CARBOHYDRATES AND PROTEINS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the cheapest source of calories providing 50% or more of calories in most diets?

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the general elemental composition of carbohydrates?

A

Cx(H2O)y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the recommended daily carbohydrate intake for males and females?

A

Males: 220-330 g/day, Females: 180-230 g/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the principal dietary carbohydrates?

A

Polysaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which polysaccharides are primarily digested in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Starches (glucose polymers) and their derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the structure of amylopectin?

A

A branched molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the structure of amylose?

A

A straight chain with only α1,4 linkages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the common dietary disaccharides?

A

Lactose (milk sugar) and sucrose (table sugar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the common dietary monosaccharides?

A

Fructose and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is sorbitol, and how does it affect blood sugar?

A

Sorbitol is formed when the aldehyde group of glucose is hydrogenated to an alcohol group, slowing its absorption and diminishing its effect on blood sugar concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the major storage form of polysaccharides in animals?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the structural similarity between glycogen and amylose?

A

Both are straight-chain polymers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are examples of non-starch polysaccharides?

A

Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins, gums, alginates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What makes cellulose indigestible by humans?

A

It is composed of beta-1,4-linked glucose molecules in straight chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the primary enzyme responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the mouth?

A

Salivary alpha-amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what pH is salivary alpha-amylase deactivated?

A

pH of 4 or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which enzyme is more efficient at digesting carbohydrates in the small intestine?

A

Pancreatic alpha-amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the end products of alpha-amylase digestion?

A

Maltose, maltotriose, and α-limit dextrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What enzymes hydrolyze disaccharides and small glucose polymers into monosaccharides?

A

Lactase, sucrase, maltase, and α-dextrinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the monosaccharide products of lactose digestion?

A

Glucose and galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the monosaccharide products of sucrose digestion?

A

Glucose and fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for breaking down maltose?

A

Maltase (glucoamylase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the substrate and product of trehalase?

A

Substrate: Trehalose, Product: Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the glycemic index range for ‘good’ carbohydrates?

A

≤ 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What glycemic index value is considered ‘bad’?

A

> 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the clinical importance of butyrate produced by dietary fiber fermentation?

A

Butyrate serves as a fuel for colonocytes and supports their development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What receptors are involved in the transport of short-chain fatty acids in the colon?

A

GPR43, SLC5A8, SLC16A1, and GPR109A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the significance of receptors SLC5A8 and GPR109A?

A

They are critical in the development of colonocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the preferred energy substrate of colonocytes?

A

Butyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the role of butyrate in gene transcription?

A

Inhibits histone deacetylases, modulating the epigenetic profile and transcription of selective genes in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the carbon source for ketone body generation in colonocytes?

A

Butyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of dietary fiber in fecal bulk?

A

Increases mass of fecal flora, leading to increased fecal bulk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does fiber affect absorption of sugars and fats?

A

Delays absorption of sugars and fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What component of fiber lowers serum cholesterol by binding bile salts?

A

Lignin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of carbohydrate transport depends on sodium concentration?

A

Glucose and galactose transport via SGLT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What transporter is responsible for glucose and galactose uptake from the gut?

A

SGLT1 (sodium-glucose cotransporter-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What transporter facilitates fructose entry into enterocytes?

A

GLUT5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is glucose transported out of enterocytes into the interstitium?

A

Via GLUT2

39
Q

What is the most common congenital disaccharidase deficiency?

A

Congenital Sucrase-Isomaltase Deficiency

40
Q

What are common symptoms of lactose intolerance?

A

Diarrhea, bloating, and flatulence after ingestion of sugar

41
Q

What test is used to diagnose lactose intolerance?

A

Breath test detecting excessive gas

42
Q

What causes secondary lactase deficiency?

A

Mucosal injury from infectious gastroenteritis, parasitic infections, celiac disease, or Crohn’s disease

43
Q

What genetic defect causes glucose-galactose malabsorption?

A

Autosomal recessive defect in SGLT1 on chromosome 22q13

44
Q

What is the treatment for glucose-galactose malabsorption?

A

Fructose, as it is not affected by the defect

45
Q

What syndrome results from GLUT2 mutation?

A

Fanconi-Bickel syndrome

46
Q

What are complications of excessive fructose consumption?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia,
hyperuricemia, and
gout

47
Q

What is the clinical importance of butyrate in colon health?

A

It serves as a fuel for colonocytes and supports the gut-associated immune system

48
Q

What are the transporters involved in short-chain fatty acid transport into the epithelium?

A

GPR43, SLC5A8, SLC16A1, and GPR109A

49
Q

What transporter is specific to butyrate uptake?

A

GPR109A

50
Q

What is the treatment for congenital sucrase-isomaltase deficiency?

A

Sacrosidase

51
Q

What enzymes are inhibited by excessive gastric acid in ZES?

A

Pancreatic alpha-amylase and other pancreatic enzymes

52
Q

How does fructose malabsorption manifest in IBS patients?

A

Fructose is not absorbed efficiently, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms

53
Q

What happens to glucose and galactose in congenital SGLT1 defect?

