Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 1 - Gastrointestinal (DP) > Nutrition, Digestion + Absorption > Flashcards

Nutrition, Digestion + Absorption Flashcards

0
Q

What is the jaw opening muscle?

A

Lateral pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the three pairs of jaw opening muscles?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What nerve are the jaw opening/closing muscles supplied by and where does it leave the skull?

A

CN V3

Pons via foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve supplies both the general and taste sensation for the posterior third of the tongue?

A

CN IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What nerve supplies the anterior two thirds of the tongue for;

  1. General sensation
  2. Taste?
A
  1. CN V3

2. CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What nerve supplies the superior gingiva and palate?

A

CN V2 (general sensation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What nerve supplies the inferior gingiva and floor of the mouth?

A

CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What nerves are involved in the gag reflex?

A

Sensory - CN IX

Motor - CN IX + CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name of the branch of CN VII that supplies taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What nerve supplies the parotid glands and what fibres does it carry?

A

CN IX

Parasympathetic secretomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the only voluntary part of swallowing?

A

Tongue pushing food to oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four extrinsic skeletal tongue muscles?

A

Palatoglossus
Styloglossus
Hyoglossus
Genioglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of the;

  1. Extrinsic tongue muscles
  2. Intrinsic tongue muscles?
A
  1. Suspend tongue and move it

2. Modify tongue shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are the four pairs of intrinsic tongue muscle located?

A

Dorsally

Posterior lay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What nerve supplies all but one tongue muscle? What is the muscle not supplied by this nerve?

A

CN XII

Palatoglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What nerves supply the inner longitudinal pharyngeal muscles?

A

CN IX

CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of the inner longitudinal pharyngeal muscles?

A

Contract to shorten pharynx

Raise larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three parts of the outer circular constrictor pharyngeal muscles?

A

Superior
Middle
Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve supplies the outer pharyngeal muscles?

A

CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At what vertebral level is the upper oesophageal sphincter?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does the oesophageal plexus run, what does it supply and what does it do?

A

Along the surface of the Oesophagus
Supplies smooth muscle distally
Has PNS and SNS fibres - Influences peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are the oesophageal constrictions?

A

Cricopharyngeus muscle - Cervical
Aortic arch and left main bronchus - Thoracic
Diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The contraction of the diaphragm, higher intra-abdominal pressure than intragastric and oblique oesophageal entry create what?

A

Physiological lower oesophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What organs form the foregut?

A 
Oesophagus to mid-duodenum
Liver
Gallbladder
Spleen
Half of pancreas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the midgut organs?

A

Mid-duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

Remaining half of pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the foregut organs?

A

Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to proximal half of anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What causes peritonitis?

A

Peritoneum filling with

  • Blood
  • Puss
  • Faeces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the portal triad lie?

A

Free edge of the lesser omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the needle inserted in abdominocentesis and why is it inserted there?

A

Lateral to rectus sheath

To avoid inferior epigastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where do the abdominal sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord?

A

T5-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the route of the sympathetic nerves from the spinal cord?

A

Enter bilateral sympathetic chains
Do not synapse
Leave in abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
Synapse at prevertebral ganglia - anterior to aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where are the prevertebral ganglia located?

A

At major aortic branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do the sympathetic fibres reach the organs?

A

In periarterial plexuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerves supplying the adrenal gland leave the spinal cord?

A

T10-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do parasympathetic fibres reach the gut organs?

A

Vagus nerve travels on Oesophagus
Travels into periarterial plexuses
Synapses on ganglia in the organs walls

Pelvic splanchnic nerves
- S2, S3 + S4 - supply hind gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where do visceral afferent signals from organs enter the spinal cord?

A

Alongside SNS fibres
Foregut - T6-T9
Midgut - T8-T12
Hindgut - T10-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where and how is bilirubin formed?

A

Spleen

Haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the gallbladders role with bile?

A

Storage

Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the role of bile?

A

Fat absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

At what vertebral level does the coeliac trunk arise?

A

T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three branches of the coeliac trunk?

A

Splenic artery
Hepatic artery
Left gastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which ribs protect the spleen?

A

9-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the blood supply to the stomach?

A

Along lesser curvature
- Right gastric artery (branch of hepatic artery)
- Left gastric artery
Along greater curvature
- Right gastro-omental artery (branch of gastroduodenal which is a branch of common hepatic artery)
- Left gastro-omental artery (branch of splenic artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the blood supply to the liver?

A

Hepatic artery branches into right and left hepatic arteries - 20-25%
Hepatic portal vein - 80% of blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What ribs protect the liver?

A

7-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the four anatomical segments of the liver?

A

Right lobe
Left lobe
Caudate lobe
Quad rate lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the venous drainage of the liver via?

A

Three main hepatic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What two recesses are created by the liver?

A

Hepatorenal - Lowest cavity when supine (pus collection)

Subphrenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the venous drainage of the GI tract?

A 
Foregut
- Splenic vein to HPV
Hindgut
- Inferior mesenteric vein to splenic vein
Midgut
- Superior mesenteric vein to HPV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the neck of the gallbladder narrow to become?

A

Cystic duct

50
Q

What is the blood supply of the gallbladder?

A

Cystic artery - branch of right hepatic artery

51
Q

What are the four main layers of the GI tract wall?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Serosa

52
Q

What are the three components of the mucosa?

A 
Epithelium
- With exocrine cells
- Endocrine glands
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosa
53
Q

What are the roles of the muscle layers in the GI tract wall?

A 
Muscularis externa
- Circular - narrows and lengthens lumen
- Longitudinal - shortens and widens lumen
Muscularis mucosa
- Changes absorptive and secretory areas
54
Q

What are the names of the pacemaker cells in the ENS?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

55
Q

Why does the frequency of slow waves and hence smooth muscle contractions increase as we move distally along the tract?

A

Favours retention of contents

56
Q

What effect does PNS stimulation have on the gut?

A

Increased secretions
Increased GI blood flow
Increased peristalsis
Sphincter relaxation

57
Q

What effect does SNS stimulation have on the gut?

A

Decreased motility
Decreased secretions
Decreased blood flow

58
Q

What happens if food sticks in the Oesophagus?

A

A second peristaltic wave is triggered
- Stronger
- Locally triggered
Increased saliva production

59
Q

Each of these statements describes a polymer of glucose. Name the polymer they describe.

  1. Straight chain with alpha-1,4 links only
  2. Branched chain every 24-30 monomers with alpha-1,4 and alpha-1,6 linkages
  3. Branched chain every 8-12 monomers with alpha-1,4 and alpha-1,6 linkages with a protein core
A
  1. Amylose
  2. Amylopectin
  3. Glycogen (core is glycogenin)
60
Q

What links and monomers are present in sucrose and lactose?

A 
Sucrose
- Alpha-1,2
- Glucose and fructose
Lactose
- Beta-1,4
- Glucose and galactose
61
Q

This enzyme can break alpha-1,4 links but not

  • Terminal links
  • Links adjacent to alpha-1,6 links
A

Amylase

62
Q

What oligomers does amylase produce?

A

Maltotriose
Maltose
Alpha-limit dextrins

63
Q

What is the role of maltase?

A

Degrades terminal alpha-1,4 links

64
Q

What is the role of isomaltase?

A

Splits alpha-1,6 branches

65
Q

Why are the symptoms of lactose intolerance/lactase insufficiency?

A

Bloating
Abdominal pain
Flatulence

66
Q

What are three examples of endopeptidases?

A

Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Elastase

67
Q

What do endopeptidases produce?

A

Oligopeptides

68
Q

What are some examples of exopeptidases?

A

Procarboxypeptidase A

Procarboxypeptidase B

69
Q

What do exopeptidases produce?

A

Single amino acids

70
Q

What is the role of bile salts in fat digestion?

A

Emulsify large droplets to smaller droplets

Increases surface area for lipase action

71
Q

What is steatorrhoea?

A

Fat in faeces

Due to lipid malabsorption

72
Q

What problem arises due to bile salt action and how is it overcome?

A

Bile salts block enzyme access to lipid core

Colipase - Amphipathic - Binds to bile salts and lipase for access to core

73
Q

What happens to absorbed fats?

A 
Short and medium chains
- Diffuse through
- Exit basolateral membrane
- Enter villus capillaries
Long chains and monoglycerides
- Resynthesised into triglycerides
- Incorporated into chylomicrons
74
Q

How are amino acids absorbed?

A 
Brush border
- 5 Sodium-dependent co-transporters
- 2 Sodium-independent 
Basolateral membrane
- 3 efflux - Na-independent
- 2 influx - for enterocyte nutrition - Na-dependent
75
Q

How are glucose and galactose absorbed?

A

SGLT1 mediated

  • Hexose in D-conformation
  • Able to form a pyranose ring
  • Requires 2Na+ binding
76
Q

How is fructose absorbed?

A

GLUT5

77
Q

How do monosaccharides exit the basolateral membrane?

A

GLUT2 - facilitated diffusion

78
Q

What vitamins are water soluble?

A

B vitamins (not B12)
Vitamin C
Vitamin H

79
Q

What cancers does obesity increase the risk of?

A 
Uterus (endometrial)
Breast (post-menopausal)
Prostate
Colon
Oesophageal
Kidney
Gallbladder
80
Q

What satiation signals exists to reduce our food intake?

A 
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Peptide YY
Glucagon-like Peptide 1
Oxyntomodulim
Obestatin
81
Q

What is the role of Ghrelin?

A

A hunger signal
Increases food intake via the hypothalamus
Decreases fat use

82
Q

What is the only currently used drug for obesity?

A

Orlistat

83
Q

What treatment for obesity is associated with a high level of type 2 diabetes resolution?

A

Bariatric surgery - gastric bypass

84
Q

What patient features suggest they are in need of nutritional support?

A

BMI 5% weight loss
No eating for >5 days
Poor absorption/high nutrient loss

85
Q

What are the three salivary glands?

A

Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual

86
Q

What are the two stages of saliva secretion?

A

Primary secretion
- By the acinus
Secondary modification
- By duct cells

87
Q

What affect does PNS stimulation have on the composition of saliva?

A

Large volume
Watery
Enzyme rich
(M3 mediated)

88
Q

What effect does SNS stimulation have on the composition of saliva?

A

Small volume
Thick
Mucus rich
(B1 mediated)

89
Q

What cells are present in the pyloric gland area and what do they secrete?

A

D cells - somatostatin

G cells - gastrin

90
Q

What cells are present in the oxyntic mucosa (fundus and body) and what do they secrete?

A

Chief cells - pepsinogen
Enterochromaffin-like cells - histamine
Parietal cells - HCl and intrinsic factor

91
Q

What is the role of HCl in the stomach?

A

Activates pepsinogen to pepsin

Denatures protein

92
Q

What is the role of intrinsic factor?

A

Binds Vit B12
Allows its absorption in terminal ileum
Lack of intrinsic factor - pernicious anaemia

93
Q

What is the purpose of histamine in the gut?

A

Stimulates HCl secretion

94
Q

What are the roles of gastrin and somatostatin?

A

Gastrin - stimulates HCl release

Somatostatin - inhibits HCl release

95
Q

How is histamine release stimulated from the ECL cells?

A

Via gastrin

Via ACh from postganglionic PNS

96
Q

How does somatostatin work?

A

Inhibits gastrin release between meals

97
Q

What receptors are present on the parietal cell?

A

M3 ACh receptor - stimulates HCl release
Gastrin receptor - stimulates HCl release
H2 receptor - stimulates HCl release
PGE2 receptor - inhibits all three of the above - inhibits HCl release

98
Q

What drug classes influence acid secretion (give examples)?

A

Muscarinic receptor antagonists - Pirenzepine
Proton pump inhibitors - Omeprazole
H2 receptor antagonist - Ranitidine
NSAIDs - Block COX-1 - Inhibits PGE2 production

99
Q

What are sucralfate and bismuth chelate examples of?

A

Mucosal strengtheners
Bind to ulcer base
Increase mucus, bicarbonate and PGE2 production

100
Q

Why are aluminium hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide used together as antacids?

A

Aluminium - constipation

Magnesium - diarrhoea

101
Q

What are side effects of sodium hydroxide and calcium hydroxide?

A

Sodium - Hypertension

Calcium - Gastrin release

102
Q

What are the cutaneous stigma of liver disease?

A 
Spider naevi
Palmar erythema
Clubbing
Hair loss
Jaundice
103
Q

What other symptoms are present in liver disease?

A

Gross gut oedema and ascites

CCF

104
Q

What receptors are expressed more in alcoholics and why is this a problem?

A

CYP2E1
Once paracetamol is given, it is rapidly metabolised to N-Acetyl-p-benzoquinonamine (NAPQI)
This is toxic

105
Q

What is the role of peyers patches in the gut?

A

Antigen capture

Initiation of immune response

106
Q

What are the two methods of antigen capture in the gut?

A

Via Peyer’s patches

Across epithelium - dendritic cells extend processes

107
Q

What part of the mucosa is the immune response effector?

A

Lamina propria

108
Q

What special cells are contained in Peyer’s patches and what is their function?

A

M cells

  • Take up antigen
  • Release it at basal surface for dendritic cells
109
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin involved in GALT?

A

IgA

110
Q

What can IgA do in the mucosa?

A

Bind and neutralise pathogens and toxins
Bind and neutralise antigens in the epithelium
Transport antigens from lamina propria during secretion

111
Q

What process occurs in a non-inflammatory gut?

A

Commensals produce

  • PGE2
  • TGFbeta
  • TSLP
  • —-Inhibits dendritic cell maturation - Regulatory Th3 cells form
112
Q

What T cells form in an inflammatory gut?

A

Effector Th1 and Th2 cells

113
Q

What are the extra intestinal features of Ulcerative Colitis?

A 
Arthritis
Uveitis
Skin lesions
Mouth ulcers
Erythema nodosum
Clubbing
114
Q

How can Crohn’s disease and UC be treated?

A

Steroids
Azathioprine
Cyclosporin
Methotrexate

115
Q

How can intestinal failure be caused?

A 
Obstruction
Dysmotility
Resection
Congenital defect
Disease
116
Q

How can the three types of intestinal failure be described?

A
  1. Self limiting, short term post-op
  2. Prolonged, sepsis
  3. Chronic and stable
117
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Type 3 IF?

A

Home Parenteral Nutrition

118
Q

What is the definition of a hernia?

A

Abnormal protrusion of a viscus outwith its normal cavity

119
Q

A thin elderly woman notes a lump in her groin. She has complained of a decrease in defecation. She has no history of abdominal surgery. What type of hernia is this most likely to be?

A

Femoral

120
Q

A 45 year old man comes in with a lump than has increased his groin crease. The lump is more prominent when he stands and when he coughs. The man has a chronic cough and is obese. The lump is above the pubic tubercle. What type of hernia is this?

A

Inguinal hernia

121
Q

Congenital linea alba weakness predisposes to which type of hernia?

A

Epigastric hernia

122
Q

A patient with a lump in his groin presents. You apply pressure over the deep inguinal ring and ask the patient to cough. You find that the lump is reduced. Is it direct or indirect?

A

Indirect

Year 1 - Gastrointestinal (DP) (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions