OB Final

Question 1

Anurseiscaringforapostpartumclientwhosaturatesaperinealpadin10minutes.Whichofthefollowingactionsshouldthenursetakefirst?

A.

Administeroxytocin.

B.

Observeforpoolingofbloodunderthebuttocks.

C.

Checktheclient’sbloodpressure.

D.

Massagetheclient’sfundus.

Answer 1

D.

Massagetheclient’sfundus.

Question 2

Anurseiscompletingdischargeteachingtoaclientinher35thweekofpregnancywhohasmildpreeclampsia.Whichofthefollowinginformationaboutnutritionshouldbeincludedintheteaching?

A.

Drink48to64ouncesofwaterdaily.

B.

Avoidsaltingfoodsduringcooking.

C.

Consume40to50gofproteindaily.

D.

Limitintakeofwholegrains,rawfruits,andvegetables.

Answer 2

A.

Drink48to64ouncesofwaterdaily.

Question 2

A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 21-year-old female patient who is requesting oral contraceptives. The patient states that she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “What part of the exam makes you most nervous?”
B. “Don’t worry, I will be with you during the exam.”
C. “All you need to do is relax.”
D. “A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills.”

Answer 2

A. “What part of the exam makes you most nervous?”

Question 3

As the nurse, you assess a patient that’s grand multiparity. Upon palpation of the fundus, you find it is shifted to the right. What are you thinking?

Answer 3

They have a full bladder. They need to urinate

Question 4

Anurseisadmittingaclientwhoisinactivelaborandhashadtwopriorcesareanbirths.Thenurseshouldidentifythattheclientisatanincreasedriskforwhichofthefollowingcomplications?

A.

Failuretoprogress

B.

Abruptioplacentae

C.

Precipitouslabor

D.

Uterinerupture

Answer 4

D.

Uterinerupture

Question 5

AnurseisreinforcingteachingwithaclientwhoispregnantandhasaprescriptionforRho(D)immuneglobulin.Whichofthefollowinginformationshouldthenurseinclude?

A.

ThismedicationdestroysRhantibodiesinanewbornwhoisRh-positive.

B.

ThismedicationdestroysRhantibodiesinawomanwhoisRh-negative.

C.

ThismedicationpreventstheformationofRhantibodiesbyawomanwhoisRh-negative.

D.

ThismedicationpreventstheformationofRHantibodiesinanewbornwhoisRh-positive.

Answer 5

C.

ThismedicationpreventstheformationofRhantibodiesbyawomanwhoisRh-negative.

Question 6

A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Prostaglandin suppository c. RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative d. Betamethasone

Answer 6

ANS:C

Question 7

A nurse is preparing a pregnant client for a Contraction Stress Test (CST). What is the purpose of inducing uterine contractions during the test? A. To assess fetal well-being. B. To monitor the FHR. C. To achieve at least three contractions lasting 40 to 60 seconds. D. To identify fetal hypoxia or distress.

Answer 7

A. To assess fetal well-being

Question 8

A nurse is counseling a client who has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) A. You should avoid sexual contact until therapy is complete. B. Notify anyone with whom you have had sexual contact over the past 2 months. C. You will need to take an antiviral medication for 30 days. D. Once you complete treatment, you will have an acquired immunity against chlamydia. E. You might experience painful urination until the infection has resolved.

Answer 8

A, B , E

Question 9

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth Select one: A. Bulging of the vulva B. The membranes rupture during a contraction C. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination D. Bloody mucus discharge increases

Answer 9

A. Bulging of the vulva (bulging of perineum also bloody show, crowning)

Question 10

A mother of a 3-hour-old infant requests information concerning breastfeeding. The mother has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).A nurse’s response should be based on which fact? A. The breast milk can be sterilized to kill the HIV virus, then bottle-fed to the infant. B. Colostrum should be expressed and analyzed for the presence of the HIV virus prior to breastfeeding. C. Breastfeeding may be initiated if the infant is determined to be HIV positive. D. Breastfeeding may be a mode of transmission of the HIV virus.

