 2cm dilated and ruptured membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

When would foetal scalp blood sampling be done?

A

If CTG pathological and sufficiently dilated to perform
To check foetal oxygenation
Small incision on scalp, capillary tube to collect blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is checked on foetal scalp blood sampling?

A

Mostly looking at pH
>7.25 is normal, less than this is abnormal - delivery
If borderline, repeat in 30 mins, keep checking CTG
If normal, but CTG abnormal, repeat blood sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Give some examples of non-pharmacological obstetric anaesthesia

A 
Trained support
Acupuncture
Hypnotherapy
Massage
TENS
Hydrotherapy
Aromatherapy
Homeotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What pharmacological analgesia may be given in obstetrics?

A

Entono, paracetamol, codeine
Opioids - Single shot or PCA
Regional techniques - epidural or spinal, combined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are side effects of morphine?

A

Nausea, vomiting, respiratory depression, pruritis, drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What opioids are given single shot and what are given PCA/IV?

A

Single shot - morphine, diamorphine, pethidine

PCA/IV - Renifentanol - short-acting, more able to match peaks and less side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which opioid should not be given in 2nd stage of labour?

A

Diamorphine - eliminated quickly through placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which opioid increases seizure risk?

A

Pethidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Where does epidural go and what are the risks?

A

L3/4 through spinous ligaments but not through dura.
Large needle as places catheter into extradural space - risk of puncturing dura and causing post-dural headache
- bupivacaine or fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Where is spinal done and what are the risks?

A

L3/L4 through spinous ligaments and through dura into CSF
Smaller needle with ongoing catheter - single dose which can last about 1hr
Bupivacaine used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are absolute and relative contraindications to regional analgesia?

A

Absolute - maternal refusal, local infection, allergy

Relative: Coagulopathy, systemic infection, Hypovolaemia, Abnormal anatomy/scoliosis, fixed cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are side effects of regional analgesia?

A

Vasodilatation, drop in BP, Analgesia, motor blockade, fever
Post-dural headache, neurological problems
In CS, numbed up to T3/T4 - risk of resp depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

When are spinals preferred?

A

For caesarean sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

When might general anaesthetic be used in CS?

A

Imminent threat to mother or foetus
Contraindication to regional
Maternal preference
Failed regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the risks with GA in CS?

A

Aspiration - give antacids preoperatively
Foetal Respiratory distress - adequate oxygenation pre-op
Failed intubation - extubate when awake
Lack of awareness
Give analgesia afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

When should a woman be sutured before?

A

16 weeks, then removed in last month of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What defines an APH?

A

Bleeding from anywhere in genital tract >50ml after 24th week
(if less than 50ml it is called a PV bleed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are obstetric causes of APH?

A 
Placenta praevia
Placenta accreta
Vasa praevia
Abruption
Infection
Also think: domestic violence, drug, cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is placenta praevia and how may it be classified?

A

= low-lying placenta within 2cm of internal os
Major means completely covering os
Minor means partially covering os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

When is placenta praevia identified and what is monitored after this?

A

Identified usually at 20 week USS
Further USS to monitor if moves up uterus as uterus expands
Bleeding may be due to placenta praevia as vessel invasion of cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Placenta has invaded myometrium of uterus with no cleavage between placenta and uterus - very serious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is vasa praevia?

A

Foetal vessels run in membrane across cervical os - small amount of blood loss will cause foetal distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What infections may cause APH?

A

Cervical or PID

Will get irritation and bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed at 20 week anomaly scan - high presenting part, abnormal lie
If anterior placenta and previous CS, may be invasive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How is placenta praevia monitored?

A

TVS - to see os and placenta

142
Q

How does placenta praevia present?

A 
PAINLESS BLEED
May have small bleed and then massive herald bleed a few hours later so if small, still: - 
Cross match bloods
Give anti-D if rhesus negative
Plan delivery
143
Q

What is the delivery plan for placenta praevia?

A

If small bleeds only or one-off - then plan for caesarean at 36-37wks
If heavy or recurrent bleeding, delivery before this

144
Q

What should be done in emergency delivery following APH?

A 
ABCDE
14/16 cannulas IV fluids (crystalloid)
cross match 6 units of blood
Senior team and paeds called ASAP
Foetal monitoring
Steroids and magnesium if <34 weeks
Do CS once mum is stable - otherwise will die under GA
145
Q

What are the different types of placenta accreta?

A

Accreta - into myometrium
Increta - through whole myometrium
Percreta - through into abdominal cavity

146
Q

What increases risk of placenta accreta?

A

Previous CS!! or previous gynae surgery eg fibroid removal

147
Q

How are placenta accretas diagnosed and managed?

A

If find low lying placenta at 20wk scan and loss of definition between wall and placenta or abnormal vasculature, or RFs - do MRI!
MRI = diagnosis
Arrange elective CS at 36-37wks + MDT (haem, vascular, paeds, anaesthetist)
If emergency - do emergency CS and hysterectomy

148
Q

How is vasa praevia diagnosed?

A

Presents with APH painless, small bleed, mother stable but foetal CTG abnormalities or distress
Diagnosed with TVS
IF ruptured membranes - major foetal haemorrhagic risk
If not ruptured, foetus may be OK

149
Q

What are the features of placental abruption?