A

They are not absorbed, leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration

54
Q

What is the consequence of GLUT2 mutation in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Fasting hypoglycemia,
glycogen deposition, and
tubular nephropathy

55
Q

Why is fructose a suitable carbohydrate for patients with glucose-galactose malabsorption?

A

Fructose is absorbed via GLUT5 and is independent of SGLT1

56
Q

What short-chain fatty acid serves as a preferred energy substrate for colonocytes?

A

Butyrate

57
Q

How does fiber affect satiety?

A

Satiety is achieved more rapidly

58
Q

How is lactose intolerance treated?

A

Supplementation with lactase

59
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of congenital lactase deficiency?

A

Severe watery diarrhea upon receiving lactose-containing formula

60
Q

How does excessive gastric acid in ZES affect carbohydrate digestion?

A

Deactivates pancreatic enzymes, leading to malabsorption and diarrhea

61
Q

What happens to fructose upon entry into enterocytes?

A

It is phosphorylated, converted to glucose, and transported as glucose

62
Q

How does SGLT2 function in glucose transport?

A

It transports glucose out of the renal tubules

63
Q

What are the clinical consequences of consuming >50g of fructose?

A

Increased triglycerides, hyperuricemia, and potential for gout

64
Q

What transporter moves glucose and galactose into enterocytes?

A

SGLT1

65
Q

What is the role of GLUT5 in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Facilitates the transport of fructose into enterocytes

66
Q

What happens to glucose in Fanconi-Bickel syndrome?

A

Glucose is stored excessively in the liver as glycogen, leading to hepatomegaly

67
Q

What is the relationship between sodium levels and glucose transport?

A

Higher sodium levels drive more glucose into cells via SGLT1

68
Q

Why does lactose intolerance cause bloating and flatulence?

A

Undigested lactose is fermented by bacteria in the colon, releasing gas

69
Q

What is the primary source of essential and non-essential amino acids for cellular metabolism?

A

Proteins

70
Q

What condition results from a deficiency of proteins due to non-availability of essential amino acids?

A

Negative nitrogen balance

71
Q

What percentage of energy in an average Western diet comes from proteins?

A

10-15%

72
Q

How much endogenous protein is secreted daily in the form of digestive secretions and desquamated cells?

A

30 g/day

73
Q

What is the difference between plant-based and animal-based proteins in terms of biological value?

A

Animal-based proteins have high biological value; plant-based proteins have low biological value.

74
Q

At what pH does pepsin optimally cleave peptide linkages in the stomach?

A

1.6 – 3.2

75
Q

Which enzymes act as endopeptidases in the small intestine?

A

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase

76
Q

What is the role of collagen in protein digestion?

A

It is a major constituent of connective tissue, and its fibers must be digested for meat protein digestion.

77
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme cleaves aromatic amino acids from the carboxy terminal end of proteins?

A

Carboxypeptidase A

78
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme cleaves arginine or lysine from the carboxy terminal end of proteins?

A

Carboxypeptidase B

79
Q

What type of peptidase cleaves amino acids from the carboxy terminal of 3-8 amino acid peptides?

A

Amino-oligopeptidase

80
Q

What transporter facilitates the absorption of dipeptides and tripeptides into intestinal cells?

A

PepT1 transporter

81
Q

Which condition is associated with defective secretion of pancreatic enzymes, causing generalized malabsorption?

A

Cystic fibrosis

82
Q

What is the genetic cause of Hartnup disease?

A

A congenital defect in the transport mechanism for neutral amino acids in the intestine and renal tubules.

83
Q

What happens in lysinuric protein intolerance due to a defect in the basolateral membrane (BLM)?

A

Impaired exit of cationic amino acids leads to protein malnutrition, hyperammonemia, and multi-organ disease.

84
Q

What is the treatment recommendation for celiac disease?

A

Gluten-free diet

85
Q

What is the most common congenital defect in amino acid transport causing renal and intestinal symptoms?

A

Cystinuria

86
Q

Which transporter system is used for sodium-independent transport of neutral amino acids?

A

System L

87
Q

What happens when PepT1 expression is induced in colon cancer?

A

It facilitates the transport of bacterially derived peptides, promoting the inflammatory process.

88
Q

How is dietary protein digested in the stomach?

A

Pepsin cleaves peptide linkages, hydrolyzing bonds between aromatic amino acids and a second amino acid.

89
Q

Which brush-border enzyme cleaves proline-containing dipeptides with a free alpha amino group?

A

Dipeptidyl aminopeptidase IV

90
Q

Why are enteral diets based solely on free amino acids hyperosmolar?

A

Free amino acids increase osmolality, unlike dipeptides and tripeptides, which improve solubility and stability.

91
Q

Which amino acid transporter is sodium-coupled and primarily transports glutamine, asparagine, and histidine?

A

System N

92
Q

Which genetic polymorphism reduces PepT1 substrate affinity?

A

Substitution of phenylalanine at position 28 with tyrosine

93
Q

What is the role of gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase in protein digestion?

A

It cleaves gamma-glutamyl bonds and transfers glutamine to amino acid or peptide acceptors.