Catalast-Positive GPCs (chapter 14) Flashcards

1
Q

Catalase pos GPCs (4 genera)

A

Staphylococci
Micrococci
Rothia (formerly Stomatococcus)
Planococcus

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2
Q

Catalase neg GPCs (6 genera)

A
Streptococci
Aerococci
Enterococci
Leuconostoc
Pediococcus
Gemella
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3
Q

catalase reaction

A

3% H2O2 –> O2 + H2O

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4
Q

Other catalase pos organisms

A

Liseteria
Diphtheroids
(blood causes false pos)

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5
Q

Coagulase positive gpc

A

Staph aureus

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6
Q

coagulase neg GPC

A

Coag-neg staph (S. lugdunensis, S. intermedius, S. hyicus, S. schleiferi)
Micrococcus
Rothia
Planococcus

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7
Q

tests for bound coagulase (clotting factor)

A

slide method

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8
Q

tests for free coagulase

A

tube method

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9
Q

What organism causes a positive reaction in both positive and negative coagulase wells?

A

Staph saprophyticus

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10
Q

What substrate is used in coagulase test?

A

Rabbit serum

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11
Q

How does coagulase test work?

A

Protein A reacts with antibody-coated latex beads and causes clumping

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12
Q

Positive reaction for:
Tube coagulase =
Slide coagulase =

A

tube: Clot in tube in less than 4 hours (may look neg after 4 hours due to fibrinolysin)
slide: clumps within 10 seconds

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13
Q

Staph Aureus virulence factors (9)

A
coagulase
Alpha toxin
enterotoxins
capsular antigen
penicillinase (beta-lactamase)
TSST 1
hyaluronidase
Exfoliatin
protein A
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14
Q

Coagulase (SA virulence factor)

A

enhances evasion & survival, coats PMNs with fibrin, protects bac from phagocytosis. Bound and free forms.

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15
Q

alpha toxin (SA virulence factor)

A

disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessels.
Toxic to RBCs, WBCs, plts & hepatocytes.
Demonecrotic action- breaks down cell membrane

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16
Q

Thanks to alpha toxin, SA infections are often ____ and ____

A

inflammatory, necrotic

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17
Q

Enterotoxins (SA virulence factor)

A

resistant to hydrolysis by gastric and intestinal enzymes. Often found in milk products. Associated with psuedomembranous colitis & TSS. Gastroenteritis, food poisoning.

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18
Q

capsular antigen (SA virulence factor)

A

inhibits phagocytosis, creates biofilm.

Extreme cause of virulence. Allows bacteria to cling to inorganic surfaces & avoid effects of Abx.

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19
Q

Penicillinase (SA virulence factor)

A

(beta-lactamase) Destroys beta-lactams by hydrolysis before drug can bind to PBPs in cell membrane

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20
Q

TSST 1 (SA virulence factor)

A

(pyrogenic exotoxin C)

superantigen- makes t cells produce cytokines that cause major systemic events.

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21
Q

most common TSST

A

Enterotoxin F; causes fever, low BP, loss of skin

22
Q

in TSS & SSS, infection _______, but toxins ________

A

localized, throughout body

23
Q

Hyaluronidase (SA virulence factor)

A

enhances evasion & survival in tissues. Aids in spread of infection

24
Q

Exfoliatin (SA virulence factor)

A

Exotoxin, causes SSS. Serine protease.

Caused extensive sloughing of skin, usually in infants. Burn-like effects with large, watery blisters.

25
Q

Protein A (SA virulence factor)

A

anti-phagocytic surface protein, bound to cytoplasmic membrane.
High affinity for IgG & complement. Provides a mechanism for bac to bind to immune molecules, decreasing clearance from infection site.

26
Q

Staph epi and saprophyticus are differentiated by:

A

Novobiocin

27
Q

staph epi is Novobiocin _____

28
Q

Staph saprophyticus is novobiocin _______

A

reisistant

29
Q

3 things that help differentiate Micrococcus from staphylococcus

A

Microdase
Lysostaphin
Bacitracin

30
Q

Micrococcus is lysostaphin _______

31
Q

Micrococcus is bacitracin _______

32
Q

staph is bacitracin _________

A

reisistant

33
Q

virulence factors of Staph epi

A
biofilm production (exopolysaccharide)
mecA gene/Abx resistance
34
Q

Micrococcus environmental requirement

A

strict aerobe

35
Q

Modified oxidase test

A

Use on bright yellow colonies (micrococcus suspected)
Colonies should be 18 to 24 hours old
Tests for cytochrome C production, blue color reaction within 2 minutes.

36
Q

Micrococcus treatment

A

no guidelines exist, usually susceptible to beta-lactams

37
Q

Bacitracin test

A

0.5 McFarland suspension plated to BAP, topped with 0.04-U Bacitracin disk. Incubate for 24 hours.
Zone of 10 or more = susceptible, think micrococcus.
Staph typically resistant- no zone of inhibition

38
Q

D test

A

0.5 MF suspension, Mueller Hinton plate
Used to see if clinda can be reported as susceptible (negative D test)
Erythromycin & Clinda disks placed 15 mm apart (12 mm for strep) and incubated overnight.
positive test = clinda resistant

39
Q

MRSA MIC results

A

Methicillin >8
Oxacillin >4
(resistance to oxacillin indicates resistance to methicillin, all beta-lactams, clindamycins, gentamycin, cephalosporin)

40
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar

A

Selective for some Staph
7.5% Nacl
Mannitol & phenol red (pH indicator)
*Fermentation of mannitol turns agar yellow

41
Q

MRSA chromagar

A

Positive = denim blue color change after 24 hour incubation

42
Q

PBP2a test

A

Rapid immunochromatographic qualitative assay for detection of PBP2a
Used on direct SA isolates to detect MRSA (if pt not previously identified as having MRSA)

43
Q

Limitation/consideration of PBP2a test

A

Only test on SA isolates, other staph species could be positive

44
Q

HA-MRSA often:

A

multi-drug resistant, including oxacillin

45
Q

CA-MRSA infections

A

Skin infections, boils

46
Q

CA-MRSA sensitive to

A

non-penicillins (previously)
SXT, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vanco, linezolid or daptomycin
**more sensitive to non-betalactams than HA strains

47
Q

Daptomycin

A

IV only, not for respiratory infections- inhibited by lung surfactancts

48
Q

Vanco susceptibilities on vitek

A
susceptible =  2 or less
intermediate = 4-8
resistant = 16 or higher
49
Q

VRSA mechanism

A

plasmid-mediated transfer of vanA gene confers vanco resistance

50
Q

VISA mechanism

A

unusually thickened cell wall, increased drug bound on wall from dipeptides, drug doesn’t affect cell as much.

51
Q

VISA/VRSA treatment

A

Daptomycin or Linezolid

52
Q

Linezolid

A

IV or oral Abx, can use for respiratory infections