A 
See bleed = revealed
Can't see bleed = concealed (depends on lie of placenta)
PAIN!!!!
Hard woody uterus - filled with blood
Maternal shock AND foetal shock/distress
Consider delivery or close observation
150
Q

What are the complications of APH?

A

Premature labour/delivery
Acute tubular necrosis
DIC - need to give clotting factors
PPH more likely

151
Q

What is a primary PPH?

A

PPH <24 hrs after delivery >500ml

152
Q

What is secondary PPH?

A

PPH >24hrs after delivery >500ml

Up to 12 weeks post-delivery

153
Q

What is a minor vs major PPH?

A 
Minor = 500-1000ml
Major = >1000ml
154
Q

What are the 4Ts that can cause PPH?

A

Tone (atony) - syntocin, misoprostol
Trauma - look for tears
Tissue - retained placental products
Thrombin - check clotting factors

155
Q

What are the risk factors for PPH?

A 
APH
Big baby
Shoulder dystocia
Prolonged labour
Multiple pregnancy
Nulliparity or grand multiparity
Maternal pyrexia
Operative delivery
Previous PPH
156
Q

What are the major risk factors for maternal sepsis?

A

Obesity
Diabetes
Impaired immunity

157
Q

What are the potential crises from pre-eclampsia?

A 
Can develop into eclampsia (seizures) within 2 weeks
Abruption
Retinal vasospasm/oedema
Cerebral oedema
Pulmonary oedema
Renal failure
HELLP
158
Q

What is HELLP?

A

Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

159
Q

How would you manage HELLP?

A

Stabilise BP - hydrazaline, labetalol, nifedipine
Check bloods - platelets, LFTs, renal function
Give MgSO4 - lowers seizure threshold
Monitor urine output - limit intake to 80ml/hr
Treat coagulation defects
Monitor foetus - CTG, USS growth check
Only deliver once mother is stable!!

160
Q

How would you manage a pregnant woman with a seizure initially?

A

Assume eclampsia until proven otherwise

Give IV MgSO4 as is safe

161
Q

What is foetal presentation?

A

The lowest part of foetus presenting to pelvic outlet or cervix

162
Q

What can occur if cord is presenting part?

A

If membranes intact - baby OK
If membranes rupture, cord can prolapse - become compressed and compromise foetal blood supply
Baby can die within 6 minutes

163
Q

What are risk factors for cord prolapse?

A 
Non-cephalic presentation
PROM
Polyhydramnios
Long umbilical cord
Multiparity
Multiple pregnancy
164
Q

How is cord prolapse managed?

A

Emergency delivery
Until then: Move foetal head up, Trendelenburg position
Constant foetal monitoring
Relieve pressure on cord

165
Q

What is shoulder dystocia?

A

Failure to move foetal shoulders under symphysis pubis after delivery of foetal head

166
Q

What are the maternal complications of shoulder dystocia?

A

PPH risk - atony, tear
Tear - 3rd or 4th degree
PTSD

167
Q

What are neonatal complications of shoulder dystocia?

A

Hypoxia (after 6 mins shoulder stuck)
Brachial plexus palsy
Cerebral palsy

168
Q

How is shoulder dystocia managed?

A

Pain relief for mum - but not time for spinal

Break anterior clavicle or posterior humerus - heal quickly and avoids brachial plexus injury

169
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder dystocia?

A 
Macrosomia
GDM
Previous shoulder dystocia
Disproportion between mother and foetus
Postmaturity and induction of labour
Maternal obesity
Prolonged 1st or 2nd stage of labour
Instrumental delivery
170
Q

How is shoulder dystocia prevented?

A

Only way is CS

Or induce at 39 weeks - try to avoid before 37 weeks to reduce risk cerebral palsy

171
Q

When is symphysio-fundal height done?

A

At antenatal appointments after 28 weeks. Only reliable after 20th week

172
Q

What does raised BP and proteinuria before 20 weeks gestation suggest?

A

Can’t have pre-eclampsia this early

Suggests renal disease

173
Q

What is done with urine samples in antenatal clinics?

A

Urinalysis - leukocytes, nitrites, haematuria, proteinuria
ALL have MC+S as can have asymptomatic bacturia in pregnancy - increased risk of pyelonephritis, sepsis, premature labour

174
Q

How are haemoglobinopathies screened for in antenatal clinics?

A

Screened for with thalassaemia and sickle cell disease screening
FBC - MCH low <28pg

175
Q

When would you be offered screening for GDM?

A

At 8-12 week appointment if risk factors:

  • previous GDM
  • diabetes
  • family history diabetes
  • BMI>30
  • previous baby>4.5kg
  • South Asian, Black of Middle Eastern
176
Q

When and how is GDM screening done?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28wks
Fast for 10-12 hrs, drink 75g oral glucose, check blood glucose 2hrs later
Aiming for <5.6 fasting, <7.8 after drink. If higher then is GDM

177
Q

How is GDM managed?

A

Try exercise and diet first, check BM daily on waking and 2h post meal
Blood glucose checked every 2 weeks
Offer metformin, insulin if not controlled in 2 wks
Foetal USS every 4 weeks from diagnosis
Plan for CS at week 38 or induced labour

178
Q

What are the risks of GDM?

A 
Polyhdramnios
Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia
Hypoglycaemic newborn
Risk of jaundice or congenital defects newborn
Increased risk of stillbirth
Maternal T2DM, CVD
PPH - from tears and atony
179
Q

What investigations would you do for polyhydramnios?

A

USS
Blood glucose
Infection screen
Maternal antibodies if concerned its hydrops fetalis

180
Q

What are the features of polyhydramnios?

A 
Swelling - ankle oedema
Constipation
Heartburn
Uterus large for date
Premature rupture of membranes
Abnormal foetal presentation
More common in twins
181
Q

What are the risks of polyhydramnios?

A 
Risk of premature birth
PROM
Cord prolapse
PPH
Foetal health
182
Q

How would you manage polyhydramnios?

A 
Treat cause, extra USS
Drainage if needed
Labour induction if foetal distress
Steroids if premature
Reduce foetal urination - prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors reduce renal flow
183
Q

What can cause polyhydramnios?

A 
Idiopathic
Oesophageal/duodenal atresia
Congenital heart defects or infections
Spina bifida, microcephaly
Hydrops fetalis
Drug use
Maternal hypercalcaemia
GDM
Multiple pregnancy
184
Q

What causes oligohydramnios?

A 
Rupture of amniotic membrane
Twin-to-twin transfusion
Foetal urinary tract malformation
Chronic hypoxia
Post-term pregnancy
HTN or Pre-eclampsia
Maternal dehydration
Drug use - e.g. ACE-inhibitor
185
Q

What may oligohydramnios show on examination?

A

Foetal parts felt through abdomen

small SFH - exclude IUFGR

186
Q

How would you manage olighydramnios?

A 
Before term - watch and wait
Continuous CTG in labour
At term - vaginal delivery, after term = CS
Treat cause and maternal dehydration
Amnioinfusion
187
Q

What can cause placental insufficiency?

A 
Diabetes
HTN
clotting disorder
Anaemia
Medication e.g. LMWH
Smoking and drugs
188
Q

What are features of placental insufficiency?

A

Mother fine
Reduced foetal movements
Smaller uterus than previous pregnancies
Vaginal bleeding if abruption

189
Q

What is diagnostic of placental insufficiency?

A

USS
Alpha feto-protein levels in maternal blood
Foetal non-stress test
Diary of baby movement

190
Q

What are the risks of IUGR?

A 
Low birth weight
Caesarean section
Hypoxia
Polycythaemia
Meconium aspiration
Hypoglycaemia
191
Q

What defines premature infant?

A

One born before 37 weeks gestation, 259 days from LMP or 245 days from conception

192
Q

What is a premature rupture of membranes?

A

Rupture of membranes before labour begins

193
Q

What can cause PROM?

A 
Uterine infections
Low socioeconomic
Smoking
Alcohol
Previous preterm
Stillbirth
Vaginal bleed
194
Q

What are complications of PROM?

A 
Chorioamnionitis - increased infection risk to mother and baby = infection of placenta
Premature birth
Placental abruption
Cord prolapse
Postpartum infection
195
Q

What is a miscarriage?

A

Spontaneous loss of pregnancy before 24 weeks gestation

196
Q

What is a complete miscarriage?

A

All products of pregnancy expelled and bleeding stopped

197
Q

What is a threatened miscarriage?

A

Vaginal bleeding in viable pregnancy before 24 weeks

198
Q

What is a delayed miscarriage?

A

Non-viable pregnancy on USS with no pain or bleeding

199
Q

What is an incomplete miscarriage?

A

Diagnosed non-viable pregnancy, bleeding begun but not all products have left the uterus

200
Q

What is an inevitable miscarriage?

A

non-viable pregnancy, bleed begun and os is open. Pregnancy tissue remains in uterus - will become incomplete then complete miscarriage

201
Q

What is recurrent miscarriage?

A

3 or more consecutive miscarriages before 24 wks gestation

202
Q

What are the causes of miscarriage?

A 
Chromosomal or foetal abnormalities
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Anatomical cause
Endocrine - PCOS, DM
Infective - bacterial vaginosis
No cause in 50% couoples
203
Q

What are risk factors for miscarriage?

A 
Old age
Obesity
Stress
Previous miscarriage
Heavy metals, pesticide
Older father
Smoking
204
Q

When should you suspect a miscarriage?

A

Any pregnant woman presenting with vaginal bleeding in first 24 weeks OR
Any woman of reproductive age with amenorrhoea or breast tenderness that presents with vag bleeding
May contain products of conception in blood
Pain worse than normal period pain

205
Q

How would you test for miscarriage?

A

TVS - tell if miscarriage, ectopic, intra-uterine
b-HCG - slow rise or falling if miscarriage
progesterone - low means non-viable

206
Q

How would you manage a confirmed miscarriage?

A

Watch and wait, counsel, 1-2 weeks urine bHCG to check if negative. If positive, repeat TVS
Repeat TVS if bleed or pain>7 days
If retained products, then oral misoprostol
Surgery if persistent bleed - manual evacuation or vacuum aspiration
Anti-D for all rhesus negative women

207
Q

How would you manage a miscarriage if gestation >15 weeks?

A 
2 step medical management:
Anti-progestogen = mifepristone
Then 36-48hrs later misoprostol
Usually completes wtihin 6-8hrs
If under 12 weeks, misoprostol only, if under 9 weeks, then expectant management
208
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Implantation of embryo outside uterine cavity, most commonly fallopian tubes

209
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A 
Sterilisation
PID
Family history ectopic pregnancy
STDs
History of infertility/IVF
Smoking
>35years
Contraception (IUD/IUS)
210
Q

What may be presenting features of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Abdo or pelvic pain,
Amenorrhoea or missed period
Vaginal bleed with or without clot
Faint, dizzy, nausea, vomiting, shoulder tip pain, passage of tissue, rectal pressure

211
Q

How would you test for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy test - if not confirmed pregnant already
B-HCG - should be doubling in 36-48hrs normal pregnancy, if rising slower than this may be ectopic
TVS (MRI 2nd line)

212
Q

How would you manage ectopic pregnancy?

A

If no pain and HCG<1000 - watchful waiting
If unruptured but painful or bHCG rising then METHOTREXATE - check on USS not intra-uterine
Surgery - salpingectomy or otomy if foetal heartbeat, >35mm, abdo pain, rupture, high HCG. Give anti-D

213
Q

What must be considered before giving methotrexate?

A

Check not intra-uterine pregnancy with TVS or USS
Check liver and kidney function
Check compliance ability as need repeated b-HCG measurements until <25 (no longer pregnant)

214
Q

How can labour be induced/accelerated?

A

Sweep
Prostaglandin pessary or balloon
Artificial rupture of membranes
IV oxytocin after amniotomy

215
Q

What is foetal lie vs foetal presentation vs position?

A

Foetal lie is long axis of foetus in relationship to mother
Foetal presentation - lowest or presenting part of foetus
Position - foetal head position as in birth canal (occipito-anterior is safest)

216
Q

How might abnormal lie be managed/changed?

A

External manipulation to cephalic at 36-38wks
Only 50% success rate
Risk of ruptured membranes, foetal distress, abruption, APH
CI: ruptured membrane, previous CS, uterus abnormal

217
Q

How is breech presentation managed?

A

If before 32-35 weeks, not to worry as can turn

If after 35 weeks, then plan for C section at term

218
Q

How is brow presentation managed?

A

C section only

219
Q

How is face presentation managed?

A

Chin anterior then possible normal but may need C section

Chin posterior = C section

220
Q

How is shoulder presentation managed?

A

C section

221
Q

How is malposition of occipito-anterior managed?

A

If long or short rotation - normal delivery but prolonged. Monitor partogram and position of head regularly
If arrest/transverse - manual rotation, forceps delivery or vaccum extraction
C section maybe

222
Q

What is failure to progress?

A

Failure to dilate cervix or failure for foetus to descend

223
Q

What can cause failure to progress?

A

False diagnosis of labour
cephalopelvic disproportion
Dysfunctional uterine activity

224
Q

How is progress measured in labour?

A 
Partogram started once 4cm dilated
Measures - Cervix dilation, descent of head, Contractions, maternal pulse, BP, urine, temp, foetal pulse
Alert and action line
Alert - Careful observations
Action - Induction or C section
225
Q

What is a prolonged latent phase?

A

Cervix not dilated to 4cm after 8hrs of regular contractions

226
Q

What is a prolonged active phase?

A

Cervix dilated but to right of alert line

Active labour should take 4-8hrs with 3-4 contractions every 10 minutes

227
Q

How would you manage a prolonged latent phase?

A

exclude cephalopelvic disproportion

Then reassure, ARM and oxytocin infusion

228
Q

How would you manage prolonged established labour/active phase?

A

Exclude CPD, amniotomy, oxytocin infusion

If fails to dilate 2cm in 4hrs, needs C section

229
Q

What occurs in obstructed labour?

A

Uterine contractions good initially but overworked so become hypoactive - secondary arrest
Then in subsequent labour, upper segment thickens, lower segment thins, Bandl’s ring between 2 segments. Risk of uterine rupture
If so, hydrate mother, blood tranfusion and C section (even if foetus dead)

230
Q

What are some causes of uterine rupture?

A 
Obstructed labour
Previous caesarean
Late pregnancy
Inappropriate use of oxytocin
Higher risk in multiparous women
231
Q

What are features of uterine rupture?

A

Foetal distress/tachycardia
Maternal PAIN, shock
Vaginal bleeding
Can feel knobbly hands and feet of baby abdominally

232
Q

How is uterine rupture managed?

A

Blood transfusion, correct dehydration
Emergency C section
Laparotomy hysterectomy or if previous CS scar rupture then suture uterus back up

233
Q

When is forceps preferred over ventouse?

A

If <36 weeks to reduce damage to baby’s head

234
Q

What are complications of instrumental delivery?

A

Maternal: Tears (3rd or 4th degree affecing walls and muscles of anus), Trauma leading to PPH, high risk of DVT, urinary and anal incontinence
Foetus: Chignon mark (resolves 48hrs)
Bruise cephalohaematoma - self-resolves

235
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

Scores newborn health risk at 1 and 5 minutes

Measures Activity, Pulse/HR, Grimace, Appearance, Respiration

236
Q

What APGAR scores are reassuring, abnormal or need intervention?

A 
Reassuring = 7-10
Abnormal = 4-6
Intervention = 0-3
237
Q

How would you manage an uncomplicated lower UTI in pregnancy?

A

Paracetamol, lots of fluids, nitrofurantoin (if not at 36+ weeks) for 7 days
2nd line: amoxicillin or cephalexin for 7 days
If symptoms don’t improve in 48hrs, urgent review, follow up sensitivity

238
Q

Give the features of Group B strep in pregnancy?

A

Is a commensal of vagina or rectum, can pass to baby in delivery
Screen all women at 35-37 weeks for group B strep with vaginal and rectal swab

239
Q

What are signs that may infect baby with Group B strep?

A 
Premature labour
PROM 18h before delivery
Previous baby with GBS
Fever during labour
UTI
240
Q

How is group B strep of neonate prevented?

A

If mother positive for GBS and has risk factors, give IV pencillin during labour

241
Q

What are complications of group B strep infection in neonates?

A

Early onset - pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis, BP unstable, GI and renal issues
Late onset - meningitis more common

242
Q

What are maternal features suggesting gonorrhoea infection?

A

May be asymptomatic or yellow discharge, dysuria, abnormal menstrual bleed, rectal pain if spread
Could spread to uterus or cervix to cause PID or disseminated gonoccoal infection

243
Q

How is gonorrhoea picked up and treated?

A

Screened at first antenatal visit (8-12 weeks)

Treated Ceftriaxone

244
Q

How can baby pick up gonorrhoea infection and how may they present?

A

During delivery if mother has gonorrhoea

Presents 2-5days post-delivery - scalp, eye, urethra, URTI infection, serious eye conditions or sepsis

245
Q

How is neonatal gonorrhoea treated?

A

Treat baby - Ceftriaxone

If eye disease - erythromycin ophthalmic ointment

246
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Nausea and vomiting to varying levels during pregnancy due to b-HCG levels
More severe than morning sickness and perseveres beyond 16-20 week mark when morning sickness would usually cease

247
Q

What are the risks with hyperemesis gravidarum?

A 
Risks are more common if high HCG e.g. twins or molar pregnancy:
Excessive vomiting
Dehydration
Ketosis
Weight loss
Dizziness and hypotension
DVT
248
Q

How is hyperemesis gravidarum managed?

A

Check for twin or molar pregnancy with USS
Check TFTs, LFTs, U+Es, potassium
Rehydrate - IV fluids, vitamin supplements, nil by mouth until oral fluids tolerated
Anti-emetics - ondansetron, cyclosine, metoclopramide
Steroids

249
Q

What is the normal menstruation cycle range for duration? What is normal range of blood loss in menstruation?

A

21 to 35 days

60-80ml

250
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding that occurs at expected intervals
Heavy menstrual bleeding >80 ml or subjective feeling of too much blood loss interfering with physical, emotional, social and material life

251
Q

What is intermenstrual bleeding?

A

Uterine bleeding occurring between defined cyclic and predictable menses

252
Q

What is abnormal uterine bleeding?

A

Any menstrual bleeding from uterus that is abnormal in timing, regularity or volume or non-menstrual

253
Q

What are some causes of HMB?

A

Coagulopathy
Ovulatory
Endometrial disorder - fibroids, adenomyosis, polyps
Possibly malignancy - but often is PCB, IMB or PMB
Idiopathic - dysfunctional uterine bleeding of ovulatory or anovulatory type

254
Q

What is a fibroid?

A

Benign tumour of smooth muscle (myometrium)

= Leiomyoma

255
Q

What is a uterine polyp?

A

Benign localised growths of endometrium with fibrous core and covered in columnar epithelium
Malignant changes are rare

256
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Ectopic endometrial tissue within myometrium

Can form localised adenomyoma or be diffuse

257
Q

What might you need to exclude when assessing a lady with heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

Exclude thyroid disease - either hyper or hypo
Exclude clotting disorder
Exclude drug therapy - warfarin, heparin

258
Q

What investigations should you do in menorrhagia?

A

FBC
TVS
Endometrial biopsy if >45 years, not responding to treatment
Hysteroscopy - unresponsive to treatment, abnormal scan, assess suitability for OP ablation

259
Q

What are good non-contraceptive methods of treating menorrhagia?

A 
Tranexamic acid (anti-fibrinolytic)
Mefenamic acid (NSAID) - good for dysmenorrhoea
260
Q

What are contraceptive methods of treating menorrhagia?

A

IUS
COCP
Progestagen - if anovulatory or chaotic bleeds
Endometrial ablation - if completed family, uterus <12 weeks size, normal uterine cavity, no infection
Myomectomy - resection of fibroids
Hysterectomy

261
Q

What is premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

= premature menopause <40 yrs

262
Q

What is the average age of menopause?

A

51

263
Q

When is menopause diagnosed?

A

After 12 months amenorrhoea

264
Q

What is perimenopause?

A

The period leading up to menopause

265
Q

What are some common features of perimenopause?

A 
Hot flushes
Mood swings
Aching muscles and joints
Urogenital atrophy
Irregular periods
266
Q

What hormonal changes occur in menopause?

A

Ovarian function declines and produce less oestrogen

No inhibition of FSH and LH so rise

267
Q

What are the short-term features of menopause?

A

Vasomotor symptoms - night sweats, hot flushes
Dry itchy skin, achey joints
Mood swings, irritability, loss of concentration, lack of confidence/energy
Headaches

268
Q

What are medium term features of menopause?

A

Urogenital atrophy - dyspareunia, vaginal dryness
Recurrent UTIs
PMB

269
Q

What are long-term consequences of menopause?

A

Osteoporosis
CVD - increased in early menopause
Dementia

270
Q

What is the lifestyle management of menopause?

A

Modifiable risk factors - exercise, weight loss, diet, smoking, alcohol
Inform about options

271
Q

What options are there for treating menopausal symptoms?

A

HRT (oestrogen or oestrogen and progesterone)
Vaginal oestrogens
Clonidine - for hot flushes
CBT

272
Q

What are the benefits and risks of HRT?

A

Benefits: reduces risk osteoporosis, reduces menopausal symptoms, prevents long-term morbidity

Risks: HRT oestrogen and progesterone significantly increases risk of breast cancer
VTE risk, stroke, CVD risk (although CVD reduces if HRT in first 2 years of menopause)

273
Q

What should you do regarding HRT in women with breast cancer or history of breast cancer?

A

If gets breast cancer while on HRT, discontinue HRT

If history of breast cancer, do not routinely offer HRT - only if very severe symptoms

274
Q

When might you give oestrogen only HRT?

A

If woman has no uterus
If has uterus- AVOID and use progestogen with it as unopposed oestrogen can cause endometrial proliferation and neoplasia!

275
Q

What are the two types of oestrogen and progestogen HRT?

A

Sequential - progestogen 12-14 days every 4 weeks
Continuous combined - progestogen daily. May use Mirena with oestrogen therapy for this (change 4yrs)
Can also use Tibolone daily too but not within 12 months of LMP

276
Q

Which type of HRT will stop periods and which type will still have them?

A

Continuous combined - no periods

Sequential - periods every 4 weeks when withdraw oestrogen

277
Q

Why might you give transdermal HRT?

A 
Gastric upset, steady absorption
Perceived VTE risk
Older women - reduce HRT risks
Medical conditions e.g. HTN
Patient preference
278
Q

What can cause premature menopause?

A

Idiopathic majority
Iatrogenic - chemo, radiotherapy, surgery
Other - chromosomal abnorms, inhibin B mutation, autoimmune disease, FSH receptor gene polymorphisms

279
Q

How is menopause diagnosed?

A

FSH > 25 in 2 samples that are 4 wks apart
AND
12 months amenorrhoea

280
Q

Should contraception be used in menopause?

A

Yes - fertile for 2 more years if under 50 and 1 more year if over 50

281
Q

When should you be cautious in giving HRT?

A

Older women >60
Not given to anyone with undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Not in breast cancer or acute liver disease
Cautions - fibroids, HTN uncontrolled, migraine, epilepsy, endometriosis, VTE risk

282
Q

What non-hormonala treatments may be given for menopausal symptoms?

A

Clonidine - adrenergic receptor for hot flushes
SSRI - low dose (don’t use paroxetine/fluoxetine if on tamoxifen)
SNRI - low dose
Anti-epileptics (gabapentin)

283
Q

When is reversal of infibulation aimed to be done at?

A

Preconception

Or antenatally before 20 weeks

284
Q

What might you do during delivery for a woman who has had FGM?

A

Anterior episiotomy

Medial and lateral to prevent further tearing if needed

285
Q

What is the normal range of ages for menarche?

A

11 - 14.5

286
Q

What is primary amenorrhoea?

A

Not menstruated by the age of 15

287
Q

What age should you refer if primary amenorrhoea and no secondary sexual characteristics?

A

13 - refer to specialist to see if chromosomal abnormalities

288
Q

Give the possible causes of primary amenorrhoea with secondary sexual characteristics?

A

look it up hehe

289
Q

What is polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

Polycystic ovaries
Hyperandrogenism
Oligovulation
Insulin resistance

290
Q

What is the pathophysiology of PCOS?

A

Ovaries stimulated by excess LH and hyperinsulinaemia has a role
Excess androgen produced by theca cells, free testosterone raised due to drop in sex binding hormone from liver
Cysts are immature follicles not true cysts
PCOS can exist without cysts and without raised androgen levels

291
Q

What are the features of PCOS?

A 
Oligo or amenorrhoea
Infertility
Weight gain
Hirsutism, male pattern balding, acne
Acanthosis nigricans
Sleep apnoea
Mood swing - depression, anxiety, low self-esteem
292
Q

What are some complications of PCOS?

A

Obesity - HTN, stroke, dyslipidaemia, MI
Miscarriage
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Increased risk of endometrial cancer

293
Q

What is diagnostic criteria for PCOS?

A

At least 2 of:
Polycystic ovaries (12+ peripheral follicles or ovarian volume>10cm3)
Signs hyperandrogenism
Oligovulation <9 per year or anovulation

294
Q

What might you see on blood tests for PCOS?

A

Bloods: normal or raised LH, normal FSH
(if raised FSH too, then think ovarian insufficiency)
Low oestradiol, high oestrogen, high prolactin
High or normal testosterone - if really high could be androgen secreting tumour
Low sex hormone binding globulin
Check TFTs as hypothyroidism can mimic
Fasting glucose for insulin resistance

295
Q

What might you see on USS in PCOS?

A

> 5 follicles per ovary

296
Q

What might you see on VE in PCOS?

A

Excess cervical mucus

297
Q

How would you manage PCOS?

A

Weight loss - diet, exercise
No smoking
Screen for T2DM
Treat sleep apnoea and complications
COCP - reduces androgenism and cancer risk, back to back 3 months then breakthrough bleed - COCP CI in obesity >35
Metformin, Clomifene, ovarian drilling if want to be fertile
Hirsutism cosmetic - anti-androgen cyproterone

298
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Inflammatory or iatrogenic
Can be due to severe endometriosis causing scar tissue across uterus, reducing volume of cavity and changes menstrual cycle

299
Q

What are the features of Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Amenorrhoea, reduced blood flow, interrupted menstrual blood flow with pain, blockage of cervix, recurrent miscarriage or infertility

300
Q

How would you test for Asherman’s syndrome

A

XR = diagnostic

or can do hysteroscopy

301
Q

How is Asherman’s syndrome managed?

A

Cutting of scar tissue

Hormone therapy to encourage menstruation

302
Q

What affects prolactin production?

A

Produced by lactotroph cells of anterior pituitary and also from hair follicles, adipose tissue and immune cells
Increased by TRH, vasoactive intestinal peptide, epidermal growth factor
Inhibited by dopamine

303
Q

What are physiological causes of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Breastfeeding, pregnancy, stress

Macroprolactinaemia from immune cells

304
Q

What are intracranial causes of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Pituitary tumours - secreting (prolactin) or non-secreting (acts by inhibiting dopamine so prolactin rises)
Prolactinoma - benign tumour of pituitary that produces prolactin

305
Q

What are other causes of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Cushing’s
Anti-dopamine drugs e.g. antipsychotics
PCOS
Cirrhosis

306
Q

What is the commonest intracranial cause of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Microadenoma of pituitary gland

Malignant very rare - can be part of autosomal dominant MEN1

307
Q

What are the effects of prolactinomas?

A

High prolactin inhibits FSH and LH - amenorrhoea, infertile, hirsutism, reduced libido, galactorrhoea
Headache, bitemporal hemianopia

308
Q

What tests would you do for hyperprolactinaemia?

A

TFTs, pregnancy test, basal serum prolactin (repeat if low, if high suspect macroprolactinaemia), visual field test
MRI - pituitary
Assess pituitary function

309
Q

How would you manage hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Find underlying cause
Dopamine cabergoline if symptomatic. If asymptomatic don’t treat
2nd line - surgery
Oestrogen containing contraception if needed

310
Q

What is a molar pregnancy/hyatidiform mole?

A

Abnormal growth of trophoblasts - complete or partial
Complete - placental tissue abnormal, swells and filed with cysts, no formation foetal tissue (empty egg and 1 or 2 sperm fertilise so all father’s chromosomes)
Partial - some formation of foetus, some normal placental tissue, usually early miscarriage (1 maternal chromosome but 2 father’s chromosomes - 69 instead of 46)

311
Q

What are the risk factors for molar pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy under 20 or over 35

Previous molar pregnancy

312
Q

What does molar pregnancy present with?

A

May be like normal pregnancy
Severe nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding 1st trim, passage of grape-like cysts
Pelvic pressure or pain, rapid uterine growth
HTN, preeclampsia, anaemia, hyperthyroid
Ovarian cysts

313
Q

What are complications of molar pregnancy after removal?

A

After removed, molar pregnancy tissue may still be present and become gestational trophoblastic neoplasia - lots of HCG
Requires chemotherapy or hysterectomy

314
Q

How is molar pregnancy diagnosed and managed?

A

Higher HCG than normal pregnancy
USS
Surgery to remove or meds

315
Q

What are different types of ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular
Corpus luteum cyst
Dermoid cyst (teratoma)
Endometriomas

316
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cysts?

A 
Hormone problem eg IVF
Pregnancy
Endometriosis
Severe pelvic infection
Previous ovarian cyst
317
Q

What are features of ovarian cysts?

A

Most asymptomatic and self-resolve
Large: pelvic pain, fullness or heaviness in abdo/pelvis, bloating
Emergency - sudden severe abdo pain, shock, pain with fever, tachypnoea weak

318
Q

How do you investigate ovarian cysts?

A 
Pelvic exam
Pregnancy test - may be corpus luteum cyst/ectopic
Pelvic ultrasound
Laparoscopy
CA125 to check for ovarian cancer
319
Q

How would you manage ovarian cysts?

A

Watch and wait if small, not growing
Oral contraceptive pill to stop further growth
Surgery if growing

320
Q

What occurs in ovarian torsion?

A

Ovaries get wrapped around utero-ovarian ligament, sometimes with fallopian tube twisting
Cuts of blood supply to ovary and fallopian tube, more likely R

321
Q

What can cause ovarian torsion?

A 
Pregnancy in 1st trimester
Infertility treatment
Ovarian cysts
Long utero-ovarian ligament
Tube ligation
322
Q

How does ovarian torsion present?

A

Severe acute onset lower abdominal pain, radiating to groin and flank
Can be intermittent if ovary twisting is intermittent
If cyst on ovary, may rupture so fluid in abdo, nausea vomiting, fever, adnexal lump

323
Q

How would you investigate ovarian torsion?

A

Pelvic exam - adnexal lump

Exclude UTI, pregnancy, consider appendicitis

324
Q

How would you manage ovarian torsion?

A

Surgery to untwist - if can’t untwist then oopherectomy or salpingo-oopherectomy
COCP to stop cysts recurring

325
Q

How would you manage lichen sclerosis?

A 
Steroid cream, wash with emollient soap
Dab genitals dry after urine
Wear cotton underwear
Vaginal lubricant
If affecting life, surgery to widen vagina
Monitor for vulval cancer
326
Q

What is oligmenorrhea?

A

Menses more than 35 days apart

327
Q

What would you rule out in a girl presenting with delayed menarche?

A

TFT - thyroid disorders
Coeliac
Check bone profile - increased risk of osteoporosis

328
Q

What is infertility?

A

Failure to conceive after 1 year unprotected intercourse

329
Q

What is the average age for first birth?

A

28.5yrs

330
Q

When might you refer to infertility specialists in a couple struggling to conceive?

A

If failing after 1 year unprotected sex
Or if over 35 or have suspected infertility issues due to medical conditions - menstrual disorder, previous abdo/pelvic surgery, previous PID/STI, abnormal pelvic exam
Or male - undescended testes, testicular torsion, previous STD, systemic illness, abnormal genital function

331
Q

What preconception advice would you give?

A 
Intercourse 2-3 x a week
Folic acid 0.4mg or 5mg if high risk
No alcohol, smoking cessation
Aim BMI 19-30
Smear test, rubella vaccine
Screen for medical conditions
Drug history - any teratogenic, illict
Environmental/occupational exposure
332
Q

What fertility problems may obesity present?

A 
PCOS
Infertility
Miscarriage
Obstetric complications
ART less effective
 - Don't give treatment to BMI>35
Men also improve fertility with BMI<30
333
Q

What test would you do first in a couple presenting with infertility at specialist?

A

Check woman is ovulating!
Mid-luteal progesterone peak (usually day 21)
If long or irregular cycle, do series and then minus one week from next period starting to select correct progesterone test

334
Q

How do you measure ovarian reserve?

A

FSH levels at day 2. <4 is good >8.9 is bad
Antral Follicle Count - >16 good, <4 bad
Anti-Mullerian Hormone - >25 good, <5.4 bad

335
Q

How would you assess male fertility?

A

Sperm count, motility, morphology

If abnormal, repeat in 3 months

336
Q

What might you do if sperm count is very low?

A

Examine patient - secondary sexual characteristics, testicular size
If <5m/ml
- Endocrine - FSH, LH, prolactin
- Karyotype - Kleinfelters
- Cystic fibrosis screen (congenital bilateral abscess of vas deferens (CBAVD) - check mother if father positive
Urology for further imaging - vasogram, USS

337
Q

When might you do a testicular biopsy to assess low sperm count?

A

If azoospermic

Only if cryopreservation facilities available

338
Q

How might the “tubes” be assessed in infertility services?

A

Laparoscopy + dye test (if high risk eg PID, STI, previous surgery, pain)
Or hysterosalpingogram for low risk
Do swab for STIs before lap or HSG

339
Q

How might you treat mild, moderate or severe male infertility?

A

Mild - intrauterine sperm injection or IVF
Moderate - IVF
Severe - Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

340
Q

How might azoospermia be managed?

A

Donor insemination
Surgery - correct epidymal block, reverse vasectomy, varicoele
If hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism - give gonadotrophins (LH, FSH)
If prolactinaemia - give bromocriptine

341
Q

What lifestyle measures may improve male fertility?

A 
Don't overheat, wear boxers
Smoking cessation, limit alcohol
Occupation exposure - reduce if can
Diet supplements - folic acid, zinc, selenium, vit E
Lose weight if obese
342
Q

What may cause hypothalamic anovulation?

A

Stress
Excessive exercise
Kallman’s
Anorexia nervosa - weight loss

343
Q

How might hypothalamic anovulation be treated to improve fertility?

A

Get to healthy weight, and normal exercise levels
GnRH pump
Commonly give - LH and FSH

344
Q

What pituitary problems may lead to anovulation? How may you treat?

A

Pituitary adenoma - either prolactin secreting or inhibiting dopamine - bromocriptine
Or prolactinoma - bromocriptine
Sheehan’s syndrome - give LH and FSH

345
Q

What is the commonest ovarian cause of infertility and what is its treatment? What are other ovarian causes?

A

Commonest = PCOS - clomifene
Premature ovarian insufficiency (high FSH) - donor egg
Hyper/hypothyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency

346
Q

How would you improve fertility in PCOS?

A

Weight loss
If not improved then Clomifene (or Tamoxifen or Letrizole) for up to 6 cycles
Monitor progesterone and USS
Risk of multiple preganncy and ovarian cancer
Metformin for insulin resistance
If these don’t work - laparoscopic ovarian drilling or gonadotrophin ovulation induction

347
Q

What might cause tubal infertility?

A

PID, STIs, endometriosis, surgical adhesions, sterilisation

Hydrosalpinx, adhesions

348
Q

How is hydrosalpinx managed?

A

Found on dye test - bulges, dye not coming out
Surgery - Salpingectomy
IVF - once tubes are out so dye cannot kill embryo

349
Q

How might surgery help fertility in tubal disease?

A 
Adhesiolysis
Reversal of sterilisation
Salpingostomy
Tubal catheterisation - selective salpingography, hysteroscopic
Ablation, resection of  endometriosis
350
Q

How is unexplained infertility diagnosed? How is it managed?

A

By exclusion

Mx: IVF

Phase 3a (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions