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Micro (clinicals) > Obligate Intracellular Bacteria > Flashcards

Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

C. trachomatis host range

A

Humans

except for 1 biovar that causes mouse pneumonitis

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2
Q

C. trachomatis EB morphology

A

round

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3
Q

C. trachomatis Inclusion morphology

A

round, vacuolar

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4
Q

C. trachomatis Glycogen containing inclusions?

A

Yes

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5
Q

C. trachomatis Plasmid DNA?

A

yes

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6
Q

C. trachomatis susceptibility to sulfa meds?

A

yes

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7
Q

C. psittaci host range

A

birds, lower mammals, rarely humans

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8
Q

C. psittaci EB morphology

A

round

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9
Q

C. psittaci inclusion morphology

A

variable, dense

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10
Q

C. psittaci glycogen containing inclusions?

A

no

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11
Q

C. psittaci plasmid DNA?

A

yes

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12
Q

C. psittaci susceptibility to sulfa meds?

A

no

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13
Q

C. pneumoniae host range

A

humans

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14
Q

C. pneumoniae EB morph

A

pear-shaped

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15
Q

C. pneumoniae inclusion morph

A

round, dense

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16
Q

C. pneumoniae glycogen-containing inclusions?

A

no

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17
Q

C. pneumoniae plasmid DNA?

A

no

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18
Q

C. pneumoniae susceptibility to sulfa meds?

A

no

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19
Q

Infectious stage of Chlamydia

A

Elementary body

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20
Q

Metabolically active form of chlamydia

A

Reticulate body

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21
Q

Removal of ___ or increase of ___ will cause differentiation of chlamydia into _______

A

IF-gamma
Tryptophan
active EB infection

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22
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis associated with ___ and ___ ___ in women

A

infertility

ectopic pregnancy

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23
Q

Most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen in US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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24
Q

Ways chlamydia trachomatis survive

A
  • can turn on/off apoptosis in infected host cells to facilitate transmission
  • Inhibit cell death to sustain survival in chronic infections
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25
Q

Clinical syndrome of C. trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, C

A

Endemic trachoma (multiple or persistent infections that ultimately lead to blindness)

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26
Q

C. trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, C routes of transmission

A

Hand to eye from fomites, flies

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27
Q

C. trachomatis serovar L1, L2, L2a, L3 clinical syndrome

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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28
Q

C. trachomatis serovar L1, L2, L2a, L3 route of transmission

A

sexual

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29
Q

C. trachomatis serovars D-K Clinical symdrome

A

Urethritis, cervicitis, PID, epididymitis, infant pneumonia, conjunctivitis (does not lead to blindness)

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30
Q

C. trachomatis serovars D-K routes of transmission

A

Sexual, hand to eye by autoinoculation of genital secretions

eye to eye by infected secretions

neonatal

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31
Q

C. trachomatis is hyperendemic to these 5 places and has a high rate in ____ ____

A

Africa, Asia, Central America, South America, Middle East

Preschool children

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32
Q

Trachoma is chronic inflammation of the ____

A

conjunctiva

Major cause of preventable blindness

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33
Q

Trachoma acquired by…

A

Contact with secretions on towels, finger, or by flies

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34
Q

Symptoms of trachoma

A

mild irritation, itchy eyes, may also be discharge from infected eye

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35
Q

Trachoma progresses ___ with increases in these symptoms

A

slowly

eye pain, blurred vision, photophobia

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36
Q

Repeated trachoma infections result in….

A

scarring of the inner eyelid

May eventually turn eyelid inward (entropion)

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37
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is transmitted ____ and is more common in these 3 places

A

sexually

Africa, Asia, South America

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38
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is characterized by…

A

a brief appearance of a primary genital lesion at the initial infection site

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39
Q

The second stage of Lymphogranuloma venereum is ____ ____ and causes….

A

acute lymphadenitis

inguinal lymph nodes to become enlarged and matted together

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40
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum can progress to a third stage, mostly in ___, causing….

A

women

rectal fistulas, genital hyperplasia, rectal stricture, draining sinuses

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41
Q

Oculogenital infections are caused by _____

A

C. trachomatis

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42
Q

Oculogenital infection is defined as…

A

acute inclusion conjunctivitis in adults and newborns

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43
Q

Oculogenital infections are transmitted by…

A

contaminated genital secretions getting into eyes via fingers or during passage of the neonate through the birth canal

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44
Q

Oculogenital infection autoinfection occurs ___

A

rarely

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45
Q

Symptoms of Oculogenital infections are…

A 
swollen eyes
purulent discharge
(does not cause blindness)
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46
Q

Oculogenital infections also cause these conditions:

A

urethritis, cervicitis, bartholinitis, proctitis, salpingitis, epididymitis, acute urethral syndrome

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47
Q

Oculogenital infections are a major cause of ____ and contribute to rising rates of ____ and ___ ___

A

PID
infertility
ectopic pregnancies

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48
Q

Infants born to women infected with C. trachomatis may develop ___ or ___

A

inclusion conjunctivitis

pneumonia

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49
Q

____ is preferred anatomic site for screening women for C. trachomatis

A

Endocervix

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50
Q

Urethral C. trachomatis samples should not be collected until…

A

2 hours after the patient has voided

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51
Q

screening for c. trachomatis in homosexual men may include testing ___ or ____ specimens

A

rectal

pharyngeal

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52
Q

can urine be tested for c. trachomatis?

A

Yes- it’s what we do at aspirus

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53
Q

Mccoy, Hela, and monkey kidney cells are used to culture ____

A

C. trachomatis

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54
Q

how C. trachomatis culture is analyzed for growth

A

After 48-72 hours incubation, monolayers are stained with fluorescein-labeled monoclonal Ab and observed microscopically

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55
Q

This is how most C. trachomatis genital infections are detected:

A

Nucleic acid amplification

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56
Q

3 methods of C. trachomatis Nucleic acid amplification:

A

PCR
SDA (Strand displacement amp.)
TMA (Transcription-mediated amp.)

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57
Q

C. trachomatis PCR and SDA amplify…..

A

cryptic plasmid in chlamydial EB

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58
Q

C. trachomatis TMA amplifies…

A

23s RNA sequence

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59
Q

Why are C. trachomatis serological tests of limited use?

A

Most adults with chlamydial infection have had prior exposure- will be positive regardless

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60
Q

Direct detection methods for C. trachomatis

A

Cytologic exam (cell scrapings from conjunctiva, PAP smear)

Antigen detection (used conjugated monoclonal Abs to detect EB in smears)

Nucleic acid hybridization

61
Q

Common drugs to treat C. trachomatis

A

Erythromycin (and other macrolides)
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones

62
Q

Ways to differentiate C. trachomatis from C. psittaci

A

C. psittaci is sulfa resistant

Morphology of EB and inclusion bodies differ

63
Q

C. psittaci is pathogen of …..

A

all bird species

64
Q

Reservoir for C. psittaci is…

A

Psittacine birds (parrots and parakeets)

65
Q

C. psittaci incubation period

A

5-15 days

66
Q

C. psittaci onset

A

insidious or abrupt

67
Q

C. psittaci clinical findings

A

Diverse in symptoms and severity

headache, pneumonia, mental changes, hepatosplenomegaly

about 20% fatal

68
Q

Testing for C. psittaci

A

Serologic for safety

69
Q

C. psittaci drug of choice

A

tetracycline

70
Q

C. psittaci prevention

A

treat infected birds or quarantine imported birds for a month

71
Q

C. pneumoniae transmission

A

aerosolized droplets from respiratory tract

72
Q

C. pneumoniae spectrum of disease

A

Associated with pneumonia, bronchitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis, flu-like illness
(5-10% of community-acquired pneumonia)

73
Q

C. pneumoniae direct detection methods

A

NAAT to detect nucleic acid sequences in throat swabs, nasopharyngeal, BAL fluids, sputum

74
Q

C. pneumoniae Cultivation specimen and detection method

A

swab of oropharynx

species-specific monoclonal Abs to detect in cell culture

75
Q

Main test for C. pneumoniae serodiagnosis

A

Microimmunofluorescence using C. pneumoniae EB as antigen

76
Q

Criteria for serodiagnosis of C. pneumoniae

A

4-fold rise in IgM or IgG

A single IgM titer of 16+ or IgG of 512+ is suggestive of recent infection

77
Q

DOC for C. pneumoniae

A

Tetracycline, doxy, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, erythromycin

78
Q

Prevention of C. pneumoniae

A

avoid aerosolized droplets from infected people

79
Q

Rickettsia, Orentia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia are fastidious bacteria that multiply only ____ and appear as small _____ ____ ____ bacilli

A

intracellularly

pleomorphic gram negative

80
Q

Rickettsia, Orentia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia transmission

A

insect vector or inhaling aerosols

81
Q

3 groups of Rickettsia

A

Spotted fever
typhus
scrub typhus

82
Q

Rickettsia is suspected when the triad of ___, ___, and ____ are the primary clinical manifestation in patients with _______

A

fever, headache, rash

exposure to an insect vector

83
Q

What is HGA?

A

Human granulocytic anaplasmosis

A. phagocytophylum infects bone marrow cells, mainy PMNs

84
Q

What is HME?

A

Human monocytic ehrlichiosis

E. chaffeensis infects monocytes

85
Q

Ehrlichia infections present with…

A

nonspecific symptoms like fever, headache, myalgia
rarely rash
asymptomatic to severe

86
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever spread through…

A

bite of infected tick

87
Q

Signs, symptoms, progression of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

fever, headache, rash

Can rapidly progress to severe and life-threatening illness

88
Q

Rash is ____ in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and usually occurs ___ ___ after fever

A

common

2-4 days

89
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Drug of choice

A

Doxy

90
Q

Murine Typhus is also known as:

A

Endemic Typhus

Flea-borne typhus

91
Q

Transmission of Murine Typhus

A

contact with infected fleas

92
Q

Main animal host for fleas causing Murine Typhus

A

Rats

93
Q

Geographic region of Murine Typhus

A

Tropical and subtropical

94
Q

Symptoms of Murine Typhus

A

body aches/muscle pain, fever, chills, loss of appetite, N/V, stomach pain, cough, rash

95
Q

Murine Typhus DOC

A

Doxy

96
Q

Endemic Typhus is AKA

A

Louse borne typhus

97
Q

Transmission of Endemic Typhus

A

Contact with infected body lice

98
Q

symptoms of Endemic Typhus

A

fever, chills, muscle aches, rash, cough, N/V, confusion

99
Q

Brill-Zinsser disease

A

relapse of Endemic Typhus due to weak immune system

100
Q

Endemic Typhus DOC

A

Doxy

101
Q

Scrub Typhus AKA

A

Bush Typhus

102
Q

Transmission of Scrub Typhus

A

bites of infected chiggers

103
Q

symptoms of Scrub Typhus

A

Usually begin within 10 days of being bitten

fever, chills, headache, body aches, eschar, mental changes, rash, enlarged lymph nodes

104
Q

People with severe Scrub Typhus may develop…

A

organ failure and bleeding

105
Q

DOC for Scrub Typhus

A

Doxy

106
Q

HME transmission

A

bite of infected Lone Star Tick

107
Q

HME symptoms

A

muscle aches, fever, headache, fatigue within 1-2 weeks of bite

Rash, nausea, confusion, red eyes possible

Serious illness can become fatal if not treated correctly

108
Q

HME DOC

A

Doxy

109
Q

HGA transmission

A

Ixodes scapularis and I. pacificus

mainly nymphal and adult ticks

110
Q

Symptoms of HGA

A

fever, headache, body aches, chills within 1 to 2 weeks of bite

111
Q

HGA Tx

A

Doxy

112
Q

Sennetsu fever vector

A

undetermined

113
Q

Sennetsu fever symtoms

A

sudden high fever, headache, muscle aches within a few weeks of initial infection

114
Q

Preferred specimen for Spotted fever group

A

biopsy of skin tissue from rash

115
Q

Ways to directly detect Anaplasma/Ehrlichia

A

Peripheral blood or CSF sample
PCR
Giemsa or Wright stain (thick and thin smears)

116
Q

Rickettsiae can be cultured in ______ and in ______

A

embryonated eggs

tissue culture

117
Q

Rickettsiae specimen for culture

A

blood or punch biopsy

118
Q

Main tool for diagnosing ehrlichiosis and rickettsia

A

serodiagnosis

EIA, IFA, Western Blot

119
Q

Ways to diagnose Rocky mountain spotted fever

A

IFA and DFA

except latex agglutination

120
Q

DOC for rickettsia, anaplasma and ehrlichia

A

Tetracyclines, especially doxy

121
Q

Cause of Mediterranean and Israeli spotted fevers

A

R. conorii

122
Q

Cause of Indian and Kenya tick typhys

A

R. conorii

123
Q

Vector for R. conorii

A

ticks

124
Q

Distribution of R. conorii

A

Southeastern Europe, Middle East, Africa

125
Q

Cause of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A

R. rickettsii

126
Q

Vector for R. rickettsii

A

Dermacentor spp. tick

127
Q

Distribution of R. rickettsii

A

North and south america

128
Q

Cause of Endemic typhus

A

R. prowazekii

129
Q

Vector for Endemic typhus

A

lice

130
Q

distribution of R. prowazekii

A

worldwide

131
Q

Cause of Brill-Zinsser disease

A

R. prowazekii (recrudescent disease)

132
Q

Cause of Murine typhus

A

R. typhi

133
Q

Vector for Murine typhus

A

fleas

134
Q

distribution of R. typhii

A

worldwide

135
Q

Cause of scrub typhus

A

O. tsutsugamushi

136
Q

vector for scrub typhus

A

chiggers

137
Q

distribution of O. tsutsugamushi

A

worldwide

138
Q

Cause of HME

A

E. chaffeensis

139
Q

vector for HME

A

Amblyomma americanum- Lone Star Tick

140
Q

Distribution of E. chaffeensis

A

Southeast, South Central and mid-Atlantic US

141
Q

E. ewingii vector

A

Amblyomma americanum- Lone Star Tick

142
Q

Distribution of E. ewingii

A

US (Overlapping with E. chaffeensis)

143
Q

Cause of HGA

A

Anaplasma

144
Q

vector for Anaplasma

A

Ixodes spp. ticks

145
Q

distribution of Anaplasma

A

US and Europe

146
Q

Cause of Sennetsu fever

A

Neorickettsia sennetsu

147
Q

vector for Sennetsu fever

A

ticks

148
Q

distribution of Neorickettsia sennetsu

A

Southease Asia (Japan)

Micro (clinicals) (2 decks)

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