Answer 10

D. Breastfeeding may be a mode of transmission of the HIV virus.

Question 11

Which factor is most likely to result in fetal hypoxia during a dysfunctional labor? a. Incomplete uterine relaxation b. Maternal fatigue and exhaustion c. Maternal sedation with narcotics d. Administration of tocolytic drugs

Answer 11

ANS: A. Incomplete uterine relaxation (prolonged contractions on top can cause fetal hypoxia)

Question 12

NGN bow tie:The nurse is called into a room and sees a pad is saturated with a lot of lochia. What are you thinking is happening and what should you do?

Answer 12

Dx: Postpartum Hemorrhage Actions: palpate fundus, check bladder for distention (empty bladder), give medications (methergin, carbaprost, misoprostol, TSA) monitor; check bp and vitals, monitor for bleeding lochia amount

Question 13

Baby is jittery. What should you do?

Answer 13

• Check blood glucose - Check respirations Pregnant Patient’s fasting blood glucose should be 140 for glucose testing

Question 14

You are monitoring a baby and their temperature is 97 degrees Fahrenheit, what are we thinking?

Answer 14

• Cold stress (causes hypoglycemia, hypothermia, Respiratory distress) - Monitor blood sugars and for respiratory distress seen by nasal flaring or substernal retractions

Question 15

How often do we expect an infant to breastfeed in the first 24hours?

Answer 15

• Every 2-4hrs for at least 15-20mins - if a baby hasn’t fed in 6hrs there’s a big problem.

Question 16

NGN: A client comes into the clinic, what are some signs that they have Diabetes Mellitus?

Answer 16

monitor blood glucose - Assess hemoA1c, - perform NST, - Monitor FHR

Question 17

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The client has an IV infusion of lactated Ringer’s with 25 units of oxytocin and large lochia rubra. Vital signs include blood pressure 146/81, pulse 80/min, and respirations 18/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse clarify with the provider? A. Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 5 L/min. B. Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM now. C. Insert a urinary catheter. D. Increase the infusion rate of the IV fluid

Answer 17

B. Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM now.

Question 18

A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a patient who is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/minute, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin, B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. C. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution. D. Slow the client’s rate of breathing.

Answer 18

B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.

Question 19

A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor and has received epidural analgesia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize and document as an adverse effect of epidural analgesia? A. Hypotension. B. Polyuria. C. Fetal heart rate 152/min. D. Maternal temperature of 37.4° C (99.4° F).

Answer 19

A. Hypotension. (Extra: make sure they are hydrated)

Question 20

A woman who is gravida 3, para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments include

contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.

fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman’s nearness to birth.

last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

identification of ruptured membranes, the woman’s gravida and para, and access to

a support person.

Answer 20

fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman’s nearness to birth.

Question 21

When is the optimal time for AFP screen?

Answer 21

16-18 weeks gestation

Question 22

What do we give for immature fetal lungs?

Answer 22

Surfactant

Question 23

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the client’s umbilicus at midline. The nurse should suspect that the fetus is in which of the following positions? A. Frank breech B. Cephalic C. Posterior D. Transverse

Answer 23

A. Frank breech

Question 24

maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein tests for what?

Answer 24

spinal defects neural tube defects

Question 25

What are some cervical ripening drugs?

Answer 25

Misoprostol, Dinoprostone

Question 26

What is a contraction stress test for? What do we want to see?

Answer 26

To see how the baby is tolerating contractions, which can show us any uteroplacental insufficiency - We want to see a negative result

Question 27

When there is a bruise that crosses the suture line, it is called:

Answer 27

caput succedaneum

Question 28

The nurse is performing a newborn assessment and evaluates a collection of blood beneath the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture lines. The nurse documents this finding as A. Sinciput B. Occiput posterior C. Caput succedaneum D. Cephalohematoma

Answer 28

D. Cephalohematoma

Question 29

A nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo an amniotomy. Which of the following is the priority nursing action immediately following this procedure? A. Assess the client's temperature. B. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern. C. Record color and consistency of fluid in the chart. D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation.

