Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hi-Yield for PLE > Ob-Gyne Pathology > Flashcards

Ob-Gyne Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Puerperium is defined as _________

A

4-6 weeks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Episiotomies will heal when?

A

1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the puerperial period, blood volume returns to normal when?

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the puerperial period, CO returns when?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obstetrical neuropathies?

A

Footdrop from lumbosacral root compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve injury is caused by

A

Stirrups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is shedding of decidua superficialis?

A

Lochia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most common cause of mastitis

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Puerperial infection manifested by persistence of fever more than 72 hours despite IV antimicrobials

A

Parametrial phlegmon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Time period of postpartum blues

A

Occurs within 10 days

Resolves 3 days after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Return of menses returns for non-lactating?

A

7-8weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Postpartum checkup?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Undergo papsmear postpartum what period?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MINIMUM criteria of preeclampsia

A

> 140/90mmHg after 20 weeks

Proteinurua >300mg/24 hours or >+1 dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Severe preeclampsia is defined as ________

A

160/110mmHg

>2gm/24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Basic Pathology of preeclampsia

A

Vasospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Passage of meconium is a sign of _______ due to stimulation of posterior pitiitary gland which produce ADH thereby increases GI motility

A

Fetal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal leve of MgSO4

A

4-7 meq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mg 10meq/L will manifest as

A

Disappearance of patellar reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mg 12meq/L will manifest as ________

A

Respiratory paralysis and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antidote for MgSO4 toxicity

A

Calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is the BP of postpartum mother returns back to normal?

A

< 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is chronic hypertension with superimposed severe preeclampsia?

A

New onset proteinuria >= 300mg/24 hours in hypertensive women but no proteinuria before 20 weeks’ AOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

BP equals to or >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks gestafion nir attributable to GTD
Hypertension first diagnosed after 20 weeks’ AOG and persistent after 12 weeks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MAP value in the 2nd trimester

A

> 90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MAP value in the 3rd trimester

A

> 105 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the screening maneuvers of pre-eclampsia?

A

MAP
Supine pressure test or roll-over test
Conbination of MAP and roll-over test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the finding at 12-14 weeks AOG that is considered to be a useful tool in predicting the developement of hypertensive disorders in high risk prengnancy?

A

Bilateral notching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effective test in predicting PIH at 24 weeks AOG

A

Doppler velocimetry of the uterine and uteroplacental arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glycoprotein derived principally from the liver and endothelialbcells and its release into plasma is a marker of vascular disruption and endothelial cell activation

A

Fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Level of fibronectjn that is capable of predicting preeclampsja in the 3rd trimester

A

40mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tests to predict preeclampsia for chronic HPN

A

Hypocalciuria and calcium/creatinine ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2nd most common cause of maternal death

A

Eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Stage of preeclampsia characterized by faulty vascular remodeling of uterine artery cauding placental hypoxia

A

Stage 1 - preclinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stage of preeclampsia characterized by release of placental factors into the ciculationb-> SIR and endothelial activation

A

Stage 2 - late stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hallmark of eclampsia

A

Hemoconcentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Renal biopsy finding of eclamptic pregnant

A

Glomerular capillafy endotheliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Headache and scotoma (as a manifestation of eclampsia) are thought to arise from cerebrovascular hyperperfusion that has predilection at what part of the brain?

A

Occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Proposed MOA of MgSO4 in the prevention of eclampsia

A
  1. Reduced presynaptic release of glutamate
  2. Blockade of NMDA
  3. Potentiation of adenosine action
  4. Improved mitochondrial calcium buffering
  5. Blockade of clacium entry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Maneuver stating that the fetal head should be maintained in a flexed position during delivery to allow passage of the smallesr diameter of the head

A

Mauriceau Smellie Veit maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Maneuver employed when the arm of the baby cannot be deliver during breevih delivery. Fetal body is turned 90 degreesbinto then transverse, reached over the baby’s shoulder and slipsnthenfinger down into brachial plexus sweeping the arm down in front of the baby’s body

A

Loveset’s maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Forceps that may br used if the mentum is anterior

A

Kielland forcep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Prophylactic CS is warranted if with the following EFW findings

A

EFW >4,500g (with maternal DM)

EFW >5,000g (without DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the dystocia drill?

A 
Call for help
Episiotomy
Suprapubic pressure
McRobert maneuver
Delivery of posterior arm
Woods screw maneuver
Rubin maneuver
Zavanelli maneuver
Cleidotomy
Symphysiotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maneuver that involves progressively rotates the posterior shoulder 180 degrees, the impacted anterior shoulder could be released

A

Woods screw maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Maneuver that involves the fetal shoulders rocked from side to side by applying force to the maternal abdomen

A

Rubin maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Maneuver that most often abducts both shoulders which in turn produces a smaller shoulder to shoulder diameter which permits displacement of the anterior shoulder behind the symphysis

A

Rubin maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Maneuver that replaces or flexes the fetal head back into the vagina and then CS is performed

A

Zavanelli maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Deliberate fracture of the anterior clavicle to free the shoulder impaction

A

Cleidotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Intervening symphyseal cartilage and much of its ligamentous support is cut to widen the symphysis

A

Symphysiotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Maneuver needed with a frank breech to facilitate delivery of the legs but only after the fetal umbilicus has been reached. Pressure is exerted in the popliteal space of the knee. Flexion of the knee follows and the lower leg is swept medially and out of the vagina

A

Pinard maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Elective CS for vasa previa is done at what AOG?

A

35-37 weeks AOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mode of delivery for pregnants who develop primary genital herpes within 6 weeks of delivery

A

CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

AOG wherein elective CS with HBV profile are as follows: HbeAg positive, HBV DNA copies >1,000,000 and does not received oral antiretroviral therapy

A

39 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

AOG of planned CS

A

39 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The following anomalies may benefit from CS:

A

a. NTDs with fetus in breech
b. NTDs with sac > 6cm
c. Cystic hygromas
d. Sacricoccygeal teratomas > 5cm
e. Hydrocephalus with BPD > 10cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sexual intercourse may be resumed as early as how many week postpartum?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Most common chromosomal abnormality in abortion

A

Autosomal trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most common type of abortion

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Type of abortion with dead fetus retained in utero for more than 4 weeks

A

Missed abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Management of missed abortion
< 12 weeks
> 12 weeks

A

< 12 weeks: vaginal evacuation

> 12 weeks: induce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Most common heart disease in pregnancy

A

Rheumatic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

2nd most common heart disease in pregnancy

A

Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

AOG most CHF occurs

A

30-32 weeks

65
Q

Amount of polyhydramnios

A

2000mL

66
Q

Amount of oligohydramnios

A

<1,000mL

67
Q

Developmental problem in the child with GDM

A

Autism

68
Q

Normal glycosuria level in pregnancy

A

300mg/day

69
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of how much after completion of 3rd stage of labor

A

> 500mL

70
Q

What theory is placenta previa based on and its principle?

A

Dropping down theory - poor decidual reaction in the upper segment

71
Q

Elective CS for asymptomatic placenta previa is done at what AOG?

A

> 37 weeks

72
Q

Elective CS for suspected placenta accreta is done at what AOG?

A

> 36 weeks

73
Q

Important cause of vaginal bleeding in the 2nd half of pregnancy complicating about 1% of births

A

Abruptio placenta

74
Q

Most common cause of abruptio placenta

A

PIH

75
Q

Illicit drug use that causes placental abruption

A

Cocaine

76
Q

What diagnostic imaging is used if the clinical circumstance of UTZ findings are confusing?

A

MRI

77
Q

Classification of abruptio placenta:
Class I
Class II
Class III

*only indicated what’s confusing among the three

A 
Class I (mildest - 48%)
No coagulopahty
No fetal distress
Class II (moderate - 27%)
Low fibrinogen present
Fetal distress
Class III (severe - 24%)
Coagulopathy
Fetal death
78
Q

Mild abruptio management

A

Vaginal delivery

79
Q

Moderate abruptio management

A

CS

80
Q

Severe abruptio management

A

Vaginal delivery

81
Q

It is known as uteroplacental apoplexy as a compication of abruptio wherein there is extensive extravasation of blood into the uterine musculature

A

Couvelaire’s uterus

82
Q

Most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage

A

Uterine atony

83
Q

Most common cause of maternal mortality

A

Uterine atony

84
Q

What are the arteries ligated in devascularization as a management of uterine atony?

A

Uterine artery

Internal iliac artery

85
Q

In women para ____or greater, the 2.7% incidence of postpartum hemorrhage was increased fourfold compared with that of the general obstetrical population

A

7

86
Q

Location where uterine artery ligation is done in women suffering from uterine atony

A

Superiorly at the approximate junction between the utero-ovarian ligament and the uterus and inferiorly just below the uterine incision

87
Q

Classification of uterine inversion wherein the inverted fundus extends beyond the introitus

A

Prolapsed

88
Q

Classification of uterine inversion wherein the uterus and vaginal wall inverts

A

Total

89
Q

Classification of uterine inversion wherein the fundus extends beyond the external os

A

Complete

90
Q

What are the classifications of uterine inversion?

A

Invomplete, complete, prolapsed, total

91
Q

When does acute uterine inversion occurs?

A

Before cervical ring contraction

92
Q

When does subacute uterine inversion occurs?

A

Contracted cervical rings

93
Q

When does chronic uterine inversion occurs?

A

4 weeks after the event

94
Q

Physical examination finding of uterine inversion

A

Abnormal palpation of the crater-like depression and vaginal palpaion of the fundal wall in the LUs and cervix

95
Q

Maneuver done for uterine inversion by immediately pushin up on the fundus with the palm of the hand and fingers in the direction of te long axis of the vagina

A

Johnson maneuver

96
Q

Procedure in uterine inversion described as laparotomy, clamps placed in cup of inversion below cervical rung, gentle upward traction, repeated clamping and traction

A

Huntington procedure

97
Q

Procedure in uterine inversion described as incision inposterior portion of inversion ring, through the abdoment to increase the size of the rong and allow repositionong of the uterus

A

Haultaim procedure

98
Q

What is commonly referred as iterine dehiscence?

A

Incomplete uterine rupture

99
Q

Classification of uterine rupture and describe

A

Complete: all layers of the uterine wall are separated
Incomplete: when the uterine muscle is separated but the visceral peritoneum is intact

100
Q

Most common sign of uterine rupture

A

Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern

101
Q

Primary surrogate for cervical neoplasia

A

HPV

102
Q

High risk HPV types

A

16, 18, 31 and 45

103
Q

Intermediate risk HPV

A

33, 35, 39, 51, 53, 56, 58, 59, 73

104
Q

Low risk HPV

A

6, 11, 53

105
Q

How many individual HPV types?

A

70

106
Q

HPV 16 and 18 causes

A

Cervical, vaginal and anal cancers

107
Q

HPV 6, 11 causes

A

Condyloma acuminata

108
Q

HPV lesions appearance

A

4-6 weeks

109
Q

Molecular police

A

p53 and Rb

110
Q

HPV early proteins that immortalizes human keratinocytes

A

E6 and E7

111
Q

Screening methods of HPV

A
  1. Cervical cytology
  2. Visual inspection using Acetic acid or Lugol’s iodine
  3. HPV test
112
Q

Premalignant HPV lesions fall into 3 categories:

A

ASCUS
LSIL
HSIL

113
Q

Pre-malignant lesion characterized as mild cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and other HPv associated lesions (condylomatous atypia or koilocytic atypia)

A

LSIL

114
Q

Pre-malignant lesion characterized as moderatento severe cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and carcinoma - in situ

A

HSIL

115
Q

When and how often is papsmear done?

A

Starts as 18 y/o or at initiation of sexual activity and to continue annually
After 2 negative consecutive results, 1 year apart and to proceed every 3 years to age 69

116
Q

If CIN I or LSIL is found, when is papsmear done?

A

Repeated every 6 months for 2 years

117
Q

Immeidate colposcopy is done in what type of cervical dysplasia?

A

Moderate dysplasia

118
Q

Component of molecular hybridization in cervical CA

A

Southern DNa blotting
Dot blotting
In siti DNA hybridization

119
Q

Test sensitive for HPV DNA

A

PCR

120
Q

Cervical CA clinical staging

A

Stage 1: confined to the cervix
Stage 2: beyond the cervix, not to the pelvic sidewall, not to the lower third of the vagina
Stabe 3: extension to the pelvic sidewall, involves the lower third of the vagina, with hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney
Stage 4: extension to beyodn the true pelvis, clinically involved (biopsy proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum

121
Q

Mechanism of HPV vaccination

A

DNa-free viruanlike particles synthesized by sef assembly of fusion proteins of the major capsid antigen L1 found to induce humoral response with neutralizing antibodies (type specific)

122
Q

Most common cause of maternal death

A

Puerperal sepsis

123
Q

Endotoxin cause by

A

Gram negative

124
Q

Exotoxin A caused by

A

P. Aeruginosa

125
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin caused by

A

S. Aureus

126
Q

Circulation volume initially restored leads to high CO + low systemic vascular resistance

A

Warm phase of septic shock

127
Q

Uncorrected with vigorous fluid infusion leads to peripheral vasoconstrixtion+ oliguria

A

Cold phase of septic shock

128
Q

Diagnostic criteria of chorioamnionitis

A

Maternal fever + 2 of the following:
Maternal tachycardia
Purulent and foul-smelling amniotic fluid
Maternal leukocytosis

129
Q

Single most significant risk factor for postpartum uterine infection

A

Abdominal delivery

130
Q

Gold standard antibiotic for chorioamnionitis

A

Clindamycin + Gentamycin

131
Q

Intrapartum infection causing chorioamnionitis

A

Group B strep

132
Q

Curdy vaginal discharge with beefy red itchy vulva

A

Fungal vaginitis caused by C.albicans

133
Q

Criteria to diagnose bacterial vaginosis

A

Vaginal pH >4.7
Clue cells
Thin homogenous discharge
Fishy odor (adding potassium hydroxide)

134
Q

Green, frothy vaginal discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

135
Q

Diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis

A

Normal saline wet mount demonstrates flagellates

136
Q

Diagnosis media of Gonorrhea

A

Thayer Martin Broth

137
Q

Diagnosis media of Chlamydia

A

Giemsa or Wright’s strain

138
Q

Diagnostic tool for syphilis

A

Darkfield microscopy

139
Q

Screening test for syphilis

A

VDRL or RPR

140
Q

Specific test for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

141
Q

Most common cause of serious liver disease or jaundice in pregnancy

A

Viral hepatitis

142
Q

AOG highest incidence of UTI

A

9th-17th

143
Q

Screening of asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

16 weeks AOG

144
Q

Organism causing Sterile pyuria

A

C. Trochomatis

145
Q

Most common non-obstetric indiction for hospitalization of the pregnant patient

A

Acute pyelonephritis

146
Q

50% unilateral on the _______because of the dextrorotation of the uterus causing pyelonephritis

A

Right

147
Q

How many days after exposure to rubella for antibody?

A

10 days

148
Q

If given with rubella virus vaccine, avoid pregnancy within how many months?

A

2-3 months

149
Q

Susceptibel pregnant women with varicella exposure should be given VZIG within how many hours of exposure

A

Within 96 Hours

150
Q

Lichen sclerosus is also called as

A

Chronic atrophic vulvitis

151
Q

4 cardinal histologic features of lichen sclerosus

A
  1. Thinning of the epidermis with disappearance of rete pegs
  2. Hydropic degeneration of basal cells
  3. Replacement of dermis by dense collagenous fibrous tissue
  4. Monoclonal bandlike lymphocytic infiltrate
152
Q

Complication of lichen sclerosus

A

Carcinoma

153
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus is also known as:

A

Squamous hyperplasia, hyoerolastic dystrophy

154
Q

Nonspecific condition of the female genital tract that arises from rubbing and scratching of skin

A

Lichen simplex chronicus

155
Q

What layer of the epidermis is expanded in lichen simplex chronicus?

A

Stratum granulosum

156
Q

Papillary hidradenoma is identical to what condition?

A

Intraductal papilloma of the breast

157
Q

Types of vulvar carcinoma

A

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
Basaloid carcinoma
Warty carcinoma

158
Q

Most common location of papillary hidradenoma

A

Labia majora or interlabial folds

Hi-Yield for PLE (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions