OB Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and finds the fundus slightly boggy and displaced to the right. Based on these findings, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A

Assist the client to the bathroom to void

Rationale: A full bladder causes the uterus to be displaced and above the umbilicus and off to one side. This prevents the uterus from contracting normally and increases the risk of hemorrhage.

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2
Q

What medications are often given for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Methylergonovine
Oxytocin
Misoprostol
Carboprost Tromethamine

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3
Q

Before administering methylergonovine (Methergine), the nurse checks the**
a. color of the lochia.
b. blood pressure.
c. location of the fundus.
d. last administration of analgesics.

A

ANS: B
Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) elevates the blood pressure and should not be given to a woman who is hypertensive. The color of the lochia, location of the fundus, and analgesics are not related to the administration of or contraindicated to this medication.

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4
Q

Which fetal position may cause the laboring patient increased back discomfort?
a. Left occiput anterior
b. Left occiput posterior
c. Right occiput anterior
d. Right occiput transverse

A

ANS: B
Rationale: In the left occiput posterior position, each contraction pushes the fetal head against the mother’s sacrum, which results in intense back discomfort. Back labor is seen mostly when the fetus is in the posterior position.

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5
Q

A client in the early postpartum period is talkative and enjoys recounting the details of her labor and birth. The nurse recognizes that the behaviors must likely indicate which of the following?

Select one:
a. The taking-hold phase of maternal psychosocial adaptation.
b. Postpartum role transition.
c. The taking-in phase of maternal postpartum adjustment.
d. Positive mother-infant bonding.

A

Answer: C. The taking-in phase begins immediately following birth and lasts a few hours to a couple of days. It is characterized by the mother being excited and talkative, reliving her birthing experience, and focusing on her own needs and the overall health of her newborn.

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6
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurses priority?

a. Reinforce the need to take antipsychotics as prescribed
b. Ask the client if they have had thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
c. Monitor the infant for indications of failure to thrive
d. Review the clients medical record for a history of bipolar disorder

A

ANS: B

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7
Q

Which situation would require the administration of Rho(D) immune globulin?

a. Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
b. Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative
c. Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive
d. Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative

A

ANS: A
Rationale: An Rh-negative mother delivering an Rh-positive baby may develop antibodies to fetal cells that entered her bloodstream when the placenta separated. The Rho(D) immune globulin works to destroy the fetal cells in the maternal circulation before sensitization occurs. When the blood types are alike as with mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative, no antibody formation would be anticipated. If the Rh-positive blood of the mother comes in contact with the Rh-negative blood of the infant, no antibodies would develop because the antigens are in the mother’s blood, not the infant’s.

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8
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who is postpartum and has a new prescription for an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
A. It destroys Rh antibodies in newborns who are Rh positive.
B. It destroys Rh antibodies in mothers who are Rh negative.
C. It prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in mothers who are Rh negative.
D. It prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in newborns who are Rh positive.

A

It prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in mothers who are Rh negative.

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin prevents the immune system of a client who is Rh negative from reacting to accidental exposure to fetal blood during pregnancy or delivery. If the client has another Rh positive fetus in the future, these antibodies can destroy the blood cells of the fetus. Rho (D) immunoglobulin is administered routinely to Rh negative mothers at 28 weeks of gestation and following any pregnancy outcome (including birth or any planned or unintentional fetal loss).

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9
Q

A 29-year-old gravida 3 para 3, was admitted to the recovery unit 2 hours after the birth of a 9-lb baby girl. The nurse assesses the client an hour later and finds her fundus, which is slightly boggy, three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus and displaced to the right. The peripad, which was changed before the client’s transfer, is now saturated. The nurse recognizes:
1
A distended bladder
2
A probable perineal infection
3
Uncontrolled postpartum pain
4
A typical finding in the immediate postpartum period

A

-A distended bladder
Urine retention resulting in a distended bladder will lift and displace the uterus, making it difficult to remain contracted. These findings would not be caused by uncontrolled postpartum pain. It is too early after the delivery for signs of a perineal infection to be noted. The loss of uterine tone (atony) leads to an increase in bleeding.

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10
Q

A patient who underwent a vaginal delivery 3 hours earlier reports having severe perineal pain. Which would be the first step taken by the nurse in this situation

A

Apply ice packs in the perineum

if the patient reports severe perineal pain after vaginal delivery, the nurse should apply ice packs in the first 24 hours to reduce edema, pain, and vulvar irritation. Administering fluids and blood compensates for blood loss in the patient, but they do not reduce pain. Postpartum hematologic studies are performed to assess the consequences of blood loss. This intervention does not reduce pain in the patient.

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11
Q

What are some physical assessment findings you would see any patient with premature ruptured membranes?

A

-temperature elevation
-increased maternal heart rate for fetal heart rate
-foul smelling fluid of a vaginal discharge
-abdominal tenderness
-assessed for prolapsed umbilical cord
* abrupt fetal heart rate variable or prolong deceleration
* visible or palpable court introitus

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12
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is 7 days postpartum and calls the clinic to report pain and redness of her left calf. Besides seeing her provider, which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?
Flex her knee while resting.
Massage the area.
Elevate her leg.
Apply cold compresse

A

elevate her leg

Rationale: The client should elevate her leg to encourage venous return and to relieve pain

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13
Q

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth. The client has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

A.
Place 3 to 4 pillows under the client’s knees when resting in bed.

B.
Massage the client’s posterior lower legs.

C.
Have the client ambulate.

D.
Apply warm, moist heat to the client’s lower extremities.

A

Have the client ambulate

Rationale: Venous stasis is a major cause of thrombophlebitis. To prevent clot formation, have the client ambulate as soon as she can after delivery and as often as possible.

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14
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a vaginal birth 12 hr ago. The nurse recognizes the client is in the dependent, taking in phase of maternal postpartum adjustment. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during this phase?

A. Expression of excitement
B. Lack of appetite
C. Focus on the family unit and its members
D. Eagerness to learn newborn care skills

A

Expressions of excitement

Rationale: Expressing excitement and being talkative are characteristic of this phase.

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15
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and received methylergonovine (methergine). Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

A.
Report of absent breast pain

B.
Increase in lochia

C.
Increase in blood pressure

D.
Fundus firm to palpation

A

Fundus firm to palpation

Rationale: Methylergonovine is an oxytocic medication that is administered to promote uterine contractions. This medication is indicated for treatment of postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony or subinvolution; the desired effect is an increase in uterine tone.

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16
Q

To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the patient who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
a. Monitor her urinary output.
b. Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hour.
c. Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
d. Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.

A

ANS: D
Rationale: Maintaining contraction of the uterus is important for controlling bleeding from the placental site. Maintaining proper fluid balance will not control hemorrhage. Monitoring urine output is an important assessment, but hemorrhage will first be noted vaginally. Assessing the abdominal dressing is an important assessment to prevent future hemorrhaging from occurring but is not the first priority assessment in the recovery room.

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17
Q

What medication should the nurse anticipate giving to a client in preterm labor to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs?

  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. Terbutaline
  3. Methotrexate
  4. Betamethasone
A
  1. Correct: Betamethasone is used to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs in case preterm birth occurs. This medication is given to help prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) by improving storage and secretion of surfactant that helps to keep the alveoli from collapsing.
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18
Q

Which is the priority nursing assessment for the patient undergoing tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
a. Intake and output
b. Maternal blood glucose level
c. Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
d. Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure

A

ANS: D
Rationale: All assessments are important; however, those most relevant to tocolytic therapy include the fetal heart rate and maternal pulse, which tend to increase, and the maternal blood pressure, which tends to exhibit a wide pulse pressure. Intake and output and glucose are not important assessments to monitor for side effects of terbutaline. Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid are important if the membranes have ruptured; however, these are not relevant to the medication.

19
Q

Emergency measures used in the treatment of a prolapsed cord include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Administration of oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 L/minute
b. Maternal change of position to knee-chest
c. Administration of tocolytic agent
d. Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin)
e. Vaginal elevation
f. Insertion of cord back into vaginal area

A

ANS: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Prolapsed cord is a medical emergency. Oxygen should be administered to the mother to increase perfusion from mother to fetus. The maternal position change to knee-chest or Trendelenburg to offset pressure on the presenting cord should be done. A tocolytic drug such as terbutaline inhibits contractions, increasing placental blood flow and reducing intermittent pressure of the fetus against the pelvis and cord. Vaginal elevation should be done to offset pressure on the presenting cord. Pitocin and manipulation of the cord by reinsertion are contraindicated.

20
Q

The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug? a. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRS) b. Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations с. Assessing for bradycardia d. Assessing for hypoglycemia

A

ANS: B Terbutaline is a b2-adrenergic agonist that affects the cardiopulmonary and metabolic systems of the mother. Signs of cardiopulmonary decompensation would include chest pain and palpitations. Assessing DTRS would not address these concerns. b2-Adrenergic agonist drugs cause tachycardia, not bradycardia. The metabolic effect leads to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

21
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Fetal heart rate 100//min
Weakened uterine contractions
Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
Maternal blood glucose 63mg//dL

A

Weakened uterine contractions

21
Q

What are the 4 T’s if postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Tissue, Tone, Traumatic Delivery, Thrombin

22
Q

The nurse is assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum. The woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area. The nurse notes a local area on one breast to be red and warm to touch. What should the nurse consider as the potential diagnosis?

breast yeast
mastitis
plugged milk duct
engorgement

A

Mastitis

  • Mastitis usually occurs 2 to 3 weeks after birth and is noted to be unilateral. Mastitis needs to be assessed and treated with antibiotic therapy.
23
Q

Subinvolution of Uterus ati:

A

findings:
enlarged or higher than normal uterus relative to umbilicus
boggy uterus
prolonged lochia discharge w/ irregular bleeding

medications:
give methergine, antibiotics

monitor:
Fundus, lochia , cultures, VS, pain levels

therapeutic procedure:
D&C

24
Q

Which factor should alert the nurse to the potential for a prolapsed umbilical cord?
a. Oligohydramnios
b. Pregnancy at 38 weeks of gestation
c. Presenting part at a station of –3
d. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

A

ANS: C
Rationale: Because the fetal presenting part is positioned high in the pelvis and is not well applied to the cervix, a prolapsed cord could occur if the membranes rupture. Hydramnios puts the patient at high risk for a prolapsed umbilical cord. A very small fetus, normally preterm, puts the patient at risk for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid shows that the fetus already has been compromised but does not increase the chance of a prolapsed cord.

25
Q

A nurse is providing teaching about terbutaline to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following statement by client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitation”
B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision”
C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears”
D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent …”

A

“The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitation”

26
Q

A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:
A. a sleepy, sedated affect.
B. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
C. deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
D. absent ankle clonus.

A

B
(a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
Because magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant, the client will most likely become sedated when the infusion is initiated. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory depression (bradypnea) from magnesium toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are a normal finding. Absent ankle clonus is a normal finding.)

27
Q

Breast feeding newborn loses weight

A

indiciation of dehydration

28
Q

What is the reflex for breastfeeding?

A

Rooting

29
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum who asks the nurse when her breast milk will “come in”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. within 2 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 6-8 days
D. in about 10 days

A

B. 3-5 days

30
Q

A nurse is teaching about nutrition guidelines to a parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) I should start a solid foods when my baby is three months old.
B) I should introduce cows milk on my baby is nine months old.
C) I should wait to give fruit juice until my baby is six months of age.
D) I should wait to begin fluoride supplements until my babies four months of age.

A

C) I should wait to give fruit juice until my baby is six months of age.

31
Q

During the first formula feeding, a client has difficulty getting her neonate to take the artificial nipple into his mouth. To resolve this problem, the nurse should suggest that the mother:

  1. tilt the bottle so that the nipple fills with formula.
  2. stroke the neonate’s lips gently with the nipple.
  3. use a nipple with the largest possible openings.
  4. push only the tip of the nipple into the neonate’s mouth.
A
  1. stroke the neonate’s lips gently with the nipple
32
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
a. burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
b. hold the newborn close in a supine position
c. keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeling
refrigerate any unused formula

A

C.
-to prevent the newborn from sucking in air during the feeding

33
Q

UTI expected findings

A

Reports of urgency, frequency, dysuria, and discomfort in the pelvic area
Fever
Chills
Malaise

34
Q

Labor change

A

cervical change, cramping pain, vaginal discharge

35
Q

A nurse is caring for a breastfeeding client who reports engorgement. The nurse identifies that the client’s condition is due to not fully emptying her breasts at each feeding. Which suggestion should the nurse make to help her prevent engorgement?

Feed the baby at least every two or three hours.

Apply cold compresses to the breasts.

Provide the infant oral nystatin.

Dry the nipples following feedings.

A

Feed the baby at least every two or three hours.

The nurse should suggest the client feed the baby every two or three hours to help her reduce and prevent further engorgement. Application of cold compresses to the breasts is suggested to reduce engorgement for nonbreastfeeding clients. If the mother has developed a candidal infection on the nipples, the treatment involves application of an antifungal cream to the nipples following feedings and providing the infant with oral nystatin. The nurse can suggest drying the nipples following feedings if the client experiences nipple pain.

36
Q

The nurse should expect medical intervention for subinvolution to include
a. oral fluids to 3000 mL/day.
b. intravenous fluid and blood replacement.
c. oxytocin intravenous infusion for 8 hours.
d. oral methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) for 48 hours.

A

ANS: D
Rationale: Methergine provides sustained contraction of the uterus. There is no correlation between dehydration and subinvolution. There is no indication that excessive blood loss has occurred. Oxytocin provides intermittent contractions.

37
Q

When performing a fundal assessment on a client, 2 hours following an uncomplicated vaginal delivery, the postpartum nurse notes a boggy uterus. What is the priority nursing action for this client?
Massage the fundus with the palm of the hand
Place an indwelling catheter.
Notify the physician or midwife.
Give oxytocin as per the physician’s orders.

A

1.
Massage the fundus with the palm of the hand

38
Q

A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The client is placed on a fetal monitor indicating a regular fetal heart rate of 138/min and no uterine contractions. The client’s vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4 degrees celsius (97.6 degrees Fahrenheit). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
B. Initiate IV access.
C. Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery.
D. Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas

A

B. Initiate IV access.

38
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for induction of labor and notes a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern on the fetal monitor. On the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action first?

a. Stop the oxytocin infusion. b. Check the client’s blood pressure. c. Check the client for bladder distension. d. Place the client in a knee-chest position

A
  1. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
39
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postpartum, is breastfeeding, and reports nipple soreness. Which of the following measures should the nurse suggest to reduce discomfort during breastfeeding? SATA

A. Apply breast milk to the nipples before each feeding

B. Place breast pads inside the nursing bra

C. Massage the breasts and nipples prior to feeding.

D. Start breastfeeding with the nipple that is less sore

E. Change the infant’s position on the nipples

A

A, D, E

40
Q

FHR is 130-150, but there is no fetal movement for 15 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

A. Immediately report the situation to the client’s provider and prepare the client for induction of labor
B. Encourage the client to walk around without the monitoring unit for 10 min, then resume monitoring
C. Offer the client a snack of orange juice and crackers
D. Turn the client on her left side

A

offer client snack of OJ and crackers

41
Q

A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 17-year-old female client who is requesting oral contraceptives. The client states the she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a) what part of the exam makes you most nervous?
b) don’t worry, I will be with you during the exam?
c) all you need to do is relax
d) a pelvic exa is required if you want birth control pill

A

a) what part of the exam makes you most nervous?

Rationale: This therapeutic response recognizes the client’s feelings. It also uses the therapeutic technique of clarification to encourage the client to tell the nurse more about her concerns.

42
Q

While a multiparous client is in active labor, her membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notes a loop of umbilical cord protruding from her vagina. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

A) Monitoring the fetal heart rate

B) Covering the cord with a saline dressing

C) Pushing the cord back into the vaginal vault

D) Holding the presenting part away from the cord

A

D) Holding the presenting part away from the cord

Holding the presenting part away from the cord must be done immediately to maintain cord circulation and prevent the fetus from becoming anoxic. The priority is maintaining cord circulation; although monitoring is important, it does not alter the emergency. Keeping the cord moist is secondary; keeping pressure off the cord is the priority. The cord should not be touched, because this increases pressure on the cord, further reducing oxygen flow to the fetus.