Answer 29

B. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

Question 30

What does a early deceleration indicate?

Answer 30

head compression; it mirrors contractions. Good sign.

Question 31

What does a late deceleration indicate?

Answer 31

uteroplacental insufficiency; decelerates after contractions

Question 32

What does a variable deceleration indicate?

Answer 32

Cord compression

Question 33

There are late decelerations on the FHR. What should be priority intervention?

Answer 33

Answer: Reposition first. Second is oxygen

Question 34

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. Does the nurse recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for a placental abruption? A. Maternal hypertension. B. Maternal cocaine use. C. Maternal cigarette smoking. D. Maternal battering.

Answer 34

A. Maternal hypertension.

Question 35

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dinoprostone gel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. This medication promotes softening of the cervix. B. It causes relaxation of the uterine muscles. C. This medication is used to treat preeclampsia D. his used to treat genital herpes simplex virus

Answer 35

A. This medication promotes softening of the cervix.

Question 36

A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to identify as consistent with the diagnosis? A. Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age B. Unilateral, cramp-like abdominal pain C. Severe nausea and vomiting D. Large amount of vaginal bleeding

Answer 36

B. Unilateral, cramp-like abdominal pain

Question 37

A woman is 14 weeks pregnant with her first baby. She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. The best answer is:. A. "You should have felt the baby move by now.". B. "Within the next month or so, you should start to feel fluttering sensations.". C. "The baby is moving; however, you can't feel it yet.". D. "Some babies are quiet, and you don't feel them move.".

Answer 37

B. "Within the next month or so, you should start to feel fluttering sensations."

Question 38

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "This always happens by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy." B. "This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy." C. "This usually happens between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy" D. "This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis."

Answer 38

C. "This usually happens between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy"

Question 39

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and received methylergonovine (methergine). Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective? A. Report of absent breast pain B. Increase in lochia C. Increase in blood pressure D. Fundus firm to palpation

Answer 39

D. Fundus firm to palpation

Question 40

Your patient is receiving magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection and preterm labor at 1 gram/hour. The most concerning vital sign below is: A. Heart rate of 99 B. Respiratory rate of 9 C. BP of 99/69 D. Temperature of 99.9

Answer 40

B. Respiratory rate of 9

Question 41

A nurse is caring for a client who is a primigravida, at term, and having contractions but is stating that she is "not really sure if she is in labor or not.”. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a sign of true labor? A. Rupture of the membranes. B. Pattern of contractions. C. Changes in the cervix. D. Station of the presenting part.

Answer 41

C. Changes in the cervix.

Question 42

A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings? A. Excessive uterine enlargement. B. Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. C. Fetal heart rate irregularities. D. Whitish vaginal discharge.

Answer 42

A. Excessive uterine enlargement.

Question 43

At birth, what vaccines can be given to mom?

Answer 43

mmr, varicella

Question 44

A nurse is caring for a newborn. How many blood vessels should the nurse expect to observe in the newborn's umbilical cord? A. Two arteries and two veins. B. One artery and one vein. C. Two arteries and one vein. D. Two veins and one artery.

Answer 44

C. Two arteries and one vein.

Question 45

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy." B. "It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore." C. "There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client." D. "In most cases, it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone."

Answer 45

"It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy."

Question 46

Which measure would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a woman to reduce the risk of osteoporosis after menopause? A. taking vitamin supplements B. eating high-fiber, high-calorie foods C. restricting fluid to 1,000 mL daily D. participating in regular daily exercise

Answer 46

Answer: D Participating in regular daily exercise

Question 47

Normal newborn respiration rate

Answer 47

30-60

Question 48

A patient delivered via c section and spinal anesthesia. WHat is the number one VS to monitor for? 

Answer 48

Respirations

Question 49

What is the number one sign a patient has placenta previa? What should we avoid? 

Answer 49

Bright red , painless vaginal bleding Avoid: vaginal exams, nothing in vag

Question 50

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 24 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Fundus soft, 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus B. Fundus firm, 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus C. Fundus firm, 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus D. Fundus soft, to the right of the umbilicus

Answer 50

B. Fundus firm, 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus

Question 51

A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first? A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever. B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting. C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting. D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal bleeding.

Answer 51

A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal bleeding.

Question 52

A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hr postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. "It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood." B. "It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn." C. "It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood." D. "It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood."

Answer 52

C. "It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood."

Question 53

A home health care nurse is reinforcing teaching about breast engorgement with a client who is postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I won't wear a bra during the daytime.". B. "I'll apply cold compresses 20 min before each feeding.". C. "I'll feed my baby every 2 hours.". D. "I will stop breastfeeding until I am done with the antibiotics.".

Answer 53

C. "I'll feed my baby every 2 hours.".

Question 54

A nurse is providing teaching about comfort measures for breast engorgement to a client who is postpartum and is breastfeeding. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will apply ice packs to my breasts after feeding." B. "I should apply hot packs to my breasts during feeding." C. "I should crush cabbage leaves and place them on my breasts." D. "I will breastfeed every 2 hours."

Answer 54

B. "I should apply hot packs to my breasts during feeding."

Question 55

A patient is within 12hrs of delivery. Upon assessment we find that the fundus is at umbilicus and is firm, the episiotomy site looks goods, she’s saturating a pad every 30 mins, DTR is 4+. What should you treat first? 

Answer 55

DTR

Question 56

What is the number one thing to check for with preeclampsia? 

Answer 56

BLOOD PRESSURE

Question 57

A nurse is receiving report about assigned clients at the start of his shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to attend to first? A. A client who is scheduled for discharge in 2 hr following a laparoscopic tubal ligation. B. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports pain. C. A client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 138/90 mm Hg. D. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports no bleeding.

Answer 57

B. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports pain.

Question 58

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a male client about a semen analysis to be done for suspected infertility. Which of the following information should the nurse include? A. The specimen should be refrigerated after collection. B. You should abstain from ejaculation for at least 2 to 3 days prior to the test. C. The specimen should remain at room temperature for 3 to 4 hours prior to transport to the laboratory. D. You will collect the specimen using a condom with spermicide. Sure, I understand your instructions.

Answer 58

B. You should abstain from ejaculation for at least 2 to 3 days prior to the test.

Question 59

A nurse is planning care for a newborn who has spinal bifida. Which of the following actions should be included in the plan of care? A. Obtain rectal temperatures B. Cover the lesion with a dry dressing C. Apply snug clean diapers D. Place the newborn in the prone position .

Answer 59

D. Place the newborn in the prone position .

Question 60

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has pelvic inflammatory disease as a consequence of a STI and will need IV antibiotic therapy. The client tells the nurse, "My parents think I am a virgin. I don't think I can tell them I have this kind of an infection." Which of the following responses should the nurse make A. "if you want me to, I can tell your parents for you" B. "your parents will have to be told why you are being admitted." C. "give your parents a chance; they'll understand." D. "you seem scared to talk to your parents."

Answer 60

D. "you seem scared to talk to your parents."

Question 60

A nurse is assisting a client who is postpartum with her first breastfeeding experience. When the client asks how much of the nipple she should put into the baby's mouth, which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? A. "Babies know instinctively exactly how much of the nipple to take into their mouth." B. "Your baby's mouth is rather small so she will only take part of the nipple." C. "Try to place the nipple, the entire areola, and some breast tissue beyond the areola into her mouth." D. "You should place your nipple and some of the areola into her mouth."

Answer 60

"You should place your nipple and some of the areola into her mouth."

Question 61

A multipara with hydramnios is admitted in active labor. After 3 hours of labor, the patient's cervix is 7 cm dilated, and the amniotic membranes are intact. The fetal presenting part is at −3 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 to 5 minutes, and the cervix and fetal station have remained unchanged for 2 hours. The obstetrician asks the APRN to perform an AROM. Based on the patient's assessment data, for which condition is the patient at greatest risk? A. Prolapsed cord, because of the current cervical dilation B. Prolapsed cord, because of the current fetal station C. Infection, because of the duration of labor D. Cesarean delivery, because of multiparity Dilation less than 3 cm.

Answer 61

B. Prolapsed cord, because of the current fetal station

Question 62

NGN: Patient has preterm PROM. What should the nurse do?

Answer 62

temperature, Betamethasone, do daily nst to assess baby

Question 63

Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Biophysical profile b. Multiple-marker screening c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

Answer 63

b. Multiple-marker screening

Question 64

Triaging you have 4 patients which is priority to see first?

Answer 64

C section 4 hours ago and has excruciating pain

Question 65

Where is the best way to check baby’s temperature?

Answer 65

Axillary

Question 65

Education on PKU diet

Answer 65

Low protein diet

Question 66

Which medications interfere with oral contraception?

Answer 66

antibiotic anticonvulsants

Question 67

What is the rooting reflex

Answer 67

Touch cheek and baby moves toward finger

Question 68

GTPAL she is 28 weeks with 1 pregnancy term by elective abortion birth of twins and spontaneous abortion?

Answer 68

a. G:4 b. T:0 c. P:1 d. A:2 e. L:2

Question 69

We have a complicated delivery and wanna do a C-section and do an amniocentesis check fetal lung maturity?

Answer 69

LS ratio should be 2:1

Question 70

A nurse is leading a discussion regarding options for birth control. Which of the following methods is considered the most reliable? Coitus interruptus Breastfeeding Natural family planning Intrauterine device

Answer 70

Intrauterine device

Question 71

Which patient is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives? 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis. 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor. 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant. 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes.

Answer 71

43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes. ANS: D

Question 72

Put finger in corner of mouth; Put your finger against the breast to properly detach

Answer 72

Put finger in corner of mouth; Put your finger against the breast to properly detach

Question 73

Pt w/chlamydia, what medication do we give? What should you tell them?

Answer 73

Azithromycin - Partner needs to be checked

Question 74

You assess induction of labor and finding no cervical change in over 8 hours and contractions are spaced out what are we gonna do and what do we monitor for?

Answer 74

Give pitocin b. Monitor for frequency contractions, FHR, cervical change c. Dysfunctional labor or Labor dystocia is when there findings are not seen

Question 75

Pt has preeclampsia , you give

Answer 75

mag sulfate to prevent seizures, should not lying on their back

Question 76

NGN: they come and and suspected of having genital herpes. What is the drug of choice? What's expected and unexpected?

Answer 76

Acyclovir b. No fever c. Expected findings: open lesion on genitals, perineum, or rectum

Question 77

NGN Preterm labor vs UTI:

Answer 77

fever- uti vaginal discharge/bloody show - preterm labor pelvic pain - both cervical dilation - preterm vaginal exam for both

Question 78

A nurse is speaking with a 35-year-old client who has fibrocystic disease of the breasts. At which of the following times should the nurse inform the client that manifestations are most evident? a)Before menstruation begins b)After menstruation ends c)During cold weather d)During hot weather

Answer 78

a)Before menstruation begins

Question 79

If a female is going through early menopause what should they be expecting

Answer 79

a. Hot flashes, dysmenorrhea, mood swings, vaginal dryness with intercourse

Question 80

A nurse is teaching a client about condom use. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an understanding of the teaching? A. "I can use natural-skin condoms to prevent sexually transmitted infections." B. "I can use petroleum jelly as a lubricant with the condom." C. "I can re-use the condom one time after initial use." D. "I can store the condoms in the drawer of my nightstand."

Answer 80

D. "I can store the condoms in the drawer of my nightstand."

Question 81

A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis? A. Abdominal bloating starts several days before menses. B. An atypical Papanicolaou smear at her last clinic visit. C. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). D. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDS.

Answer 81

Choice D rationale: Dysmenorrhea (painful menstrual periods) that is unresponsive to NSAIDs is a common symptom of endometriosis.

