OB Flashcards

1
Q

Post partum hemorrhage definition

A

> 500 ccs if vaginal;

>1000 ccs if c-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Pomeroy technique?

A

Tubal ligation involving removal or a part of the uterine tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Parkland method?

A

The Parkland procedure involves tying two non-absorbable ligatures around the fallopian tube in its proximal to middle segment and then cutting out the tubal segment between the ligatures. The end result is similar to the Pomeroy method of tubal ligation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post partum hemorrhage and absent uterus on physical exam, dx?

A

Uterine inversion

Manage with surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Post partum hemorrhage and boggy, soft uterus on physical exam, dx?

A

Uterine atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Post partum hemorrhage and firm placenta on physical exam, dx?

A

Retained placenta

Manage with surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Post partum hemorrhage and normal-feeling uterus on physical exam, dx?

A

Vaginal laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Post partum hemorrhage, never forget this dx in your differential:

A

DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management for unexplained post partum hemorrhage?

A

Surgery to ligate arteries and possible TAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the pathology behind uterine atony?

A

Uterus cannot contract down, usually a product of:
a prolonged labor,
a labor that used pitocin;
a labor that used tocolytics (anti-contraction meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an absolute contraindication for the use of MgSO4?

A

Myasthenia gravis bc MgSO4 is a myosin light chain inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What tocolytic should not be used in conjunction with MgSO4?

A

Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat), a Ca channel blocker

Also contraindicated in cardiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management of uterine atony?

A
  1. Massage
  2. Methergen or Pitocin if massage does not work
  3. PGF-2 alpha
  4. go to surgery if bleeding does not stop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is the diagnosis of uterine atony made?

A

Clinically;

Pt presents with PPH and boggy uterus on physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathology of uterine inversion?

A

Uterus births itself and there is a defect in the myometrium, which falls into the uterine lumen, pushing the uterus into the birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is the diagnosis of uterine inversion made?

A

Clinically;

Speculum reveals uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management of uterine inversion?

A

Transvagial surgery to tack down the fornices of the uterus;

Can give pitocin if bleeding continues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What conditions predispose vaginal lacerations?

A

Precipitous births;

Macrosomal births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of retained placenta?

A
  1. Burrows too deeply, or
  2. Accessory lobe
    - -> placenta tears during birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Placenta blood vessels never go to the surface of the placenta

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of retained placenta?

A
  1. D&C, then
  2. TAH

Follow-up with beta-quant to rule out choriocarcinoma later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Retained placenta at the layer of the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

Retained placenta burrows into myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

Retained placenta burrows to serosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the pathology of DIC-PPH?

A

Placental contents get into blood stream –> fibrin clots consume platelets and clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a patient with PPH-DIC present?

A

PPH that won’t stop, no other cause found, plus oozing from IV sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the management of PPH-DIC?

A
  1. Get a DIC panel
    - -Plts low
    - -clotting factors low
    - -PT/PTT high
    - -fibrinogen low
    - -shistocytes on smear
  2. Give FFP, transfuse platelets and blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the pathology behind gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin insensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A
  1. Preconception obesity
  2. > 1lb/wk weight gain
  3. Advanced maternal age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you diagnose gestational diabetes?

A

Asymptomatic screen with 1 hr glucose tolerance test;

confirm with 3 hour gTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does the gTT work?

A
Give non-fasting patient 50g glucose load:
\+ if >/= 140
If +, give fasting patient 100g glucose load and check fasting, 1h, 2h and 3h:
\+ if:
fasting >/= 125
1h >/= 180
2h >/= 155
3h >/= 140

Gestational diabetes is any two + tests from the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the management of gestational diabetes?

A

Basal-bolus insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When in pregnancy does hemoglobin reach a nadir?

A

28-30 weeks because of gain of fluid volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the definition of third trimester anemia?

A

Asymptomatic screen CBC that shows H/H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the pathology behind isoimmunization?

A

Isoimmunization - when Rh (-) mom has Rh (+) kid.
Aka, mom has no Rh antigen.
Blood mixes during delivery or procedure, and mom makes antibodies to baby. IgM cant cross placenta, but IgG can, which can cause anemia or fetal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is Rh status evaluated and managed?

A
  1. Asymptomatic screen in beginning of pregnancy to find out if mom if Rh + or -
  2. If mom is Rh -, does she have antibodies to Rh?
  3. If she is Rh (-) with no Ab –> give Rhogam at 28 weeks and then within 72 hrs of delivery or procedure
  4. If she is Rh (-) with Ab –> too late –> get transcranial Doppler to evaluate risk for fetal anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the Rh subtypes?

A

Lewis - won’t kill baby
Duffy - will kill baby
Kal - will kill baby
Titers >1:8 sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the management of fetal anemia?

A

If > 34 weeks, deliver;

If

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is fetal anemia diagnosed?

A
  1. Transcranial Doppler; then

2. PUBS (needle into umbilical vein), if Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When can mom’s and baby’s blood mix?

A
  1. D&C
  2. PPH
  3. Normal vaginal delivery
  4. Third trimester bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a reactive NST?

A

2 or more accelerations in 20 minutes, each lasting at least 15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How high is the beta-quant if a fetus can be seen on u/s?

A

At least 1500

43
Q

What is the effect of pregnancy on the renal system?

A

GFR increases, +50% by week 24

44
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of pregnancy?

A

HR up
BP down (vasodilated bc of increased estrogen)
CO up up up

45
Q

What are the pulmonary effects of pregnancy?

A

TV up

Minute volume up

46
Q

What is the effect of pregnancy on albumin?

A

Down bc of increased plasma volume

47
Q

What are the effects of pregnancy on the thyroid?

A

thyroid-binding protein up;

effective circulating T4 down

48
Q

What labs are drawn at the first OB visit?

A
CBC
Rh factor
type and screen
U/A and culture
RPR/VDRL
Heb B Ag
HIV
GC/chlam cervical swab
pap smear
49
Q

What is a normal Hgb at the start of pregnancy?

A

13-15

50
Q

What is a normal Hgb at 28 weeks?

A

10

51
Q

What are the test results for trisomy 18?

A

low MSAFP;
low estriol;
low inhibin A;
low b-hCG

52
Q

What are the test results with trisomy 21?

A

low MSAFP;
low estriol;
high inhibin A;
high b-hCG

53
Q

What is the treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

Nitrofurantoin (same for cystitis)

54
Q

What is the treatment for pyelonephritis?

A

IV ceftriaxone;

if no improvement, u/s

55
Q

What are the acceptable treatments for chronic HTN in pregnancy?

A

Alpha-methyldopa;
Hydralazine;
Metoprolol

56
Q

What is the management of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

PTU; surgery if 2nd semester

57
Q

What is the management of hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

A

give thyroid

58
Q

What is the latent phase of stage I labor?

A

Beginning of contractions to 4 cm
20 hrs for first time delivery
14 for multip

59
Q

What is the active stage of stage I labor?

A

4cm - fully dilated or 10;
about 4 hours;
1.2 cm/hr for primi;
1.5 cm/hr for multi

60
Q

What is stage II labor?

A

10cm –> delivery

61
Q

What is stage III labor?

A

delivery fetus –> delivery placenta

62
Q

What are the cervical changes in labor?

A
  1. Dilation
  2. Effacement
  3. Softening
  4. Position
    * *breakages of disulfide bonds and collagen mediated by prostaglandin E2, stimulated by engagement of fetal head or balloon**
63
Q

What is station -2?

A

Fetal head has engaged the cervix

64
Q

What is station -1?

A

Fetus has entered the vagina

65
Q

What is station +2?

A

Fetal head is at opening of vagina

66
Q

What are the two ways of assessing fetal position?

A
  1. u/s, or

2. Leopold maneuver

67
Q

What is frank breech?

A

Knees are extended, butt facing down

68
Q

What is complete breech?

A

Baby indian style, butt facing down

69
Q

What is incomplete breech?

A

Baby’s knees partially extended, butt facing down

70
Q

What is footling breech?

A

One leg extended, baby is feet first

71
Q

What is transverse lie?

A

Baby’s back is pointing down, perpendicular to mom

72
Q

What is the management for breech?

A

Can try external version

73
Q

What are the cardinal movements of labor?

A
Engagement - at cervix
Descent
Flexion - upper 2/3 vagina
Internal Rotation - upper 2/3 vagina
Extension
External Rotation
Expulsion
74
Q

What does the Bishop score measure?

A

How favorable vaginal delivery is, and how soon it will come

75
Q

What is a common cause for prolonged labor?

A

Giving analgesics too soon

Manage by waiting out the effect of the analgesic

76
Q

What is the initial management for prolonged latent labor?

A
Measure uterine contractions (IUPC)
They should be > 3/30 min and > 40 mmHG
...can then insert balloon
...if balloon fails, c-section
can always augment with pitocin
77
Q

What is the management of arrested active phase labor?

A

Pitocin, give it 2 hrs, then c-section

78
Q

What is prolonged second stage labor?

A

> 3 hrs epidural or > 2 hours no epidural

79
Q

In what station can vacuum or forceps be used?

A

Station 1 or 2

If 0 –> go to c-section

80
Q

What is the only reason for prolonged third stage labor?

A

Power (contractions)

Manage with massage, or pitocin, or manual manipulation

81
Q

How do you manage transient HTN?

A

> 140/>90 before 20 weeks. Nothing seen on u/a because no time to damage kidneys, keep a log

82
Q

How do you manage chronic HTN?

A

> 140/90 before 20 weeks:
alpha-methyldopa;
hydralazine;
metoprolol

83
Q

What is the pathology of pre-eclampsia?

A

Placental contents released into blood stream, causing vasoconstriction

84
Q

What is mild pre-eclampsia?

A

u/a has 140/>90;

85
Q

What is severe pre-eclampsia?

A

Sustained >160/>90 after 20 weeks;
>5g/dL protein - full on nephrotic symptoms;
1+ alarm symptoms

86
Q

How is mild pre-eclampsia managed?

A

If >36 weeks, Mag and deliver;

If baby shows any signs of clinical worsening, and is

87
Q

How is severe pre-eclampsia managed?

A

Mag and deliver via c/s

88
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

If mom has a seizure during pregnancy with no hx of seizures;
BP and u/a don’t matter,

89
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

90
Q

How is HELLP syndrome managed?

A

Mag and deliver

91
Q

What are the alarm symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

A

Hemoconcentration especially in the presence of edema (third spacing) - patient is losing protein in urine –> Hgb appears higher;
Epigastric abdominal pain - swelling of the liver - Gleason’s capsule stretching;
Headaches, vision changes - sign of vasospasm;

Gets labs - CBC, LFT, U/A

92
Q

What is the goal of u/s?

A

Assess IUP, fetal age, fetal well-being

93
Q

What is the goal of transcranial Doppler?

A

Generally used after 20 weeks, used to assess fetal anemia (can measure increased flow through the cranium, which is a compensatory mechanism for anemia)

94
Q

What is the goal of amniocentesis?

A

Can only be done in 2nd trimester and later (>16 weeks);
AFP, genetic material,
risk of loss is 1:200;
If in beginning of 2nd trim - for genetic material;
If >36 weeks, can assess lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio

95
Q

What is the goal of chorionic villous sampling?

A

6-12 weeks, risk of loss is 1/150;

can do genetic screens and karyotypes

96
Q

What is the goal of PUBS?

A

Percutanous Umbilical Blood Sampling
>20 weeks;
only done later on to test for fetal anemia if transfusion is needed;
Risk of loss is 1:30

97
Q

What anti-emetics do you prescribe for hyperemesis gravidarium?

A

Doxylamine
Promethazine
Metaclopromide
Ondansetron

98
Q

What is the pathology behind the premature rupture of membranes?

A

Ascending infection

99
Q

What is the risk of prolonged ROM?

A

Group B strep infection –> prophylaxis with amoxicillin

100
Q

What is the risk with a post-date baby?

A

Macrosomia –> shoulder distocia

101
Q

What is included in the BPP?

A

NST + AFI with U/S

102
Q

What is the management of a non-reactive NST?

A

vibroacoustic stimulation, repeat NST

103
Q

What is the next step in management of babies that failed repeat NST after vibroacoustic stimulation?

A

BPP
reassuring 8-10 score;
if 0-2, fetal demise imminent or occurred –> deliver;
If >36 weeks and iffy, deliver (pitocin or c/s);

104
Q

What is the management of a

A

Contraction stress test = give pitocin, watch for DECELERATIONS;
if late decels or bradycardia –> deliver;
If reassuring –> grow baby, admit mom, +/1 steroids