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Nursing III > OB (1) > Flashcards

OB (1) Flashcards

1
Q

number of live births in 1 year per 1000 population

A

birth rate

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2
Q

all deaths during pregnancy and within 1 year following the end of pregnancy

A

pregnancy-associated deaths

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3
Q

number of maternal deaths from births and complications of pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium (the first 42 days after termination of the pregnancy) per 100,000 live births

A

maternal mortality rate

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4
Q

an infant who, at birth, demonstrates no signs of life, such as breathing, heartbeat, or voluntary muscle movements

A

stillbirth

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5
Q

number of stillbirths and number of neonatal deaths per 1000 live births

A

perinatal mortality rate

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6
Q

number of births per 1000 women between the ages of 15 to 44 years, calculated on an annual basis

A

fertility rate

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7
Q

an embryo or fetus that is removed or expelled from the uterus at 20 weeks of gestation or less, weighs 500g or less, or measures 25cm or less

A

abortus

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8
Q

number of deaths of infants younger than 1 year of age per 1000 live births

A

infant mortality rate

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9
Q

number of deaths of infants younger than 28 days of age per 1000 live births

A

neonatal mortality rate

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10
Q

deaths that are a complication of pregnancy, an aggravation of an unrelated condition by the physiology of pregnancy, or a chain of events initiated by the pregnancy

A

pregnancy-related deaths

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11
Q

specialty area of nursing practice that focuses on the care of child-bearing women and their families through all stages of pregnancy and childbirth, as well as the first 4 weeks after birth

A

maternity nursing

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12
Q

a set of goals based on assessments of major risks to health and wellness, changes in public health priorities, and issues related to the health preparedness and prevention of our nation

A

healthy people 2030

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13
Q

a set of 17 goals to be achieved by 2030 that respond to the world’s main development challenges and are replacing the previous Millennium Development Goals

A

Sustainable Development Goals

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14
Q

approach to healthcare that encompasses complementary and alternative therapies in combination with conventional Western modalities of treatment

A

integrative health care

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15
Q

an umbrella term for the use of communication technologies and electronic information to provide or support health care when the participants are separated by distance

A

telehealth

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16
Q

this percentage of maternal deaths are preventable, primarily through the access to and the use of prenatal care services

A

60

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17
Q

term that refers to a spectrum of abilities ranging from reading an appointment slip to interpreting medication instructions

A

health literacy

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18
Q

nonbiologic factor which have profound influences on health

A

social determents of health

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19
Q

guidelines for nursing practice that reflect current knowledge, represent levels of practice agreed on by leaders in the specialty, and can be used for clinical benchmarking

A

standards of practice

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20
Q

a list of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols developed by the joint commission to decrease the risk of errors in the administration of medications

A

“Do Not Use” List

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21
Q

term used by the joint commission to describe an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or risk thereof that is not due to underlying conditions

A

sentinel event

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22
Q

failure to recognize or act on early signs of distress. Key components include careful surveillance and identification of complications and quick action to initiate appropriate interventions and activate a team response

A

failure to rescue

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23
Q

level of practice that a reasonably prudent nurse would provide in the same or similar circumstances

A

standard of care

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24
Q

when faculty and students from two or more health professions create and foster a collaborative environment

A

interprofessional education

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25
Q

a teamwork system for health professionals to provides higher quality, safer patient care. It provides an evidence base to improve communication and teamwork skills

A

TeamSTEPPS

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26
Q

an ongoing process that influences a person throughout his or her life. It provides an individual with beliefs and values about each facet of life that are passed from one generation to the next

A

culture

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27
Q

recognizing that people from different cultural backgrounds comprehend the same objects and situations differently; that a culture determines a person’s viewpoint

A

culture relativism

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28
Q

Changes that occur within one group or amongst several groups when people from different cultures come in contact with one another to exchange and adopt each other’s mannerisms styles and practices

A

Acculturation

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29
Q

Process in which one cultural group loses its identity and becomes a part of the dominant culture

A

Assimilation

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30
Q

A belief that one’s cultural way of doing things is the right way supporting the notion that my group is the best

A

Ethnocentrism

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31
Q

Approach that involves the ability to think, feel and act in ways that acknowledge respect and build upon ethnic, cultural and linguistic diversity to act in ways that meet the needs of the patient and are respectful of ways and traditions that may be different from one’s own

A

Cultural competence

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32
Q

Type of time orientation that maintains a focus on achieving long-term goals, families, or people who practice this time orientation are more likely to return for follow-up visits related to healthcare and to participate in primary prevention activities

A

Future oriented

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33
Q

Type of time, orientation of families, or people who are more likely to strive to maintain tradition or the status quo, and have a little motivation for formulating future goals

A

Past oriented

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34
Q

Type of time, orientation of families, or people who may have difficulty adhering to strict schedules and are often described as living for the moment

A

Present oriented

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35
Q

Cultural concept that reflects dimensions of personal comfort zones. Actions such as touching, placing the woman in proximity to others, taking away personal possessions, and making decisions for the woman can decrease personal security and heighten anxiety.

A

Personal space

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36
Q

A unit of socialization and nurturing within a community that preserves and transmits culture. It is a social network that acts a potent support system for its members

A

Family

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37
Q

Family category in which husband and wife and their children live as an independent unit, sharing roles, responsibilities, and economic resources

A

Nuclear family

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38
Q

Family category that includes the nuclear family and other people related by blood, such as grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins

A

Extended family

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39
Q

Family category in which an unmarried biological or adoptive parent heads the household; it is becoming an increasingly recognized structure in our society. These families tend to be vulnerable, both socially and economically.

A

Single parent

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40
Q

Family category that forms as a result of divorce and remarriage it includes step parents, stepchildren, and step siblings who joined to create a new household.

A

Married blended

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41
Q

Family category, consisting of grandparents, children, and grandchildren. This family form is becoming increasingly common.

A

Multigenerational

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42
Q

Family category in which children live independently in foster or kinship care such as living with a grandparent.

A

Non-biological parent

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43
Q

Family category in which children live with two unmarried biological parents or two adoptive parents

A

Cohabiting Parent

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44
Q

Term for the family tree format, that depicts relationships of family members over at least three generations; it provides valuable information about a family and its health.

A

Genogram

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45
Q

Term for a graphic portrayal of social relationships of the patient and family, including school, work, religious affiliations, and club memberships.

A

Ecomap

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46
Q

Groups within the community, who are more likely to experience health status problems, and negative health outcomes as a result of a variety of social, cultural, economic, and environmental risk factors that contribute to disparities and health

A

Vulnerable populations

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47
Q

This type of breathing replaces abdominal breathing as pregnancy progresses, and is accomplished by using diaphragm instead of the costal muscles

A

Thoracic breathing

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48
Q

The three 3-month periods into which pregnancy is divided

A

Trimesters

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49
Q

Hormone responsible for the decreased tone and motility of smooth muscles and decreasing uterine contractility

A

Progesterone

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50
Q

Hormone responsible for enlargement of uterus and breast, pelvic ligaments, and joints, and a decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsin

A

Estrogen

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51
Q

Hormone responsible for preparing breasts for lacation

A

Serum prolactin

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52
Q

Hormone responsible for stimulating, uterine contractions, and milk ejection from breast after birth

A

Oxytocin

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53
Q

Change in blood pressure that can occur when a pregnant woman lies on her back for an examination of her abdomen

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

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54
Q

In supine hypotensive syndrome, what is compressed by the weight of the abdominal contents, including the uterus

A

Vena cava

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55
Q

The biologic marker on which pregnancy tests are based. It’s presence in urine or serum results in a positive pregnancy test result.

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

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56
Q

Irregular, painless, uterine contractions that can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of pregnancy.

A

Braxton Hicks

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57
Q

A rushing hour blowing sound of maternal blood flow through the uterine arteries to the placenta that is synchronous with the maternal pulse.

A

Uterine souffle

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58
Q

Sound of fetal blood coursing through the umbilical cord; it is synchronous with the fetal heart rate

A

Funic souffle

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59
Q

Fetal movements first felt by the pregnant woman as early as 14 to 16 weeks of gestation

A

Quickening

60
Q

Change in blood pressure as a result of compression of abdominal blood vessels and decreasing cardiac output when a woman lies down on her back

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

61
Q

Severe itching of the skin that occurs during pregnancy as a result of retention and accumulation of bile in the liver

A

Pruritus gravidarum

62
Q

Non-food cravings for substances, such as as ice, clay, and laundry starch.

A

Pica

63
Q

Excessive salivation

A

Ptyalism

64
Q

Fundal height, decreased, fetal head in pelvic Inlet

A

Lightening

65
Q

Cervix and vagina violet/bluish in color

A

Chadwick sign

66
Q

Swelling of ankles and feet at the end of the day

A

Physiological/dependent edema

67
Q

Cervical tip softened

A

Goodell sign

68
Q

Lower uterine segment is soft and compressible

A

Hegar sign

69
Q

Beetle head rebounds with a gentle upward, tapping through the vagina

A

Ballottement

70
Q

White or slightly gray mucoid vaginal discharge with faint, musty odor

A

Leukorrhea

71
Q

Enlarged sebaceous glands in areola on both breasts

A

Montgomery tubercles

72
Q

Plug of mucus fills endocervical canal

A

Operculum

73
Q

Pink stretch, marks or depressed streaks on breasts and abdomen

A

Striae gravidarum

74
Q

The anterior pituitary stimulates production of this by the end of the first trimester

A

Colostrum

75
Q

Blotchy, brownish, hyperpigmentation on cheeks, nose, and forehead

A

Chloasma

76
Q

Pigmented line extending up, abdomen midline to the top of the fundus

A

Linea nigra

77
Q

A decrease in cardiac output, fled by a reflex bradycardia caused by compression of the vena cava in the second half of pregnancy

A

Vena caval syndrome

78
Q

Heartburn

A

Pyrosis

79
Q

Lumbosacral curve increased

A

Lordosis

80
Q

Paresthesia and pain in the hand radiating to elbow

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

81
Q

Responsible for slight spotting, following cervical palpation or intercourse

A

Friability

82
Q

State of hemodilution where there is a decrease in normal hemoglobin and hematocrit values

A

Physiological anemia

83
Q

Vascular spiders on neck and thorax

A

Angiomata

84
Q

Palms pinkish, red, mottled

A

Palmer erythema

85
Q

Abdominal wall muscle separated

A

Diastasis recti abdominis

86
Q

Red raised nodule on gum; bleeds after brushing teeth.

A

Epulis (gingival granuloma gravidarum)

87
Q

Pregnancy

A

Gravidity

88
Q

The number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses have reached 20 weeks of gestation, not the number of fetus is born. The numeric designation is not affected by whether the fetus is more alive or stillborn.

A

Parity

89
Q

A woman who is pregnant

A

Gravida

90
Q

A woman who has never been pregnant

A

Nulligravida

91
Q

A woman who has not completed a pregnancy with a fetus or fetus is beyond 20 weeks of gestation

A

Nullipara

92
Q

A woman who is pregnant for the first time

A

Primagravida

93
Q

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus fetuses who have reached 20 weeks of gestation or more

A

Primapara

94
Q

A woman who has had two or more pregnancies

A

Multigravida

95
Q

A woman who has completed her, her more pregnancies used to 20 weeks of gestation or more

A

Multipara

96
Q

Capacity to live outside the uterus; there are no clear limits of gestational age or weight

A

Viability

97
Q

Designation given to a pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but ends before completion of 37 weeks of gestation

A

Pre-term

98
Q

Designation given to a pregnancy from 39 weeks and zero days to 40 weeks six days of gestation

A

Full-term

99
Q

Designation given into a pregnancy that goes beyond 42 weeks zero days of gestation

A

Post term

100
Q

Pregnancy related changes that can be observed by an examiner, which can include Goodell sign, a positive pregnancy test, and Hegar sign

A

Probable signs

101
Q

Pregnancy related changes that can be felt by the woman which can include breast changes, nausea, and amenorrhea

A

Presumptive signs

102
Q

Objective signs that can be attributed only to the presence of the fetus which include visualization of fetus by ultrasound

A

Positive sign

103
Q

Rule used to determine the estimated date of birth by subtracting three months from, adding seven days, two, and one year to the first day of the LMP

A

Naegles rule

104
Q

Measurement performed beginning in the second trimester as one indicator of progress of fetal growth

A

Fundal height

105
Q

____ Tasks accomplished by women and men as they adapt to the changes of pregnancy these tasks include what?

A

Developmental; excepting pregnancy, identifying with role of the mother, re-ordering personal relationships, establishing relationship with unborn child, and preparing for birth.

106
Q

Rapid unpredictable changes in mood

A

Emotional lability

107
Q

Having conflicting feelings about the pregnancy at the same time

A

Ambivalence

108
Q

Change in blood pressure that can occur if a pregnant woman changes her position rapidly from supine upright

A

Orthostatic hypotension

109
Q

What are two techniques to assess fetal health growth?

A

Ultrasound measurements and fundal height

110
Q

Professionally trained woman who provides physical, emotional, and informational support to women in their partners during labor and birth, and in the postpartum period

A

Doula

111
Q

Tool that can be used by expectant couples to explore their childbirth options and choose those that are most important to them; it serves as a tentative guide because the reality of what is feasible may change the actual labor and birth progress

A

Birth plan

112
Q

Birthweight of 2500 g or less

A

Low birthweight

113
Q

Nutrient particularly important during the periconceptional period. Adequate intake is important for decreasing risk for neural tube defects or failures in the closure of the neural tube.

A

Folic acid

114
Q

What is the recommended daily intake for all women of childbearing age?

A

400 mcg

115
Q

Recommendations for nutritional intake that meets the needs of almost all healthy members of the population

A

Dietary reference intake

116
Q

Method used to evaluate the appropriateness of weight for height.

A

BMI

117
Q

What is a normal BMI?

A

18.5 to 24.9

118
Q

Vegetarian diet that includes milk products

A

Lacto-vegetarian

119
Q

Normal adaptation that occurs during pregnancy when the plasma volume increases more rapidly than RBC mass

A

Physiologic anemia

120
Q

Inability to digest milk, sugar, because of the absence of lactose enzyme in the small intestine

A

Lactose intolerance

121
Q

Urge to consume specific types of food, such as ice cream, pickles, and pizza during pregnancy

A

Food cravings

122
Q

USDA provided guide that can be used to make daily food choices during pregnancy and lactation, just as during their stages of the life cycle

A

My plate

123
Q

A discomfort, most commonly experienced in the first trimester of pregnancy; it usually causes only mild to moderate nutritional problems, but may be a source of substantial discomfort

A

Nausea/vomiting “morning sickness”

124
Q

Severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy, causing weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte abnormalities.

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

125
Q

Discomfort a pregnancy that is often related to iron supplement intake and may be relieved with increased water and fiber intake

A

Constipation

126
Q

Discomfort a pregnancy that is usually caused by reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus

A

Pyrosis

127
Q

A pregnancy in which the life or health of the mother or her fetus is jeopardized by a disorder, coincidental with or unique to pregnancy

A

High risk

128
Q

Assessment of fetal activity by the mother is a simple yet valuable method for monitoring the condition of the fetus.

A

Daily fetal movement count “kick count”

129
Q

Term used to refer to the cessation of fetal movement entirely for 12 hours

A

Fetal alarm signal

130
Q

Diagnostic test that involves the use of sound having a frequency higher than that deductible by humans to examine structures inside the body.

A

Ultrasound

131
Q

What are two methods used for ultrasound during pregnancy?

A

Transvaginal or abdominal

132
Q

Noninvasive study of blood flow in the fetus and placenta with ultrasound

A

Doppler blood flow analysis

133
Q

Non-invasive dynamic assessment of the fetus and its environment that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease

A

Biophysical profile

134
Q

Biophysical profile uses real time ultrasound to permit a detailed assessment. This test includes assessment of variables by ultrasound, namely ___, ___, ___, ___ and fetal heart rate reactivity by a non-stress test

A

Fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume

135
Q

Non-invasive radiologic technique used for obstetric and gynecologic diagnosis by providing excellent pictures of soft tissues without the use of ionizing radiation

A

MRI

136
Q

Prenatal diagnostic test that is performed to obtain amniotic fluid to examine the fetal cells it contains

A

Amniocentesis

137
Q

Prenatal diagnostic test that provides direct access to the fetal circulation during the second and third trimester

A

Percutaneous and umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

138
Q

Procedure that involves the removal of a small tissue specimen from the fetal portion of the placenta. Because this tissue originates from the zygote, it reflects the genetic makeup of the fetus and is performed between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation.

A

Chorionic Villus sampling

139
Q

Test used as a screening tool for neural tube defects and pregnancy. The test is ideally performed between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation.

A

Maternal serum alpha feto-protein

140
Q

Test used to screen for down syndrome, which are available beginning in the first trimester at 11 to 14 weeks gestation.

A

Multiple marker screens

141
Q

Screening test for Rh and compatibility by examining the serum of Rh negative women for Rh antibodies

A

Coombs (indirect)

142
Q

Non-invasive test based on the fact that the heart rate of the healthy fetus with an Intex central nervous system will usually accelerate in response to its own movement

A

Non-stress test

143
Q

Test that determines fetal response to the stimulation of vibration and sound; the expected response is acceleration of the fetal heart rate

A

Vibrioacoustic stimulation test

144
Q

Test used to identify the jeopardized fetus that is stable at rest, but shows evidence of compromise when exposed to the stress of uterine contractions. If the resultant hypoxia of the fetus is sufficient, a deceleration of the fetal heart rate will result.

A

Contraction stress test

145
Q

What are the two methods used for the contraction stress test?

A

Nipple stimulated contraction stress test and the oxytocin stimulated contraction stress test

Nursing III (3 decks)

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