Catalast-Positive GPCs (chapter 14) Flashcards

1
Q

Catalase pos GPCs (4 genera)

A

Staphylococci
Micrococci
Rothia (formerly Stomatococcus)
Planococcus

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2
Q

Catalase neg GPCs (6 genera)

A
Streptococci
Aerococci
Enterococci
Leuconostoc
Pediococcus
Gemella
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3
Q

catalase reaction

A

3% H2O2 –> O2 + H2O

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4
Q

Other catalase pos organisms

A

Liseteria
Diphtheroids
(blood causes false pos)

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5
Q

Coagulase positive gpc

A

Staph aureus

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6
Q

coagulase neg GPC

A

Coag-neg staph (S. lugdunensis, S. intermedius, S. hyicus, S. schleiferi)
Micrococcus
Rothia
Planococcus

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7
Q

tests for bound coagulase (clotting factor)

A

slide method

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8
Q

tests for free coagulase

A

tube method

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9
Q

What organism causes a positive reaction in both positive and negative coagulase wells?

A

Staph saprophyticus

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10
Q

What substrate is used in coagulase test?

A

Rabbit serum

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11
Q

How does coagulase test work?

A

Protein A reacts with antibody-coated latex beads and causes clumping

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12
Q

Positive reaction for:
Tube coagulase =
Slide coagulase =

A

tube: Clot in tube in less than 4 hours (may look neg after 4 hours due to fibrinolysin)
slide: clumps within 10 seconds

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13
Q

Staph Aureus virulence factors (9)

A
coagulase
Alpha toxin
enterotoxins
capsular antigen
penicillinase (beta-lactamase)
TSST 1
hyaluronidase
Exfoliatin
protein A
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14
Q

Coagulase (SA virulence factor)

A

enhances evasion & survival, coats PMNs with fibrin, protects bac from phagocytosis. Bound and free forms.

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15
Q

alpha toxin (SA virulence factor)

A

disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessels.
Toxic to RBCs, WBCs, plts & hepatocytes.
Demonecrotic action- breaks down cell membrane

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16
Q

Thanks to alpha toxin, SA infections are often ____ and ____

A

inflammatory, necrotic

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17
Q

Enterotoxins (SA virulence factor)

A

resistant to hydrolysis by gastric and intestinal enzymes. Often found in milk products. Associated with psuedomembranous colitis & TSS. Gastroenteritis, food poisoning.

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18
Q

capsular antigen (SA virulence factor)

A

inhibits phagocytosis, creates biofilm.

Extreme cause of virulence. Allows bacteria to cling to inorganic surfaces & avoid effects of Abx.

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19
Q

Penicillinase (SA virulence factor)

A

(beta-lactamase) Destroys beta-lactams by hydrolysis before drug can bind to PBPs in cell membrane

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20
Q

TSST 1 (SA virulence factor)

A

(pyrogenic exotoxin C)

superantigen- makes t cells produce cytokines that cause major systemic events.

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21
Q

most common TSST

A

Enterotoxin F; causes fever, low BP, loss of skin

22
Q

in TSS & SSS, infection _______, but toxins ________

A

localized, throughout body

23
Q

Hyaluronidase (SA virulence factor)

A

enhances evasion & survival in tissues. Aids in spread of infection

24
Q

Exfoliatin (SA virulence factor)

A

Exotoxin, causes SSS. Serine protease.

Caused extensive sloughing of skin, usually in infants. Burn-like effects with large, watery blisters.

25
Protein A (SA virulence factor)
anti-phagocytic surface protein, bound to cytoplasmic membrane. High affinity for IgG & complement. Provides a mechanism for bac to bind to immune molecules, decreasing clearance from infection site.
26
Staph epi and saprophyticus are differentiated by:
Novobiocin
27
staph epi is Novobiocin _____
sensitive
28
Staph saprophyticus is novobiocin _______
reisistant
29
3 things that help differentiate Micrococcus from staphylococcus
Microdase Lysostaphin Bacitracin
30
Micrococcus is lysostaphin _______
resistant
31
Micrococcus is bacitracin _______
sensitive
32
staph is bacitracin _________
reisistant
33
virulence factors of Staph epi
``` biofilm production (exopolysaccharide) mecA gene/Abx resistance ```
34
Micrococcus environmental requirement
strict aerobe
35
Modified oxidase test
Use on bright yellow colonies (micrococcus suspected) Colonies should be 18 to 24 hours old Tests for cytochrome C production, blue color reaction within 2 minutes.
36
Micrococcus treatment
no guidelines exist, usually susceptible to beta-lactams
37
Bacitracin test
0.5 McFarland suspension plated to BAP, topped with 0.04-U Bacitracin disk. Incubate for 24 hours. Zone of 10 or more = susceptible, think micrococcus. Staph typically resistant- no zone of inhibition
38
D test
0.5 MF suspension, Mueller Hinton plate Used to see if clinda can be reported as susceptible (negative D test) Erythromycin & Clinda disks placed 15 mm apart (12 mm for strep) and incubated overnight. positive test = clinda resistant
39
MRSA MIC results
Methicillin >8 Oxacillin >4 (resistance to oxacillin indicates resistance to methicillin, all beta-lactams, clindamycins, gentamycin, cephalosporin)
40
Mannitol Salt Agar
Selective for some Staph 7.5% Nacl Mannitol & phenol red (pH indicator) *Fermentation of mannitol turns agar yellow
41
MRSA chromagar
Positive = denim blue color change after 24 hour incubation
42
PBP2a test
Rapid immunochromatographic qualitative assay for detection of PBP2a Used on direct SA isolates to detect MRSA (if pt not previously identified as having MRSA)
43
Limitation/consideration of PBP2a test
Only test on SA isolates, other staph species could be positive
44
HA-MRSA often:
multi-drug resistant, including oxacillin
45
CA-MRSA infections
Skin infections, boils
46
CA-MRSA sensitive to
non-penicillins (previously) SXT, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vanco, linezolid or daptomycin **more sensitive to non-betalactams than HA strains
47
Daptomycin
IV only, not for respiratory infections- inhibited by lung surfactancts
48
Vanco susceptibilities on vitek
``` susceptible = 2 or less intermediate = 4-8 resistant = 16 or higher ```
49
VRSA mechanism
plasmid-mediated transfer of vanA gene confers vanco resistance
50
VISA mechanism
unusually thickened cell wall, increased drug bound on wall from dipeptides, drug doesn't affect cell as much.
51
VISA/VRSA treatment
Daptomycin or Linezolid
52
Linezolid
IV or oral Abx, can use for respiratory infections