NUTRITION IN SPECIFIC GI DISEASE STATES (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

What is intestinal failure (IF)?

A

State of insufficient intestinal capacity to fulfill nutritional demands, resulting in dependency on parenteral nutrition (PN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary site of digestion and absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens when diseases affect the small intestine?

A

They can lead to intestinal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the ESPEN definition of intestinal failure?

A

Decreased absorption of macronutrients, water, and electrolytes due to loss of gut function, requiring parenteral support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three types of intestinal failure?

A

Type I, Type II, Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Type I intestinal failure?

A

Acute, short-term failure due to self-limiting conditions like paralytic ileus, may require brief nutritional support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Type II intestinal failure?

A

Prolonged acute condition in metabolically unstable patients requiring IV supplementation for weeks to months, may be reversible or progress to Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Type III intestinal failure?

A

Chronic intestinal failure requiring long-term nutritional support, typically home parenteral nutrition (PN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are common etiologies of Type III intestinal failure?

A

Crohn’s disease, radiation enteritis, intestinal obstruction, dysmotility, intestinal trauma, congenital disorders, intestinal fistulae, vascular complications (e.g., ischemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is short bowel syndrome (SBS)?

A

Intestinal malabsorption associated with functional intestine length <200 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens during Stage I of short bowel syndrome?

A

Occurs in the first few weeks after surgery; significant fluid and electrolyte shifts require IV fluids to prevent dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens during Stage II of short bowel syndrome?

A

May last up to 2 years; structural and functional adaptation occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is structural adaptation in SBS?

A

Increase in size and absorptive surface due to cellular hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is functional adaptation in SBS?

A

Slowing of bowel transit to increase time for absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens during Stage III of short bowel syndrome?

A

Maintenance or stable phase; no further improvement or adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does nutritional management of SBS depend on?

A

Amount and location of small intestine removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) in SBS?

A

Decrease gastric acid hypersecretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What medications are used to slow intestinal transit in SBS?

A

Anticholinergics and opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 stages of post-resection nutritional management in SBS?

A

Stage I - Parenteral nutrition, Stage II - Gradual introduction of oral feeding with PN reduction, Stage III - Maintenance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What dietary strategies are recommended during Stage II of SBS?

A

Small frequent meals, avoid simple sugars, fiber, and nutrient-poor foods, separate fluid and solid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does feeding liquids only affect gastric emptying time?

A

Liquids empty faster than solids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which macronutrient empties from the stomach fastest?

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the order of gastric emptying speed by macronutrient?

A

Carbohydrates > Protein > Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is lactose usually well-tolerated in SBS?

A

Unless the proximal jejunum is resected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How much should dietary intake be increased in SBS patients?

A

At least 50% (only half of macronutrients are absorbed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is enteral nutrition (EN) advanced in SBS patients?

A

Slowly advanced while PN is isocalorically decreased over months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What symptoms should be monitored to assess tolerance in SBS patients?

A

Diarrhea, food/fluid intake, stool/urine output, body weight, hydration, macronutrient levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 clinical types of short bowel syndrome?

A

Type I, Type II, Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What characterizes Type I short bowel syndrome?

A

Only jejunum remains with end jejunostomy and no colon, with massive fluid shifts and poor adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What characterizes Type II short bowel syndrome?

A

Variable jejunum length connected to some colon, with slow nutritional deterioration without parenteral support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What characterizes Type III short bowel syndrome?

A

Best adaptation potential with preserved colon and ileocecal valve, production of GLP-1 stimulates adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the role of GLP-1 in intestinal rehabilitation?

A

Trophic effect and stimulates small bowel adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What clinical factors predict success of intestinal rehabilitation?

A

Residual disease, bowel length, degree of adaptation, duration on PN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What bowel length allows intestinal autonomy if the colon is intact?

A

70-90 cm small intestine with intact colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What bowel length allows intestinal autonomy if the colon is absent?

A

130-150 cm small intestine with no colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How much small bowel remaining is classified as severe inflammatory bowel syndrome?

A

<200 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of oral rehydration solution (ORS) is recommended in severe inflammatory bowel syndrome?

A

ORS with sodium concentration of at least 90 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How much ORS is recommended daily to prevent dehydration in severe inflammatory bowel syndrome?

A

2-3 liters per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What types of fluids should be avoided in severe inflammatory bowel syndrome?

A

Hypo-osmolar and hyperosmolar fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does osmolarity affect gastric emptying time?

A

It influences gastric emptying time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the management for partial ileal resection with intact colon?

A

Cholestyramine

42
Q

Should fat restriction be used for SBS Type I patients without a colon?

43
Q

When are Vitamin B12 injections needed in SBS?

A

If >50-60 cm of terminal ileum is resected

44
Q

What is the role of GLP-2 analogs in SBS?

A

Stimulates small intestinal mucosa, improving absorption

45
Q

What is the recommended timing for early feeding in acute pancreatitis?

A

Within 24-36 hours of admission

46
Q

What are the benefits of early feeding in acute pancreatitis?

A

Lower risk of multiple organ failure (MOF), operative interventions, systemic infections, septic complications, and mortality

47
Q

What is the key issue in nutritional therapy for acute pancreatitis?

A

Severity of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)

48
Q

In severe SIRS requiring ICU admission, what feeding method is recommended and when?

A

NG/NJ tube with enteral nutrition within 24-36 hours

49
Q

What is the recommended nutritional approach for minimal SIRS in acute pancreatitis?

A

Oral diet as tolerated, enteral nutrition only if oral diet fails after 4 days

50
Q

How does enteral nutrition (EN) impact severe acute pancreatitis outcomes?

A

Reduces total and pancreatic infectious complications, and reduces risk of death

51
Q

What are common factors contributing to weight loss in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Hypermetabolism, abdominal pain, malabsorption, and diabetes

52
Q

What type of feeding is offered in chronic pancreatitis patients?

A

Jejunal feeding

53
Q

What antioxidant supplements are recommended in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Selenium, ascorbic acid, beta-carotene, alpha-tocopherol, and methionine

54
Q

What dietary pattern is recommended for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Small frequent meals, avoiding difficult-to-digest foods (e.g., legumes)

55
Q

Is fat restriction recommended in chronic pancreatitis?

A

No, fat restriction is no longer recommended

56
Q

What type of fat can be used for extra calories in chronic pancreatitis patients with weight loss?

A

Medium-chain triglycerides (MCTs)

57
Q

What are the common side effects of MCTs in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Foul taste, cramps, nausea, diarrhea

58
Q

What vitamins and minerals should be replaced in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K), vitamin B12, and calcium

59
Q

What micronutrient deficiencies are common in Crohn’s disease?

A

Magnesium, selenium, potassium, zinc, iron, vitamin B12

60
Q

What percentage of Crohn’s disease patients have vitamin D deficiency?

61
Q

What is the preferred initial nutrition therapy in Crohn’s disease?

A

Enteral Nutrition (EN)

62
Q

When is Parenteral Nutrition (PN) used in Crohn’s disease?

A

Only if EN fails or cannot be delivered

63
Q

What percentage of cirrhotic patients suffer from malnutrition?

64
Q

What factors contribute to malnutrition in liver disease?

A

Malabsorption, altered metabolism, decreased storage, increased requirements, decreased intake

65
Q

What deficiency causes dysguesia in cirrhosis?

A

Magnesium deficiency

66
Q

What is the recommended supplementation for dysguesia in liver disease?

A

Multivitamins with magnesium

67
Q

What dietary restrictions further aggravate malnutrition in cirrhotic patients?

A

Sodium and protein restriction

68
Q

Why do cirrhotic patients have fat intolerance and fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption?

A

Decreased bile salt production

69
Q

How does hypoalbuminemia contribute to malnutrition in liver disease?

A

Causes small intestinal edema, reducing nutrient absorption

70
Q

What is the role of portosystemic shunting in liver disease?

A

Nutrients bypass the liver, preventing metabolism

71
Q

What metabolic changes occur in cirrhotic patients?

A

Upregulation of gluconeogenesis and protein catabolism, downregulation of glycogenolysis

72
Q

What is the impact of cirrhosis on muscle mass and protein requirements?

A

Muscle wasting increases protein needs

73
Q

Why are BCAAs preferred for cirrhotic patients?

A

They prevent hepatic encephalopathy by avoiding excess aromatic amino acids

74
Q

What micronutrient deficiencies are common in alcohol-associated and non-alcoholic liver disease?

A

Water-soluble vitamins (B and C)

75
Q

What deficiency can lead to Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff dementia in cirrhosis?

A

Thiamine deficiency

76
Q

What vitamin deficiencies are linked to HCV infection?

A

Folate and vitamin B6

77
Q

What type of liver disease is associated with more frequent fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies?

A

Cholestatic liver disease

78
Q

What deficiency is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

79
Q

How do vitamin D levels change in liver disease?

A

Decrease as liver disease progresses

80
Q

What role does vitamin E play in liver disease?

A

Deficiency may facilitate progression of fatty liver to steatohepatitis

81
Q

What micronutrient deficiency is especially common in alcohol-associated liver disease?

A

Zinc deficiency

82
Q

What are symptoms of zinc deficiency in liver disease?

A

Anorexia, altered taste, immune dysfunction, protein metabolism issues, hepatic encephalopathy, impaired glucose tolerance

83
Q

Why is zinc often coupled with vitamin C in supplementation?

A

Zinc enhances immune response

84
Q

What micronutrients may be reduced or omitted in parenteral nutrition for liver disease?

A

Copper and manganese

85
Q

What type of nutrition is preferred for cirrhotic patients?

A

Enteral nutrition (EN)

86
Q

What is the recommended maximum fasting time for cirrhotic patients?

A

No more than 3 hours

87
Q

What bedtime snack is recommended for cirrhotic patients?

A

BCAA peptide snack

88
Q

What are common complications in malnourished cirrhotic patients after surgery or liver transplant?

A

More infections, longer ICU stays, longer hospitalizations

89
Q

What lifestyle recommendations are given to cirrhotic patients with low resistance?

A

Vaccination and face mask use

90
Q

What is another name for diverticular disease?

A

Colonic diverticulosis

91
Q

What is the recommended daily fiber intake for diverticular disease?

A

At least 25 g/day of insoluble fiber

92
Q

What role do probiotics play in diverticular disease?

A

Potential benefit in treatment and prevention of diverticulitis

93
Q

What lifestyle factors increase the risk of diverticular disease?

A

Obesity and physical inactivity

94
Q

What diet and activity recommendations are given to patients with diverticular disease?

A

Weight loss and regular exercise

95
Q

What is dumping syndrome?

A

Rapid passage of food into the small intestine after gastric surgery

96
Q

What are symptoms of early dumping syndrome?

A

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, borborygmi, bloating, nausea, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, hypotension, syncope

97
Q

What causes early dumping syndrome?

A

Fluid shifts into duodenal lumen and GI hormone release after carbohydrate load

98
Q

What are symptoms of late dumping syndrome?

A

Hypoglycemia, sweating, hunger, fatigue, syncope

99
Q

What causes late dumping syndrome?

A

Excessive insulin release from rapid glucose absorption

100
Q

What is the dietary strategy for post-gastrectomy dumping syndrome?

A

Small, frequent meals high in protein and fat, avoid simple sugars

101
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake strategy for dumping syndrome?

A

Separate fluids from meals

102
Q

What types of foods help slow gastric output in dumping syndrome?

A

High pectin foods like bananas and oranges