Question 82

A nurse is providing education about the diaphragm to a patient. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm? A. History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) B. History of uterine fibroids C. History of irregular menstrual periods D. History of breast cancer

Answer 82

A. History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

Question 83

Taking vitals of patient and has high BP. feeling faint and dizzy. What should we do?

Answer 83

take them off their back and retake the blood pressure

Question 84

In preclampsia is facial edema normal?

Answer 84

no but dependent edema is

Question 85

Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple? a. Never conceived. b. Had repeated spontaneous abortions. c. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. d. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.

Answer 85

d. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.

Question 86

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control? a. Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Protection against STDs d. Decrease in dysmenorrhea

Answer 86

b. Ectopic pregnancy

Question 87

A newly married woman states, “My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don’t understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant.” The nurse’s most appropriate response is a. “Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive.” b. “Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation.” c. “Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea.” d. “Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus.”

Answer 87

d. “Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus.”

Question 88

NGN BOWTIE: You walk in and theres some hemorrhage and we think theres a possibility of subinvolution of the uterus. What are we going to do?

Answer 88

diagnosis: subinvolution of the uterus monitor: BP, fetal HR  signs its working: firm funduss and decrease bleeding

Question 89

What type of exercise is good during the whole pregnancy and for how long?

Answer 89

Light exercise for 30 minutes, don't run

Question 90

You have a pt who you are assessing for possible infection postpartum what are we going to look for?

Answer 90

Odor, temperature, dark discharge b. Endometritis: pelvic pain before fever

Question 91

For oral contraception, what type of pt must be careful when taking it:

Answer 91

smoker, advanced age

Question 92

A nurse is caring for a new mother who is concerned that her newborns eyes cross. Which of the following statements is a therapeutic response by the nurse? A. This occurs because newborns lack muscle control to regulate eye movements B. This is a concern, but strabismus is easily treated with patching C. I will take your baby to the nursery for further examination D. I will call your primary care provider to report your concerns

Answer 92

This occurs because newborns lack muscle control to regulate eye movements

Question 93

NST and period of 20 mins there's no accelerations and minimal variability what do we

Answer 93

non reactive

Question 94

get report and there's a whole bunch of pts in labor. what are we gonna be mindful for with a pt with preeclampsia?

Answer 94

Facial edema, vision changes, headache, and epigastric pain

Question 95

NGN: What are some reports for preeclampsia that we are assessing?

Answer 95

Visual disturbances, assess urine output, I&O, check their weight, blood pressure, edema, DTR

Question 96

What vaccine should not be given during pregnancy? 

Answer 96

rubella

Question 97

Findings for an NST and how should be placed?

Answer 97

Reactive: 2 accelerations in 20 minutes strip or 15 beats above baseline for 15 sec mom should be: - in semi-fowler, not supine/laying on back

Question 98

NGN: The pt is delivering, only head delivered, dx,  What should we do? After birth?

Answer 98

Dx - shoulder dystocia. What should we do? McRoberts Maneuver, Suprapubic pressure. After birth watch for:  clavicle, shoulder injury.

Question 99

NGN Baby is born myelomeningocele, nursing actions:

Answer 99

we will: keep baby prone & protect w a wet non adheringdressing. Assess: head circumference bc if they are leaking spinal fluid head will shrink

Question 100

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 12 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Answer 100

ANS: Fundus firm, at the level of the umbilicus. This indicates that the uterus is involuting (returning to its pre-pregnancy size and shape) and that there is no excessive bleeding. The nurse should expect ...

Question 101

A nurse is teaching a client about family planning using the basal body temperature method.Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Take your temperature within 30 minutes after your first morning void." B. "Take your temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed." C. "Take your temperature every night before going to bed." D. "Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed." .

Answer 101

D. "Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed." .

Question 102

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving terbutaline for pre-term labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential adverse effect of the medication? A. Tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypokalemia

Answer 102

Tachycardia

Question 103

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to monitor uterine contractions. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Answer 103

assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs