Obs 5 Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

What are the RFs for a multiple pregnancy?

A
  • Advanced maternal age
  • IVF
  • Previous multiple pregnancy
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2
Q

Define chorion and amnion

A

Chorion = number of placentae
Amnion = number of amniotic sacs

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3
Q

Describe monozygous twins

A

Division of fertilised egg = IDENTICAL (20% of twins)

Dichorionic diamniotic:

  • Cleavage days 1-3
  • 2 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs
  • S/S: λ sign

Monochorionic diamniotic:

  • Cleavage days 4-8
  • 1 placenta (share), 2 amniotic sacs
  • S/S: T-sign

Monochorionic monoamniotic:

  • Cleavage days 8-12
  • 1 placenta (share), 1 amniotic sac (share)
  • S/S: T-sign, ‘entangled cords’

Conjoined twins:

  • Cleavage days 13-15
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4
Q

Describe dizygous twins

A

Fertilisation of 2 ovum by 2 different sperm = NON-IDENTICAL (80% of twins)

  • DCDA – separate placentae, amnions, chorions
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5
Q

How is GA estimated for multiple pregnancies?

A

Offer 1st trimester USS when CRL 45-84 mm (11-13+6 weeks) to determine: EGA, chorionicity, and to screen for Down syndrome (use largest baby to estimate GA)

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6
Q

How is chronionicity detected for multiple pregnancies?

A

> Refers to the type of placentation (this is the most important feature to an obstetrician)

  • Detect at time of detecting twin/triplet pregnancy by USS using number of placental masses, lambda (dichorionic) or T-sign (monochorionic) and membrane thickness
  • Examine junction between the inter-fetal membrane and the placenta
  • In DC pregnancies = triangular placental tissue projection (λ sign) into base of the membrane
  • In MC pregnancies = no placental tissue projection (T-sign) into the base of the membrane
  • If presenting after 14 weeks, determine chorionicity using all of membrane thickness, lambda sign, number of placental masses and disconcordant foetal sex
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7
Q

What are the S/S of multiple pregnancies?

A

(Asymptomatic):

1st trimester = incidental on USS, hyperemesis (increased βHCG)

2nd trimester = large for dates, multiple parts on abdominal exam

Abdominal exam = increased SFH, multiple parts, >1 FH

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8
Q

What is the antenatal management of a multiple pregnancy?

A
  • FBC at 20-24w (query extra supplementation of iron or folic acid, repeat at 28w)
  • BP (increased chance of eclampsia)
  • GTT (increased likelihood of diabetes) - 16w (every 2w) for MC, 20w (every 4w) for DC
  • TTTS screening = every 2 weeks from 16-24 weeks – if MC
  • General growth scans = after 24w (every 2 or 4 weeks)

Serial USS for foetal growths:

  • MC twins = scan at 12, 16 and then every 2 weeks until delivery
  • DC twins = scan at 12, 20 and then every 4 weeks until delivery
  • MC/ DC triplets = scan at 12, 16 and every 2 weeks until delivery
  • TC triplets = scan at 12, 20 and every 4 weeks until delivery
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9
Q

Describe the specialist care for multiple pregnancies

A
  • Uncomplicated monochorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy should be offered at least 9 appointments with a healthcare professional, at least 2 should be with a specialist obstetrician
  • Uncomplicated dichorionic twin pregnancy should be offered at least 8 appointments and at least 2 with a specialist obstetrician
  • Uncomplicated monochorionic triamniotic or dichorionic triamniotic pregnancy should be offered at least 11 appointments and at least 2 with a specialist obstetrician
  • Uncomplicated trichorionic triamniotic triplet pregnancy should be offered at least 7 scans and at least 2 with a specialist obstetrician
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10
Q

How is pre-term birth in multiple pregnancies prevented?

A

Do NOT use the following routinely to prevent spontaneous preterm birth:

  • Bed rest at home or in hospital
  • IM or vaginal progesterone
  • Cervical cerclage
  • Oral tocolytics
  • Corticosteroids will be useful if preterm birth is likely (should be targeted)
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11
Q

Describe the birth of multiple pregnancies

A
  • 60% of twin pregnancies result in spontaneous birth before 37 weeks
  • Offer continuous foetal monitoring (CTG); if needed: scalp electrode and foetal blood monitoring
  • Offer elective birth if (if declined > weekly obstetrician appointments):
  • Uncomplicated monochorionic twin – from 36 weeks (after course of steroids)
  • Uncomplicated dichorionic twin – from 37 weeks
  • Uncomplicated triplet – from 35 weeks (after a course of steroids)

Vaginal delivery (first twin is in the cephalic position; 2nd may be breech but this is ok)

  • Second breech baby can be turned using Internal Pedalic Version (IPV)
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12
Q

Describe the foetal complications of multiple pregnancies

A

IUGR:
(and discordant IUGR: when one baby is SGA and the other normal or LGA)

  • Monitored with EFW discordance (not SFH)
  • Difference in size >20% is an indicator of IUGR

Intra-uterine death (IUD):

  • For dizygotic twins, the other twin will be fine
  • In monochorionic, this can be bad as the BP will drop in the surviving twins’ placenta > neurological damage in the surviving twin in 25%

Down Syndrome:
(greater absolute risk as same risk PER baby so increased TOTAL risk)

Also:

  • Structural Abnormalities (2x in monozygotic babies)
  • Twin-to-Twin Transfusion Syndrome (TTTS)
  • Malpresentation
  • Premature
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13
Q

What are the maternal complications of multiple pregnancies?

A
  • Pre-eclampsia (more risk of abnormal vasculature development)
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum (more bHCG)
  • GDM (more placental lactogen and placental steroids so more likely to tip into diabetes)
  • APH, PPH (stretched uterus)
  • Anaemia and thrombocytopaenia (more required to sustain the two children)
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14
Q

What is TTTS?

A

Results from an unbalanced blood supply through placental anastomoses in monochorionic twins

Donor twin = growth restriction, renal tubular dysgenesis, and oliguria

Recipient twin = visceromegaly and polyuria

Mother = sudden abdomen size increase, SOB

  • Start diagnostic monitoring with USS from 16-24 weeks on a 2-weekly basis
  • Delivered by 34-37 weeks
  • New treatment (<26w) = foetoscopic laser ablation of vascular anastomoses
  • New treatment (>26w) = delivery
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15
Q

What are RFs for high-risk pregnancies?

A
  • Any previous complicated pregnancies (biggest risk for another abnormal pregnancy)
  • Age <15yo or >35yo
  • Pre-pregnancy weight under 45kg or obese
  • Height under 5 ft (1.5m)
  • Incompetent cervix
  • Uterine malformations
  • Small pelvis
  • Being single, smoker, alcohol, illicit drugs
  • No access to early prenatal care
  • Low socioeconomic status
  • Hx of recurrent miscarriages
  • Hypothyroid / Hyperthyroid
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16
Q

What is the management of high-risk pregnancies?

A
  1. Continued surveillance for high risk patients – more frequent scans
  2. Offer high dose folate 5mg – also given to…
  • Previous child with NTD
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Woman on an anti-epileptic
  • Obesity
  • HIV positive taking co-trimoxazole
  • Sickle cell disease
  1. Offer low dose aspirin (75mg, OD) as prophylaxis for pre-eclampsia
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17
Q

Define obesity in pregnancy

A

Obesity = BMI >30kg/m2

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18
Q

What is the aetiology of obesity in pregnancy?

A

Pre-existing obesity – poor diet, lack of exercise
Fluid retention – polyhydramnios, heart, kidney, liver failure

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19
Q

What are the S/S of obesity in pregnancy?

A

Obesity

+Associated conditions may be present:

  • GDM
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Infections
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20
Q

What are the investigations for obesity in pregnancy?

A
  • BMI monitoring
  • Bloods – FBC, LFT, UE, cholesterol, OGTT
  • USS – liquor volume, foetal growth scans
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21
Q

What is the management of obesity in pregnancy?

A

Conservative:

  • More exercise, better diet, vitamin D supplementation

Labour planning:

  • Assess risk of giving birth via vaginal delivery and whether there needs to be induction/CS

Post-natal follow up:

  • T2DM testing
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22
Q

What are the complications of obesity in pregnancy?

A
  • GDM
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Infections
  • Overdue pregnancy, labour difficulties, CS or miscarriage

Prognosis – almost 1/3 maternal deaths are in obese mothers

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23
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Decreased volume of amniotic fluid, <5th centile, deepest pool <2cm

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24
Q

What are the causes of oligohydramnios?

A

Reduced input fluid:

  • Placental insufficiency
  • Pre-eclampsia

Reduced output fluid:

  • Structural pathology (renal agenesis, atresia of ureter / urethra)
  • Medications (ACEi, NSAIDs)

Lost fluid:

  • Amniotic rupture
25
What are the S/S of oligohydramnios?
Commonly asymptomatic - History of fluid leak PV, rupture of membranes - Abdominal exam – decreased fundal height, foetal parts easily palpable - Speculum – assess for membrane rupture if appropriate
26
What are the investigations for oligohydramnios?
- Speculum - assess for membrane rupture - USS – liquor volume, foetal anomalies - CTG– foetal wellbeing
27
What is the management of oligohydramnios?
*Planned birth in an obstetric unit is recommended* **Pre-Term:** - Expectant management - Ongoing antepartum surveillance - Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring during labour - Delivery if further abnormalities arise **Term:** - Delivery is often the most appropriate management
28
What are the complications of olighydramnios?
**Labour:** - Increased incidence of CTG abnormalities - Meconium liquor - Emergency CS **Neonate:** can cause POTTER SEQUENCE - Pulmonary hypoplasia - Twisted faces - Twisted skin - Extremity deformities - Renal agenesis Prognosis – increased perinatal mortality rates with early onset oligohydramnios
29
What is polyhydramnios?
Increased volume of amniotic fluid, above 95th centile, or deepest pool greater than 8 cm.
30
What are the causes of polyhydramnios?
**Failure of foetal swallowing:** - Neurological / chromosomal abnormalities - GIT (duodenal atresia, oesophageal atresia, TOF) **Foetal polyuria:** - Maternal diabetes - TTTS **Also:** - Congenital infections
31
What are the S/S of polyhydramnios?
- Symptoms of underlying cause - Abdomen – increased fundal height, impalpable foetal parts, tense abdo
32
What are the investigations for polyhydramnios?
- USS - liquor volume, foetal growth - Umbilical artery dopplers - exclude foetal anomalies - Other – exclude maternal diabetes
33
What is the management of polyhydramnios?
- Antenatal monitoring of foetus, ensure diabetes control, paediatrician present at delivery - Amnioreduction (if gross polyhydramnios / discomfort) - COX inhibitors to decrease foetal urine output
34
What are the complications of polyhydramnios?
- PTL - Malpresentation - Placental abruption - Cord prolapse - PPH - Increased risk CS Prognosis – increased perinatal morbidity and mortality, related to PTL/congenital
35
Define a low-lying placenta
Placental edge is <2cm from internal os on TVUSS
36
What is placenta praevia?
Placenta lies over the internal os (diagnosed at ≥32 weeks)
37
What are the types of placenta praevia?
*Classical grading:* - **I** = placenta does not cover internal cervical os but is low lying - **II** = placenta reaches internal os but doesn't cover it (lower edge reaching internal os) - **III** = placenta covers the internal os before dilation but not when dilated / lower edge partially covering the internal os - **IV ('major')** = placenta completely covers the internal os
38
What are the RFs for placenta praevia?
- Multiple pregnancy - Increased maternal age - Previous uterine surgery (i.e. CS) - Previous praevia history - Smoking - IVF (6x increased risk)
39
What are the S/S of placenta praevia?
- **Painless bright red PV bleeding in 2nd or 3rd trimester** - Can have small bleeds before large - Potential signs of shock (shock in proportion to visible loss) - Uterus not tender - Lie and presentation may be abnormal - Fetal heart usually normal - Coagulation problems rare
40
What are the investigations for placenta praevia?
*Digital vaginal examination should not be performed before an USS as it may provoke a severe haemorrhage (speculum ok to assess bleeding)* - **1st line diagnosis: TVUSS** - Bloods – FBC, clotting studies, G&S, U&E, LFT - If mother RhD -ve: Kleihauer test (check level of foetal blood in maternal circulation) +/- administer anti-D - CTG *Placenta praevia often picked up on routine 20w abdominal USS*
41
What is the management of placenta praevia?
**1. Picked up on 20w anomaly scan:** - Only 10% go on to have a low-lying placenta later in pregnancy - Rescan at 32 weeks **2. USS at 32 weeks:** - Still present and grade I/II: Rescan at 36 weeks - Still present and grade III/IV: Admit at 34 weeks with CS at 37 weeks **3. USS at 36 weeks:** - Grade I = vaginal delivery - Grade III/IV = CS **Also:** - Antenatal corticosteroids from 34-36 weeks (can be earlier if at risk of PTL) - Tocolysis (facilitate antenatal corticosteroids) - General advice: NOT to have sex if low-lying placenta or placenta praevia **If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour prior to the elective C section, an emergency C section should be performed due to the risk of PPH**
42
What is the management of placenta praevia with bleeding?
- Admit and ABC approach (IV access and fluids) - Bloods: FBC, G&S, consider crossmatch, Kleihauer test - Anti-D if Rh-D -ve and Kleihauer test - Admit at least until bleeding has stopped (and keep them in for 48 hours to observe) - If not able to stabilise = emergency C section - If in labour or term reached = emergency C section **Scans:** - CTG (if >27 weeks) - Umbilical artery dopplers (every 2 weeks) - Growth scan
43
What are the complications of placenta praevia?
**Maternal:** - Haemorrhage – antepartum and postpartum - DIC - Hysterectomy - Maternal mortality is 1 in 300 **Foetal:** - IUGR - Death
44
What is vasa praevia?
**Foetal blood vessels connecting the umbilical cord to the placenta travel across the internal cervical os and below the foetal presenting part, unprotected by placental tissue or umbilical cord** > When baby descends, they can rupture the vessels
45
What are the 2 types of vasa praevia?
**Type 1 VP** = vessels connect a velamentous umbilical cord to the placenta (single or bilobed placenta) **Type 2 VP** = vessels connect the lobes of the placenta (single or bilobed) to 1 or more succenturiate lobes (accessory lobes)
46
What is Benckaiser’s haemorrhage?
The haemorrhage of blood when the vessels are ruptured
47
What are the RFs for vasa praevia?
- Foetal anomaly (bilobed placenta or succenturiate lobes) - History of low-lying placenta in 2nd trimester - Multiple pregnancies - IVF
48
What are the S/S of vasa praevia?
**Typical picture = ROM > fresh PV bleeding + foetal bradycardia** - After the membranes rupture, the veins alone can’t hold the weight of the baby > bleeding - Foetal HR abnormalities – decelerations, bradycardia, sinusoidal trace, foetal demise - O/E > you can palpate the vessels in the membranes, amnioscope can directly visualise this
49
What are the investigations for vasa praevia?
Can be clinical based on sx - Usually diagnosed via TVUSS with Doppler - VE - may be able to detect pulsating foetal vessels inside internal os - Kleihauer test (measures amount of foetal Hb in a mother’s bloodstream) - Haemoglobin electrophoresis – identify if foetal or maternal blood (takes a long time) - Doppler USS
50
What is the management of vasa praevia?
**C-section** >Rapid delivery + aggressive resuscitation including use of blood transfusion if required are essential
51
What are the complications of vasa praevia?
**Foetal mortality if presenting with haemorrhage is 60% but if identified antenatally its 3%** - No major maternal risk - Foetus: Loss of relatively small amounts of blood can have major implications for the foetus
52
What is placental abruption?
Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery (>24 weeks; if <24w, miscarriage) Haemorrhage may be concealed (20%) or revealed (80%)
53
What are the RFs for placental abruption?
- Previous placental abruption - HTN - Previous APH - PPROM - Abdominal trauma - Smoking, cocaine - Polyhydramnios - Idiopathic *Although most cases occur in low-risk pregnancies*
54
What are the S/S of placental abruption?
**Constant abdominal pain ± PV bleeding (if revealed – 80%), SUSTAINED contractions** *On examination:* - General – shock out of keeping with visible loss - Abdomen – hypertonic “woody” tender uterus - Speculum – assess bleeding - Vaginal exam (NOT in praevia) – cervical dilatation - Normal lie and presentation - Fetal heart: absent/distressed - Coagulation problems - Beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria
55
What is a key difference between placenta praevia and placental abruption?
Praevia = bleed, no pain Abruption = bleed, pain
56
What are the investigations for placental abruption?
- Basic obs - Abdominal exam - Bloods – FBC, clotting, U&E, crossmatch - CTG for baby - TVUSS – exclude praevia – abruption unlikely to be present unless very large, may show retroplacental collection of blood If unsure if praevia, DO NOT BIMANUAL
57
What is the management of placental abruption?
**Mild:** - If preterm and stable: conservative management with close monitoring > IOL at term - Admit for at least 48 hours or until bleeding stops - Anti-D Ig followed by Kleihauer test - Foetus alive and >36 weeks without distress = vaginal delivery **Severe:** - ABC > 2x wide bore cannulae, fluids, blood transfusions, correct coagulopathies - Foetus alive and >36 weeks and distress = Emergency CS - Corticosteroids for foetal lung development (between 24-34+6w) - Consider IOL if foetal compromise - Foetus dead = induce vaginal delivery
58
What are the complications of placental abruption?
**Maternal:** - Haemorrhage (APH, PPH) - DIC - Renal failure - “Couvelaire uterus” (extravasation of blood into myometrium and beneath the peritoneum > very hard uterus) - Sheehan syndrome **Foetal:** - Birth asphyxia - Death
59
What antenatal Down Syndrome screening is offered?
**Combined test is now standard:** - Should be done between 11 - 13+6 weeks - High HCG, low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A), thickened nuchal translucency **Quadruple test:** - If women book later in pregnancy the quadruple test should be offered between 15 - 20 weeks - Low Alpha-fetoprotein, low unconjugated oestriol, high HCG and high inhibin A