Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > OB > Flashcards

OB Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the parturients blood gas levels:

A

pH - no change
PaO2 - increase - 104-108
PaCO2 - decrease - 28-32
Bicarb - decrease - 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe O2 consumption in the parturient in the different stages of labor:

A

Term - increase 20%
First stage of labor - increase 40% over prelabor
Second stage of labor - increase 75% over prelabor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe CO of the parturient:

A

Increase 40% (10% goes to uterus)
HR increases 15%
SV increases 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Discuss CO during labor (as compared to pre-labor values)

A

1st stage: increases 20%
2nd stage: increases 50%
3rd stage: increases 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does CO return to pre-labor values after birth?

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does CO return to pre-pregnancy values?

A

About 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do twins affect CO?

A

Increase CO 20% above a single fetus pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do MAP, SBP, or DBP change in the parturient?

A

MAP = no change (increased blood volume + decreased SVR = net even)
SBP = no change
DBP = decreased 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To which parturient should you apply left displacement of the uterus?

A

Anyone in the second or third trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does intravascular fluid volume change in the parturient?

A

Increases 35% to prepare for hemorrhage in labor; creates dilution anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do plasma volume and erythrocyte volume change in the parturient?

A

Plasma - increases 45%
Erythrocyte - increases 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What clotting factors increase in mom?

A

1, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What clotting factors decrease in mom?

A

11 and 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What changes occur in antithrombin, protein s, and protein c?

A

antithrombin and protein s decrease. no change in protein c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What changes occur in moms fibrinolytic system?

A

increased fibrin breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the parturients hematologic change overall?

A

Mom makes more clot, but she breaks it down faster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do PT and PTT change?

A

Decrease by 20%
Normal PT at term - 9.6-12.9s
Normal PTT at term - 24.7-35.0s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What occurs with platelet count?

A

Unchanged or decrease up to 10% due to hemodilution and consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does MAC change in the parturient?

A

Decreases 30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does gastric volume increase or decrease in the parturient? Why?

A

Increases due to increased gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does gastric pH change in the parturient? Why?

A

Decreased due to increased gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does LES tone change in the parturient? Why?

A

Decreases due to increased progesterone and estrogen. Cephalad displacement also contributes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe gastric emptying changes in the parturient:

A

No change before onset of labor; decreases after labor begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What renal functions increase in the parturient and why?

A

GFR - increased blood volume and CO
Creatinine clearance - increase blood volume and CO
Glucose in urine - increased GFR and decreased renal absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What renal functions decrease in the parturient and why?

A

Creatinine and BUN - increased creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many mL/min of blood flow does the uterus receive?

A

700-900 mL/min, which accounts for 10% of CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does serum albumin change in the parturient? How does this affect the free fraction of highly protein bound drugs?

A

Albumin is decreased, so the free fraction is increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is pseudocholinesterase increased or decreased in the parturient?

A

Decreased (no meaningful effect on sux metabolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is uterine blood flow dependent on?

A

Does NOT auto regulate, so dependent on MAP, CO, and uterine vascular resistance (low resistance system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What reduces uterine blood flow?

A

Decreased perfusion. Ex: maternal hypotension (sympathectomy, hemorrhage, aortocaval compression)

Increased resistance. Ex: uterine contraction, hypertensive conditions that increase uterine vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What drug characteristics favor placental transfer?

A

Low molecular weight <500 Daltons
High lipid solubility
Non-ionized
Non-polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What drugs do not cross the placenta?

A

Heparin
Insulin
NMBs
Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe Stage 1 of labor:

A

Beginning of regular contractions to full cervical dilation (10cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe Stage 2 of labor:

A

Full cervical dilation to delivery of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe Stage 3 of labor:

A

Delivery of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When do the latent and active phases of labor occur?

A

Stage 1:
Latent ends when the cervix dilates to 2-3 cm
Active begins 3-10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is lidocaine not popular for labor analgesia?

A

Produces strong motor block (good for C-section)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What local anesthetic reduces the efficacy of epidural morphine and why?

A

2-chloroprocaine. It antagonizes opioid receptors (mu and kappa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the dosing of epidural opioids?

A

Fentanyl bolus - 50-100 mcg
Fentanyl infusion - 1.5-3 mcg/mL

Sufentanil bolus - 5-10 mcg
Sufentanil infusion - 0.2-0.4 mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Discuss opioid spinal dosing:

A

Fentanyl: 15-25 mcg
Sufentanil: 1.5-5 mcg
Morphine: 125-250 mcg
Meperidine: 10-20 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Discuss spinal adjunct medications and doses:

A

Epinephrine: 2.25-200 mcg
Clonidine: 15-30 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Discuss epidural bolus dosing of adjuncts:

A

Epinephrine: 25-75 mcg
Clonidine: 75-100 mcg
Neostigmine: 500-750 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Discuss epidural continuous infusion dosing of adjuncts:

A

Epinephrine: 25-50 mcg/hr
Clonidine: 10-30 mcg/hr
Neostigmine: 25-75 mcg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are 3 ways a patient can develop a total spinal?

A
  1. An epidural dose injected in the subarachnoid space
  2. An epidural dose injected in the subdural space
  3. A single shot spinal after a failed epidural
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does a total spinal present?

A

Rapid progression of sensory and motor block
Dyspnea, difficulty phonating, and hypotension
Loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does a fetal heart rate of 110-160 indicate?

A

Normal acid-base balance and intact CNS and ANS of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a fetal heart rate of <110 indicate?

A

Bradycardia.
Fetal causes: asphyxia or acidosis
Maternal causes: hypoxemia or drugs that decrease uteroplacental perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does a fetal heart rate >160 indicate?

A

Tachycardia.
Fetal causes: hypoxemia, arrhythmias
Maternal causes: fever, choriamnionitis, atropine, ephedrine, terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

At what magnesium level does loss of deep tendon reflexes occur?

A

7-12 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

At what level of magnesium do seizures occur?

A

<1.2 mg/dL

51
Q

Respiratory depression occurs at what magnesium level?

A

> 12 mg/dL

52
Q

What medications can be used for tocolysis to suppress labor?

A

Beta 2 agonists, magnesium, calcium channel blockers, nitric oxide donors (not common d/t hypotension)

53
Q

Discuss oxytocin

A

First line utertonic
SE: water retention (similar structure to vasopressin), hyponatremia, hypotension, reflex tachycardia, coronary vasoconstriction
Give IV or directly into uterus (rapid IV admin can cause CV collapse)
hepatic metabolism
half-life: 4-17 min

54
Q

Discuss methergine

A

second line uterotonic
Ergot Alkaloid
Dose 0.2 mg IM (IV admin can cause significant vasoconstriction, hypertension, and cerebral hemorrhage)
hepatic metabolism
half-life = 2 hours

55
Q

Discuss prostaglandin F2

A

third-line uterotonic
Hemabate or Carboprost
dose: 250 mcg IM or injected into uterus
SE: N/V, diarrhea, hypotension, hypertension, bronchospasm

56
Q

What medications should you give for aspiration prophylaxis to a pregnant mother?

A

Sodium citrate - neutralize gastric acid
H2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine) - reduce gastric acid secretion
Gastrokinetic agent (metoclopramide) - hasten gastric emptying and increase LES tone

57
Q

Ideally, how long should surgery be delayed postpartum?

A

2-6 weeks

58
Q

If surgery cannot be delayed in a pregnant patient, what is the best trimester to undergo anesthesia?

A

2nd trimester
avoids higher risk of teratogenicity in the 1st trimester (13-60 days is organogenesis)
avoids increased risk of preterm delivery that’s highest in the 3rd trimester

59
Q

What non-OB procedures lead to the highest incidence of preterm labor?

A

intra-abdominal and pelvic surgery

60
Q

What inhalation agent should be avoided in the pregnant patient and why?

A

Nitrous oxide showed congenital disabilities in animals who received it for 1-2 days due to inhibition of DNA synthesis (lack data in humans); many avoid nitrous in the first 2 trimesters

61
Q

When is a pregnant patient considered a full stomach?

A

18-20 weeks gestation
Treat like full term (RSI, aspiration prophylaxis, etc.)
Treat like full term also applies to immediate postpartum period

62
Q

Why should you avoid hyperventilation in the pregnant mother?

A

Normal PaCO2 ~30 mmHg -> hyperventilation reduces placental blood flow -> risk of fetal asphyxia

63
Q

What medication class should a pregnant mother avoid after the first trimester and why?

A

NSAIDs due to potential to close the ductus arteriosus.

64
Q

When is chronic htn in the parturient diagnosed? When does it return to normal?

A

Before 20 weeks gestation. It does not return to normal after delivery.

65
Q

When does gestational htn occur in the parturient and how is it diagnosed?

A

After 20 weeks gestation. It’s only diagnosed post-delivery when BP returns to normal (rules out chronic htn).

66
Q

When is preeclampsia diagnosed in the parturient and what are the diagnostic criteria?

