Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB > OB Exam2 > Flashcards

OB Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is responsible for passing on genetic traits?

A

chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the number of chromosomes in a mature sperm or egg cell?

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is a recessive gene expressed?

A

When it is received from both parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of chromosome does an ovum contribute, and what type of chromosome does a sperm contribute?

A

Ovum- X

Sperm X or Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does a dominant gene do?

A

Expresses itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most important function of the amniotic fluid?

A

To protect the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the anion and chorion?

A

Together they form the amniotic sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the four layers of the cell is thick with villi on the outer surface?

A

chorion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the second layer of the cell

A

anion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the third layer of the cell

A

yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the yolk sac?

A

only needed during embryonic life, initiates the production of the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three stages of prenatal development?

A

1, zygote
2, embryo week 2 to 8
3, fetus- week 9 to birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the age of viability?

A

week 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is considered full term?

A

week 38-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The fetal side of the placenta looks like?

A

gray and shiny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the maternal side of the placenta look like?

A

bloody red and flesh like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: the placenta allows most medications to pass to the fetus?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the four hormones produced by the placenta?

A

Progesterone, estrogen, HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin, and hPL (human placental lactogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of progesterone?

A

maintains uterine lining for implantation
reduces uterine contractions
prepares glands of the breast for lactation
stimulates testes to produce testosterone, which aid the mail fetus in developing their reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of estrogen?

A

stimulates uterine growth
increases the blood flow to the uterine vessels
stimulates development of the breast ducts to prepare for lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of hCG?

A

hCG signals the corpus luteum to continue and produce estrogen and progesterone to sustain pregnancy,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is hCG detectable in maternal blood?

A

7 to 9 days after fertilization

23
Q

What is the function of hPL

A

causes decreased insulin sensitivity and utilization of glucose by the mother, this makes more glucose available to the fetus.

24
Q

What is located between the fetus and the placenta?

A

The umbilical cord

25
Q

What separates the three vessels (AVA ) and cushions the cord?

A

Whartons jelly

26
Q

What are the three shunts of fetal circulation?

A

ductus venosus
foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus

27
Q

What does the ductus venosus divert?

A

diverts some blood away from the liver as it returns from the placenta

28
Q

What does the foramen ovale divert?

A

diverts most blood from the right atrium directly to the left atrium, rather than circulating it to the lungs

29
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus divert?

A

diverts most of the blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

30
Q

define dizygotic and monozygotic?

A

dizygotic - fraternal twins, develops from two eggs

monozygotic- identical twins, develops from one egg

31
Q

How many placentas do dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins have

A

dizygotic - two

monozygotic- one

32
Q

What is the purpose of chorionic villus sampling

A

helps to identify chromosome abnormalities or other defects. obtain a small part of the developing placenta to analyze fetal cells at 10-12 weeks gestation

33
Q

What conditions might AFP (alpha fetoprotein) testing discover?

A

identifies high levels of AFP which are associated with defects such as spina bifida, anencephaly, or gastroschisis.

34
Q

What does folic acid help to prevent?

A

Neural tube defects

35
Q

What are the two types of spina bifida?

A

occulta (hidden)

cystica (sac or cyst)

36
Q

What is the most serious type of spina bifida cystica?

A

meningomyelocele

37
Q

what may be used to feed an infant after cleft lip surgery?

A

a dropper until the wound is healed.

38
Q

children with a cleft palate are prone to what two medical conditions later in their development?

A

hearing loss, and speech difficulties

39
Q

What may an infant with hip dysplasia present with?

A

one leg shorter than the other if the head of the femur is completely displaced

40
Q

What is one treatment used for infants with hip dysplasia between 1-6 months old?

A

The pavlik harness

41
Q

What is tetrology of fallot?

A

a congenital heart defect with four defects

42
Q

What are the s/s of tetrology of fallot ?

A

excessive c
rying
heart murmurs
cyanosis around the mouth and lips

43
Q

What is PKU

A

Phenylketonuria, a genetic disorder caused by faulty metabolism of phenylalanine.

44
Q

If PKU is not addressed what could it result in?

A

severe retardation

45
Q

What is the test for PKU and when is it done

A

guthrie blood test- a heel stick done at about 48-72 hours after birth,

46
Q

What is the treatment for PKU

A

low phenylanine diet

47
Q

What is TaySachs

A

fatal inherited disease of the central nervous system found in jewish populations, death usually happens before the child turns 5

48
Q

How can sickle cell anemia be detected?

A

Before birth with chorionic villi sample

49
Q

What is a screening test for sickle cell?

A

sickledex

50
Q

What is Thalassemia

A

group of hereditary blood disorders in which a pts body cannot produce enough hemoglobin

51
Q

How is Thalassemia treated?

A

diet high in iron

52
Q

what are the s/s of thalassemia?

A

enlarged spleen, fever and distended abdomen

53
Q

What is downs syndrome?

A

chromosomal abnormality

54
Q

What are the three types of downs syndrome

A

Trisomy 21
mosaicism
translocation of a chromosome

OB (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions