Obs And Gynae Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for c section

A

Maternal reasons e.g infections such as herpes or eclampsia, cervical ca. Or previous uterine surgery. Cardiac disease, high HIV viral load over 1000 copies Foetal indications such as distress, position, cord prolapse or congenital anomalies Maternal-foetal implications such as rupture, placenta previa and failure of labour to progress.

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2
Q

What is the success rate of vaginal delivery after previous Caesarian (vbac)

A

60-80% with a 0.5-1% increased risk of rupture

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3
Q

Factors associated with decreased success of trial of labour after previous Caesarian section

A

Body mass index of 40 or more 2 or more previous c sections Previous c section for failure to descend into second stage of labour Infant weight over 4000g Maternal age over 35

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4
Q

What is placenta previa

A

Placenta previa is when the placenta is covering the cervix And can be categorised by: Complete - completely covering the cervix Partial - a portion is covering the cervix Marginal - extends just to the edge of the cervix

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5
Q

Incidence of finding placenta previa on 20 week scan

A

4% of 20 scans have an incidental finding of placenta previa. Most of which resolve by term and therefore follow up uss at x weeks is best in the absence of bleeding. 0.4% of pregnancies have placenta previa at term

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6
Q

Types of uterine incisions for c section

A

low segment Transverse - through non contractile portion of the uterus. The bladder must first be dissected off the uterus. Classic - vertical incision through the contractile fundus of the uterus. Higher risk of bleeding and adhesions as well as rupture with VBAC

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7
Q

Complications of a c section in order of most common to least common

A

Haemorrhage Infection Visceral injury Thrombosis

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8
Q

Types of breech position

A

Non cephalic Tranverse Footling

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9
Q

Assessment of breakthrough bleeding with women on OCP

A

Insert picture

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10
Q

Characteristics of trichomonas

A

Wet saline mount shows flagellated, motile organisms, pmns and WBC’s

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11
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous abortion

A

Aneuploidy

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12
Q

Signs and symptoms of trichomonas

A

Yellow green malodorous discharge 25% asymptomatic Petechiae on vagina and cervix

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13
Q

Signs and symptoms of candidiasis

A

White cottage cheese discharge Intense pruritus Swollen inflamed genitals Vulvar burning, dysuria, dyspareunia

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14
Q

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis

A

Grey thin diffuse discharge 50-75% asymptomatic Fishy odour especially after coitus Absence of vulval/vaginal irritation

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15
Q

How to prevent breast engorgement post partum

A

Frequent nursing 8-12 a day Optimal nursing position Satisfactory latch No breastfeed skipping during the first several weeks Avoidance of formula feedings in the first several weeks Can also try warm compress before feedings and cool compress in between

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16
Q

Highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which cardiac condition

A

Eisnmengers syndrome - where there is a communication between systemic and pulmonary system, with increased pulmonary resistance (right to left shunt) 50% risk of dying Fatal mortality also reaches 50%

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17
Q

Most common histology of cervical Ca

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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18
Q

Differential for postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial cancer until proven otherwise Endometrial polyps - treated with polypectomy Vaginal atrophy

19
Q

Definition of menorhagia

A

Menstruation at regular cycle intervals but with excessive flow and duration

20
Q

Differential for abnormal uterine bleeding

A

Polyp Adenomyosis Leiomyoma Malignancy Hyperplasia Coagulopathy Ovulatory disfunction Endometrial Iatrogenic Not yet classified PALM COEIN

21
Q

Treatment of mild menorrhagia

A

NSAIDS Antifibrinolytics Combined ocp Progestin son d10-14 of each month More a IUD danazol

22
Q

Contraindications to mirena use

A

Presence of pregnancy Uterine cancer or fibroids Uterine malformations Acute liver disease or liver tumors Breast carcinoma Existing pelvic inflammatory disease Uterine bleeding not previously diagnosed

23
Q

Common acid base status in hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Metabolic alkalosis early on from vomiting but as vomiting becomes chronic you develop a mixed metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis due to a higher anion gap which is usually due to the ketoacidosis which develops with startvation.

24
Q

Most appropriate antibiotic from prophylaxis of post c section endometritis

A

Cefazolin

25
Q

How does post c section endometritis present

A

Postpartum fever, uterine tenderness, foul smelling Lothian and leucoytosis.

26
Q

post partum thyroiditis

A

variation of hashimotos and presents in a variety of ways. begins 1-4 months after delivery and can last 2-8 weeks. can be transient or become permanent. treatment is not usually necessary unless significant symptoms develop.

27
Q

uterine inversion

A

severe abdominal pain, shock and uterine tissue outside the cervix. Give oxygen, crystalloids, stop oxytocin infusion and leave placenta in place. This is a life threatening complication of third stage of labour.

28
Q

degrees of uterine inversion

A
  1. fundus is partially turned out 2. fundus passes through cervix but not outside vagina 3. fundus is prolapsed outside of the vagina 4. the uterus cervix and vagina are outside and visible
29
Q

risk factors for developing DVT post delivery

A

BMI>30 emergency C section cesarian hysterectomy previous DVT known thrombotic disorder age>35 parity>3 current infection major illness immobility > 4 days prior to surgery pre eclampsia gross varicose veins

30
Q

absolute contraindications for HRT

A

severe liver disease undiagnosed vaginal bleeding venous thrombosis known or suspected breast or uterine cancer

31
Q

relative contraindications include

A

hypertriglyceridemia uncontrolled hypertension migraine headaches history of uterine fibroids history of breast cancer atypical ductal hyperplasia of the breast active gallbladder disease

32
Q

risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

long term exposure of non opposed oestrogen high cumulative doses of tamoxifen estrogen producing tumors obesity nulliparity diabetes hypertension thyroid or gallbladder disease older age history of infertility late age of natural menopause early age of menarche menstrual irregularities white race

33
Q

risks of having intrahepatic cholestasis during pregnancy

A

prematurity fetal distress increased perinatal mortality

34
Q

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

rare, presents in 3rd trimester - usually as itching can become jaundice. Usually have elevated Bilirubin with relatively normal transaminases.

total bile acids are most specific and sensitive test

35
Q

most common cause of jaundice during pregnancy

A

acute viral hepatitis

36
Q

Bishops score

A
37
Q

lichen sclerosis

A

benign chronic inflammatory progressive dermatological condition found in the anogenital region

38
Q

cervical insuffieciency

A

inability of the uterine cervix to retain a pregnancy in the second trimester in the absence of contractions

tranvaginal USS from 12 weeks is recommended to assess cervix length <25mm is considered short

39
Q

management of cervical insufficiency

A

cervical clervage

hydroxyprogesterone caproate weekly from 16 weeks up to 36 weeks gestation

40
Q

diagnositic criteria for severe pre eclampsia

A

systolic BP greater than 160 on 2 occassions 6 hours apart

proteinuria greater than 5g in 24h collection or 3+ on 2 random urine samples

oliguria less than 500ml in 24h

persistent headache or visual disturbances

pulmonary oedema or cyanosis

concerning abdominal pain

impaired LFTs

thrombocytopenia

oligohydraminos

decreased fetal growth

placental abruption

41
Q

FIGO Staging

A

staging for endometiral cancer

Ia cancer has invade less the myometirum

Ib cancer has invaded greater than half the myometrium

II cervical involvement without sread outside uterus

III regional spread to adenexa/serosa, lymph nodes etc

IV cancer in bladder, rectum and outside the pelvis

42
Q

types of endometrial cancer

A

Type 1 - low grade estrogen related

Tyoe 2 - high grade not estrogen related

43
Q

How is cervical ripening performed

A

prostaglandins or special devices