A

htn >140/90 (mild) or >160/110 (severe) develops after 20 weeks gestation. Proteinuria is typically present.

67
Q

Can preeclampsia exist without proteinuria? If so, what would be present instead?

A

Yes. Instead could have:
persistent RUQ or epigastric pain
persistent CNS or visual symptoms
fetal growth restriciton
thrombocytopenia
elevated serum liver enzymes

68
Q

At what BP is severe eclampsia diagnosed? When does it progress to eclampsia?

A

BP > 160/110. Progresses to eclampsia when mom develops seizures.

69
Q

Maternal physiologic effects of preeclampsia

A
70
Q

What is thought to be the cause of preeclampsia?

A

Abnormal placental implantation leads to elevated vascular resistance and decreased placental blood flow. The placenta and fetus don’t receive an adequate amount of O2 or metabolic substrate to normally develop.

71
Q

What placental production changes occur with preeclampsia?

A

Produces 7xs more thromboxane than prostaglandin, which favors vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and reduced placental blood flow. Also releases cytokines that lead to endothelial dysfunction through the body.

72
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: BP

A

<160/<110 vs >160/>110 due to increased thromboxane vasoconstriction

73
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: proteinuria

A

< 5 g/24H, < 3+ dipstick
>= 5 g/24H, >= 3+ dipstick
Due to destruction of glomerular capillary endothelium

74
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: 24H urine total

A

> 500 mL
<= 500 mL
Due to destruction of glomerular capillary endothelium and renal edema

75
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: edema

A

generalized edema in both
pulmonary edema only in severe (due to HF)
due to decreased oncotic pressure & increased vascular permeability

76
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: cyanosis

A

no - mild
yes - severe

77
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: headache

A

no - mild
yes - severe
due to cerebral edema

78
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: visual impairment

A

no - mild
yes - severe
due to vasoconstriction of ocular arterioles

79
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: epigastric pain

A

no - mild
yes - severe
due to liver subcapsular hemorrhage and hypoxic liver

80
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: HELLP syndrome

A

no - mild
yes - severe

81
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: platelet count

A

> 100,000/mm3
< 100,000/mm3
due to consumption by endothelial damage

82
Q

Mild Preeclampsia vs Severe Preeclampsia: fetal growth

A

normal
impaired
due to uteroplacental hypo perfusion

83
Q

What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia/eclampsia?

A

delivery of the fetus and placenta

84
Q

When can mother with preeclampsia be medically managed?

A

Mild symptoms + young fetus -> bed rest and observation

85
Q

When is immediate delivery required in the preeclamptic patient?

A

Symptoms become severe or fetal distress ensues

86
Q

When and why should you employ antihypertensive medications in mom?

A

Treat BP >160/110 to prevent cerebrovascular accident, myocardial ischemia, or placental abruption.

87
Q

What antihypertensives can be given for maternal acute htn?

A

labetalol 20 mg IV followed by 40-80 mg q 10 min, max 220 mg
hydralazine 5 mg IV q 20 min, max 20 mg
nifedipine 10 mg PO q 20 min, max 50 mg
nicardipine infusion at 5 mg/hr, titrated 2.5 mg/hr q 5 min, max 15 mg/hr

88
Q

How long do risks of complications related to severe preeclampsia continue?

A

Up to 4 weeks postpartum.
Stroke and pulmonary HTN risk highest postpartum period.

89
Q

Discuss seizure prophylaxis in eclampsia:

A

Mag sulfate loading dose of 4 g over 10 min
infusion 1-2 g/hr

Mag tox treatment: 10 mL 10% CaGluconate IV

90
Q

HELLP Syndrome

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelet count

Develops in 5-10% of those with preeclampsia
SS: epigastric pain and upper abdominal tenderness
higher risk for DIC and abnormal bleeding from the liver

91
Q

What is the definitive treatment for HELLP syndrome?

A

Delivery
However, could present for first time in postpartum period

92
Q

MAC values for maternal acute vs chronic cocaine use:

A

acute intox: MAC increased
chronic use: MAC decreased

93
Q

OB risks of maternal cocaine use:

A

spontaneous abortion
premature labor
placental abruption
low APGAR

94
Q

CV risks in maternal cocaine use:

A

tachycardia
dysrhythmias
coronary vasoconstriction
myocardial ischemia

95
Q

CNS risks in maternal cocaine use:

A

cerebral vasoconstriction
ischemia
seizures
stroke

96
Q

What antihypertensive do you caution use of in maternal cocaine use?

A

Caution beta block -> HF if SVR elevated significantly due to myocardial depression from B1 block or further increased SVR from B2 block

97
Q

What antihypertensives can be used in maternal cocaine use?

A

Labetalol - reasonable due to blockage of alpha-mediated peripheral vasoconstriction
Vasodilators - but could cause hypotension

98
Q

How do you treat hypotension in maternal cocaine use?

A

Phenylephrine
Ephedrine may not elicit response in chronic use due to catecholamine depletion

99
Q

What lab should you check before neuraxial placement in maternal cocaine use?

A

Platelet count. Chronic cocaine abuse can cause thrombocytopenia.

100
Q

What is the preferred anesthetic for abnormal placental implantation?

A

General. Big risk for tremendous blood loss due to impairment of uterine contractility.
However, neuraxial is safe.

101
Q

What two conditions is abnormal placental implantation closely associated with?

A

Placenta previa
Previous c-sections

102
Q

Discuss placenta previa and risk factors:

A

placenta partially covers cervical os when attaches to lower uterine segment
PAINLESS VAGINAL BLEEDING
often requires c-section
risk factors: previous c-sections, history of multiple births

103
Q

Placental abruption risk factors include:

A

All increase driving pressure to placenta..
PIH
preeclampsia
chronic HTN
cocaine use
smoking
excessive alcohol use

104
Q

Discuss placental abruption:

A

maternal pain + vaginal hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia
risk of amniotic fluid embolism that leads to DIC
obtain large-bore IV and have blood products ready
prep for c-section; vaginal delivery possible if fetus is stable

105
Q

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage? What risk factors lead to this?

A

Uterine atony
multiparty
multiple gestations
polyhydramnios
prolonged oxytocin infusion before surgery

106
Q

What are treatments for obstetric bleeding?

A

uterine massage
oxytocin
ergot alkoloids
manual massage
intrauterine balloon if these don’t work

107
Q

What conditions often lead to DIC in the parturient?

A

DIC
placental abruption
intrauterine fetal demise
often accompanied by circulatory shock

108
Q

Discuss APGAR scores:

A

Normal: 8-10
Moderate distress: 4-7
Impending demise: 0-3

109
Q

What categories are included in the APGAR system?

A

Heart rate
Respiratory effort
Muscle tone
Reflex irritability
Color

110
Q

APGAR Score: heart rate

A

0: absent
1: < 100 bpm
2: > 105 bpm

111
Q

APGAR Score: respiratory effort

A

0: absent
1: slow, irregular
2: normal, crying

112
Q

APGAR Score: muscle tone

A

0: limp
1: some flexion of extremities
2: active motion

113
Q

APGAR Score: reflex irritability

A

0: absent
1: grimace
2: cough, sneeze, or cry

114
Q

APGAR Score: color

A

0: pale, blue
1: body pink, extremities blue
2: completely pink

115
Q

How soon after delivery should neonatal SpO2 increase?

A

Should increase from 60% to 90% within 10 minutes.

116
Q

Should O2 be used to assist ventilation in the newborn? Why or why not?

A

No, it increases the risk of an inflammatory response. Room air should be used instead.

117
Q

What is the best indication of adequate ventilation in resuscitation of a neonate?

A

The resolution of bradycardia. If ventilation doesn’t improve cardiovascular performance, emergency drugs should be given.

118
Q

What three routes can emergency medications be given to a neonate?

A

Umbilical vein, ETT, or IO

119
Q

Discuss emergency meds for neonatal resuscitation:

A

Epi: 1:10,000, dose 10-30 mcg/kg IV or 0.05-0.1 mcg/kg intratracheal

Volume expansion:
PRBCs 10 ml/kg over 5-10 minutes
NS
LR

120
Q

Discuss emergency meds for neonatal resuscitation:

A

Epi: 1:10,000, dose 10-30 mcg/kg IV or 0.05-0.1 mcg/kg intratracheal

Volume expansion:
PRBCs 10 ml/kg over 5-10 minutes
NS
LR

121
Q

Neonatal resuscitation algorithm

A
122
Q

What physiologic increases does progesterone cause?

A

Minute ventilation (decreased PaCO2 and increased HCO3 excretion)
RAAS activity (increased blood volume -> increased CO)
Vascular muscle relaxation (decreased SVR and decreased PVR)
Sensitivity to local anesthetics

123
Q

What physiologic decreased does progesterone cause?

A

Airway resistance (increased bronchodilation)
MAC
Lower esophageal sphincter tone

Boards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions