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OBHR 4354 Flashcards

1
Q

Stories that not only describe change but also provide an explanation of results of change initiatives are called

A

process narratives

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2
Q

Which of the following features of the literatures on change management makes it difficult to access and absorb

1) All the literature on change share the same perspective.
2) Recent work has made previous commentary irrelevant.
3) The literature on change lacks variety in terms of methodologies.
4) The concepts that are used range in scale.

A

4

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3
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of organizational change?
a. It is a completely irrational process.
b. From a management perspective, it is easy to implement.
c. From a management perspective, it is seen as problematic.
d. It is a process that lacks creativity.

A

From a management perspective, it is seen as problematic.

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4
Q

Which of the following is most likely an advantage of adopting a multiple perspectives approach to the management of organizational change?

a. It results in the easy access to the change literature.
b. It encourages the search for creative solutions.
c. It overcomes the issue of fragmented advice.
d. It provides solutions that are agreed upon by all the experts.

A

It encourages the search for creative solutions.

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5
Q

In depth of change what is off the scale?

A

Disruptive Innovation

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6
Q

In depth of change what is not on the scale?

A

Shallow Change

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7
Q

Not on the Scale

A

“Sweat the small stuff”, “grease the wheels, fix the minor problems

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8
Q

In the context of assessing the depth of change, which of the following is an example of change that is categorized as “off the scale”?

A

dramatically redrawing organization and sector boundaries

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9
Q

What of the following is true about change in organization according to Kotter

A

Organizations need more change leadership

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10
Q

Palmer and Dumford the first dimension of change is the extent to which change is ___ or ___

A

intended or unintended.

This dimension is concerned with the purposefulness or accidental nature of the change process.

It asks the question: Is the change planned or is it happening accidentally or unpredictably?

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11
Q

Chaos Theory

A

nonlinear organizational change, fundamental rather than incremental, doesn’t necessarily entail growth

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12
Q

Confucian/Taoist Theory

A

constant ebb and flow, based on maintaining equilibrium, journey oriented, normal rather than exceptional

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13
Q

Which of the following theories does NOT reinforce the caretaker image of managers of change?

A. Life-cycle theory
B. Population ecology theory
C. Chaos theory
D. Institutional theory

A

chaos theory

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14
Q

According to the life-cycle theory, maturity is the final stage of the natural development cycle of an organization. T/F

A

FALSE

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15
Q

_____ views organizations passing through well-defined stages from birth to growth, maturity, and then decline or death.

A. Life-cycle theory
B. Population ecology theory
C. Chaos theory
D. Institutional theory

A

A. Life-cycle theory

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16
Q

outcomes can be achieved as planned, relentless

A

Intended outcome..

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17
Q

some, but not all, planned change outcomes are achievable. intended outcomes may be altered along the way

A

partially intended outcomes..

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18
Q

common theme in mainstream organization theory, outcomes are often a result of chance rather than planned

A

unintended outcomes..

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19
Q

According to life-cycle theory, the second stage of the natural developmental cycle of an organization is _____.

A. birth
B. growth
C. maturity
D. death

A

Growth

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20
Q

_____ focuses on how the environment selects organizations for survival or extinction, drawing on biology and neo-Darwinism.

A. Life-cycle theory
B. Population ecology theory
C. Chaos theory
D. Institutional theory

A

B. Population ecology theory

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21
Q

_____ argues that change managers take broadly similar decisions and actions across whole populations of organizations.

A. Life-cycle theory
B. Population ecology theory
C. Chaos theory
D. Institutional theory

A

institutional Theory

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22
Q

According to DiMaggio and Powell, which of the following is NOT one of the pressures associated with the similarities in the actions of organizations that result from the interconnectedness of organizations that operate in the same sector or environment?

A. Coercive pressure
B. Mimetic pressure
C. Normative pressure
D. Ethical pressure

A

Ethical pressure

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23
Q

According to Kanter, which of the following is an advantage that “new broom” top executives have over their predecessors?
A. They create energy for change within an organization.
B. They strictly adhere to past organizational practices.
C. They focus on an organization’s “dogs” rather than its unresolved “cash cows.”
D. They tackle customer problems with credibility because of their associations with previous problems.

A

C. They focus on an organization’s “dogs” rather than its unresolved “cash cows.”

24
Q

Which of the following is true about organizational politics and power struggles?

A: Board level power struggles are usually documented in detail
B: They typically occur in upper management circles
C: They can often generate positive benefits
D: More often than not, they result in loss of profitability

A

B: They typically occur in upper management circles

25
Q

The changes that organizations made after the terrorist attacks on New York on September 11, 2001 and the outbreak of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) were a response to _____.

A. fashion
B. hypercompetition
C. demographics
D. geopolitics

A

geopolitics

26
Q

According to Brian Toft and Simon Reynolds, which of the following statements is true of passive learning?

A. It refers to implementing changes.
B. It refers to identifying lessons.
C. It is overlooked in many organizations.
D. It is viewed as difficult to achieve in many organizations.

A

it refers to identifying lessons

27
Q

Which of the following is a feature of change with a progressive and developmental agenda?

Reiteration of existing practices
Prevention of mistakes
analysis of failure
process redesign

A

process redesign

28
Q

According to Warner Burke, which of the following is a way in which organizational models can be useful?

Multiple Choice

A: By reducing the manageability of a complex situation
B: By helping to prioritize the issues that need most attention
C: By providing specific languages for different stakeholder groups to discuss organizational properties
D: By minimizing the interconnectedness of various organizational properties

A

By helping to prioritize the issues that need most attention

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of Weisbord’s six-box organizational model?

A. Purposes
B. Structure
C. Rewards
D. Bureaucracy

A

Bureaucracy

30
Q

According to Weisbord’s six-box organizational model, the question “Do all tasks have incentives?” is associated with _____.

A. rewards
B. helpful mechanisms
C. relationships
D. leadership

A

A. rewards

31
Q

According to Weisbord’s six-box organizational model, the question “Have we adequate coordinating technologies?” is associated with _____.

A. structure
B. rewards
C. helpful mechanisms
D. leadership

A

helpful mechanisims

32
Q

Which of the following is based upon the proposition that organizational effectiveness is influenced by many factors, and that successful change depends on the relationships between those factors?

A. The six-box organizational model
B. The 7-S framework
C. The star framework
D. The four-frame model

A

The 7-S framework

33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor identified in the 7-S framework?

A. Strategy
B. Support
C. Systems
D. Style

A

Support

34
Q

According to the 7-S framework, _____ refers to the formal organization design.

A. structure
B. strategy
C. staff
D. style

A

structure

35
Q

According to the 7-S framework, _____ refer to an organization’s vision.

A. systems
B. skills
C. strategies
D. superordinate goals

A

superordinate goals

36
Q

According to the 7-S framework, _____ refers to patterns of management actions, how managers spend their time, what they pay attention to, the signals that they send about priorities, and attitude to change.

A. strategy
B. support
C. staff
D. style

A

style

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the star model?

A. Strategy
B. Structure
C. Reward systems
D. Technology practice

A

Technology practices

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of Bolman and Deal’s four-frame model?

A. The structural frame
B. The economical frame
C. The political frame
D. The symbolic frame

A

The economical frame

39
Q

According to the four-frame model, the _____ frame concerns how power and conflict are dealt with, and how coalitions are formed.

A. structural
B. human resource
C. political
D. symbolic

A

political

40
Q

According to the four-frame model, the _____ frame relates to how an organization builds a culture that gives purpose and meaning to work and builds team cohesion.

A. structural
B. human resource
C. political
D. symbolic

A

symbolic

41
Q

PESTLE

A

Political, Economical, social, Technology, legal, and environmental

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the questions asked when performing GAAP analysis?

A. Where are we now?
B. How did we get here?
C. Where do we want to get to?
D. What do we need to do in order to get there?

A

How did we get here?

43
Q

According to the cultural web, which of the following concerns the most influential management groups in an organization?

A. Organizational structures
B. Power structures
C. Control systems
D. Symbols

A

power structures

44
Q

Which of the following change diagnostics was developed by Kurt Lewin and involves identifying the forces that are respectively driving and restraining movement toward a given set of outcomes, called the “target situation”?

A. Gap analysis
B. 7-S analysis
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Force-field analysis

A

Force-field analysis

45
Q
  1. A hospital system is implementing an electronic health record. The facility conducts education and training for nursing staff, medical staff, and ancillary staff over a period of 6 months. This is an example of:

a. emergent change.
b. planned change.
c. transformation.
d. innovation.

A

Planned change

46
Q
  1. A small critical care unit forms a team of nurses to implement bedside rounds at shift change. The nurses have researched the efficacy of bedside rounds and have determined that this evidence-based practice will lead to improved communication of patient status. Which type of change does this demonstrate?

a. Transforming care at the bedside
b. Second-order change
c. Emergent change
d. Organizational change

A

Transforming

47
Q

An automobile company reducing the assembly time for its cars by reducing the cars’ parts is an example of ___ ___

A

operational innovation

48
Q

Disruptive innovations are introduced more often by large, dominant incumbents rather than by smaller new entrants. T/F

A

F

49
Q

Which of the following statements is true about disruptive innovations?
a. They imply shallow incremental change.
b. They primarily improve existing products and services.
c. They introduce wholly new processes and services.
d. They always involve chaos and upheaval

A

c. They introduce wholly new processes and services.

50
Q

locally oriented and engaged in limited social interaction - adopt innovations only with reluctance

A

Laggard

51
Q

venturesome risk takers - capable of absorbing the financial and social costs of adopting an unsuccessful product - younger, better educated, more socially mobile

A

innovators

52
Q

skeptical about new innovations, adopt more in response to social pressures or decreased availability of the previous product

A

late adopter

53
Q

According to Malnight et al., ______ plays two strategic roles for an organization - redefines the playing field and reshapes it’s value proposition

A

purpose

54
Q

According to Holpp and Kelly, the _____ approach to developing vision is most externally focused

A

Benchmarking

55
Q

one of the characteristics of effective visions that Kotter advocated in 2012 was _______, which means that the vision must appeal to stakeholder interests

A

desirability

56
Q

One of the characteristics of effective organization visions that Kotter says that it must embody realistic and attainable goals

A

feasibility

57
Q

In the context of vision crafting the sell approach is when the chief executive is aware of the ___ ___ and need to ___ the ___ in a way that is ___ and ___

A

potential risks, communicate the vision, clear and compelling.

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