Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Medicine > Nutrition > Flashcards

Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

Major digestive juices in the stomach

A

Hydrochloric acid and pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Major site of absorption

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Major site of water absorption

A

large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amount of energy yielded from Carbs and Protein:

A

4 kcal/g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amount of energy yielded for fats

A

9 kcal/g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

the formation of glucose from non CHO sources, takes place in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Protein deficiency with inadequate calorie intake

A

Marasmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Protein malnutrition with plenty of carbohydrate

A

Kwashiorkor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Amount of protein required for adults:

A

20-35% of calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Amount of carbohydrate required for adults:

A

45-65% of total calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FIber in the diet helps to:

A

improve laxation, reduces risk of CAD, assists in maintaining normal blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which type of fiber can have caloric value?

A

soluble Fiber. some energy produced when broken down and absorbed by the body. approx 2 kcal.g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does insoluble fiber do?

A

acts as a stool softener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vitamin B1

A

Thiamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Condition caused by Thiamin deficiency?

A

Beriberi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Korsakoff syndrome

A

memory loss and neurologic symptoms associated with deficiency of Thiamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vitamin B2

A

Riboflavin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Riboflavin is a co-factor for FAD, which is used in:

A

TCA cycle and fatty Beta-oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vitamin B3

A

Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Niacin is a co-factor for NAD, which is used in:

A

TCA cycle and fatty beta-oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Severe symptom of Niacin deficiency?

A

Pellagra with the 3 D’s: Diarrhea, Dementia, Dermatitis and sometimes Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptom of Niacin toxicity?

A

Flushing, gastric irritation, gout exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vitamin B6

A

Pyroxidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vitamin B12

A

Cyanocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vitamin B9

A

Folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vitamin B5

A

Pantothenic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vitamin B7

A

Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ascorbic Acid

A

Vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Deficiency of vitamin C?

A

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Retinol

A

Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Leading cause of childhood blindness and night blindness?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which vitamin is the most toxic of all vitamins?

A

vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does Vitamin D do?

A

regulates blood calcium levels, bone health, immune function, inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

D deficiency in kids?

A

Rickets - impaired mineralization of growing bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

D deficiency in adults?

A

Osteomalacia - poorly mineralized skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many minutes of sun is required for adequate D synthesis?

A

15+ minutes daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Major function of vitamin E?

A

Antioxidant - protects cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which lab test checks vitamin E levels?

A

serum alpha-tocopherol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Major function of Vitamin K?

A

activates part of the clotting cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Signs of calcium deficiency?

A

Rickets in kids, osteomalacia in adults. which may contribute to osteoporosis, muscle spasms, ventricular arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which mineral is strongly intertwined with Calcium and D?

A

Phosphorus (so can see rickets too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Main function of potassium?

A

transmits nerve impulses (esp cardiac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Signs of K deficiency

A

muscular weakness, paralysis, mental confusion, cardiac arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Diagnostic workup for all electrolytes:

A

serum electrolyte, urine electrolyte, and urine osmolarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal range for LDLs?

A

less than 130

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal range for HDLs?

A

Greater than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Normal value for TC?

A

less than 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Normal value for Lipoprotein A?

A

less than 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Normal range for TG?

A

Less than 165

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of chylomicrons?

A

Formed in the intestines and they transport lipids to the liver and are metabolized there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cholesterol plays a role in?

A

membranes, steroid hormones and bile acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is used for energy by muscles?

A

triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the NCEP recommend for prevention screening in adults?

A

A fasting lipid profile every 5 years for adults age 20 and over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If a patient has a hx of CAD or metabolic syndrome, what is their goal LDL value?

A

less than 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If a patient is at high risk with risk factors and family history, what is their goal LDL value?

A

Less than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Someone with FH, you would expect to see what values of LDL?

A

Homozygous - greater than 500, Heterozygous 250-500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Familial hyperChylomicronemia has abnormal…

A

lipoprotein lipase (allows VLDL back to chylomicrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If someone has high TG, what is the first step in treatment?

A
  1. Administer a fibrate, 2. Omega-3’s, then statin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which medication is the best HDL increasing med?

A

Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A side effect of hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Recurrent pancreatitis and hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are secondary causes of high TG?

A

Diabetes and alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or false, most patients with high cholesterol levels have no specific symptoms or signs?

A

True. Most are detected by the laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Extremely high levels of TG (above 1000), results in formation of:

A

eruptive xanthomas (especially on the buttocks)

64
Q

High levels of LDL result in:

A

tendinous xanthomas on certain tendons (achilles, patella, back of hand)

65
Q

A risk factor is subtracted if:

A

The HDL level is greater than 60

66
Q

Patients with 2 or more risk factors are further stratified by evaluating their 10 year risk of developing CHD using

A

Framingham projections of 10-year risk

67
Q

Besides LDL control, what are other parts of the program to reduce the risk of CVD?

A

smoking cessation, hypertension control, and aspirin. Exercise and weight loss may reduce the LDL cholesterol and increase the HDL. Modest alcohol use (1-2oz) a day also raises HDL levels and appears to have a salutary effect on CHD rates.

68
Q

After how much time should the effectiveness of diet therapy be assessed?

A

4 weeks

69
Q

Diets very low in total fat or saturated fat may low HDL cholesterol as much as LDL, true or false?

A

True

70
Q

A cholesterol lowering diet recommends how much total fat?

A

25-30% of total calories and saturated fat to <7%

71
Q

What other dietary changes may also results in beneficial changes in blood lipids?

A

soluble fiber, garlic, soy protein, vitamin C, pecans, and plant sterols, rich in antioxidants.

72
Q

Once the goal level is achieved, the lipid profile should be monitored periodically how often?

A

Every 6-12 months

73
Q

What are the primary and secondary results of Niacin?

A

1st will decrease VLDL, secondary effects include decrease LDL and increase HDL, and decrease Lp(A)

74
Q

What can help decrease the flushing and itching side effects of niacin/

A

Aspirin

75
Q

How do BSA(resins) work?

A

by binding bile acids in the intestine (and poop out), which causes the liver to increases its production of bile acids, using hepatic cholesterol to do so. So then increases LDL uptake and decreases serum LDL levels

76
Q

Why shouldn’t you treat a patient with elevated TGS with a BSA?

A

Because BSA can also minimally increase TGs

77
Q

What also should you be concerned about when administering a BSA?

A

GI side effects, decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (warfarin interactions with vitamin K)

78
Q

What do HMG-COA reductase inhibitors (statins) target?

A

they inhibit the enzyme involved with cholesterol synthesis in the liver which causes a compensatory increase in hepatic LDL receptors and a reduction in the circulating LDL levels. Modest increase in HDL.

79
Q

More serious and uncommon side effects of statins?

A

liver failure and rhabdomyolysis. Liver disease is more common in patients also on fibrates or niacin

80
Q

How does fibrates work?

A

Increase lipoprotein lipase

81
Q

When to not administer fibrates?

A

Patient’s with pre-existing gall bladder disease or with renal or hepatic insufficiency

82
Q

Goal of omega-3?

A

to decrease TG levels

83
Q

Is the regular hospital diet the same as the diet you would eat at home?

A

No, it is more healthy. Has no junk, lower fat, lower in sodium and higher in fiber and lean protein.

84
Q

Main points of the soft diet?

A

soft tender foods that are not necessarily pureed. used as a bridge to the regular diet. Excludes chewy, crunchy, or sticky. Indicated with poor dentition, or difficulty swallowing

85
Q

Mechanically altered/dental soft diet:

A

regular food all mushed up, like when you can’t chew but you can swallow (Missing teeth)

86
Q

What kind of diet would be indicated in a patient that has not had anything by mouth for a long time?

A

Full liquid diet, includes dairys and soups

87
Q

What is the standard post op meal?

A

Clear liquid diet with no pulp, no citrus, not a lot of substance. Does include jello and clear juices. No dairy!

88
Q

What are the indications for a low sodium diet?

A

HTN, heart problems, edema, liver disease, can see with a fluid restriction as well.

89
Q

AKA the cardiac diet?

A

Low cholesterol diet. for patients with high LDL, and CVD

90
Q

If a patient has constipation, chrons, or diverticulitis, give what diet?

A

low fiber diet with hydration

91
Q

Indications for a high calorie diet?

A

malnourished, burn victim, breast feeding, cancer or with hypermetabolism (COPD, ALS, burns, etc)

92
Q

What is the ADA diet?

A

consistent carbs, with no concentrated sweets

93
Q

Indications for renal diet?

A

Kidney disease, dialysis. Includes low Na, Low phosphorus, low potassium,

94
Q

When would a patient need enteral nutritional support (aka tube feeding)?

A

This nutrition would be necessary in patients with facial, oral, or esophageal trauma, severe dysphagia, comatose, hyperemesis, impaired digestion or absorption.

95
Q

Tube enterostomy

A

stoma or semipermanent surgically placed tube directly into the small intestine (bypasses GI)

96
Q

Parenteral nutritional support

A

feeding intravenously, bypassing digestion and absorption. TPN (total)

97
Q

When would you use central vein PN?

A

when planned to be placed for longer than a week. (chemotherapy, etc). Safer and reduce risk of blowing out a vein

98
Q

when would you use peripheral vein PN?

A

For treatment that is less than 2 weeks.

99
Q

Blood clots are a higher risk in which form of PN?

A

Peripheral, but definitely a risk in central too.

100
Q

Where does food eaten too quickly dump in “dumping syndrome”?

A

small intestine. Seen commonly in gastric bypass surgeries.

101
Q

Why is it Important to avoid re-feeding syndrome?

A

To avoid electrolytes getting wonky, so monitor labs and start low and go slow.

102
Q

Name two common adverse reactions of a supplement or food that can interact with a rx med:

A

Grapefruit juice and statins, and garlic with blood thinners

103
Q

Major causes of Vitamin D deficiency and insufficiency?

A

Decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D, poor nutrition, scarce exposition to sunlight, and a decline in the synthesis of D in the skin.

104
Q

How to prevent osteoporosis?

A

Primary prevention strategies include calcium supplementation, vitamin D supplementation, and exercise programs.

105
Q

Folate is required for proper cell division and DNA synthesis, and women with insufficient folate intakes are at increased risk for:

A

neural tube defects. All women capable of becoming pregnant should obtain adequate amounts of folate (400 daily)

106
Q

What could be a use of Echinacea?

A

treat or prevent colds, enhance immune system

107
Q

What could be a use of Ginseng?

A

boost immunity, energy, interacts with Warfarin, digoxin

108
Q

Valerian root?

A

mild sedative for insomnia or anxiety

109
Q

What could be a use of Ginko Biloba?

A

Improve memory in dementia patients, increases anti-coagulation.

110
Q

3 water soluble vitamins that can cause toxicity?

A

niacin, vitamin C, Pyroxidine (B6)

111
Q

Major problem with Pyroxidine?

A

Medication interactions can cause

112
Q

When should you use a sports drink in rehydration?

A

In prolonged exercise over an hour

113
Q

What is the most toxic vitamin?

A

Vitamin A (increased inter-cranial pressure, bulging fontanelles in kids, diplopia, dry skin).

114
Q

After exercise how soon will you want to take carb and protein?

A

30-45 minutes post workout

115
Q

Signs of hypercalcemia?

A

Stones, groans, thrones, and psychiatric overtones (which can be caused from D deficiency)

116
Q

Signs of Vitamin E deficiency?

A

cellebellar functions - proprioception.

117
Q

Advanced chronic kidney disease is the:

A

most common cause of hypocalcemia (muscle tetany)

118
Q

Describe the sources of energy the body uses as it exercises?

A

During brief moderate exercise energy comes from a balance of cards and adipose tissues. As it continues, glycogen stores decrease and blood glucose becomes the primary source of CHO energy. If glucose use outdoes gluconeogenesis and glycogen depletes then lipids become the primary source of energy.

119
Q

Symptoms of hyponatremia:

A

confusion, seizures, and altered mental status with serum sodium levels below 135. Results from intake and retention of water. Would need to check serum and urine and conduct thorough H&P. Start with fluid restriction and maybe administration of isotonic saline.

120
Q

What is Androstenedione?

A

steroid prohibited by the NCAA due to its ability to cause a false positive for steroid use on urine tests. Is ineffective at building muscle

121
Q

What is creatine?

A

Though to supply more ATP to the muscles during exercise, can cause weight gain due to water retention. Does not increase muscle mass.

122
Q

What is phosphocreatine?

A

Good for 10-20 seconds, purpose and AEs are the same as creatine

123
Q

What is the definition of Anorexia?

A

a BMI of 17.5 or less than 85% of normal for age

124
Q

Subtypes of anorexia?

A

Nonbinge/nonpurge (not eating anything or exercising a ton) or binge/purge (eating a ton but also getting rid of it

125
Q

What is bulimia?

A

Consuming an unusually large amount of food and loss of control during eating episodes. Can be purge or nonpurge

126
Q

Purging Bulimia:

A

Eating a large amount of food and then vomiting, use laxatives, Ipecac, diuretics, diet pills right afterward

127
Q

Nonpurging Bulimia:

A

Eating an excessive amount of food and then follow with excessive exercise (5 hrs) and then extreme restriction afterward

128
Q

Which type knows they’re doing something wrong?

A

Bulimics, Anorexics think what they’re doing is right

129
Q

To diagnose how often does bulimic events have to occur?

A

At least twice weekly for 3 months

130
Q

Some eating disorders are not otherwise specified and there are 3 subgroups:

A

Binge Eating Disorder (BED), Sub-threshold cases of AN or BN, and mixed cases

131
Q

Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by large amount of food intake and loss of control, as well as over 3 of the following:

A

eating very rapidly, feeling uncomfortably full, eating large amounts when not physically hungry, eating alone, feeling disgusted, depressed, or very guilty. No regular use of inappropriate compensatory behaviors (purge or exercise)

132
Q

If an eating disorder does not meet the exact qualifications of AN or BN, they are considered;

A

NOS, subtype: sub-threshold. IE BMI 18 or over, or not occurring frequently enough

133
Q

The most common type of eating disorder

A

Mixed cases NOS - has a mix of features of both AN and BN

134
Q

Why is amenorrhea a sign of an AN?

A

Because when you get below a certain level of fat the body stops your period

135
Q

Common signs and symptoms that you’ll see with an eating disorder:

A

rapid weight loss, secretive eating, wearing baggy clothes, raw fingers, frequent trips to bathroom, hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypoactive bowel sounds

136
Q

Which psychiatric disorder has the highest mortality rate?

A

Anorexia Nervosa, also has 50x higher rate of suicide

137
Q

What all needs to be included in treating AN?

A

Nutritional counseling, Pharmacotherapy + PSYCHOTHERAPY! Need to address the psych issues

138
Q

What are the names based on BMI?

A 
<20 = malnutrition
20-25 = normal
25-30 = overweight
30-40 = obese
40+ = severe or morbid obesity
139
Q

What are the classes of obesity?

A 
I = 30-34.9
II = 35-39.9
III = 40+
140
Q

Ghrelin

A

“hunger hormone” - that stimulates hunger and also lets out Orexin

141
Q

Orexin

A

from hypothalamus, which makes the appetite to crave food and arousal

142
Q

Which hormone is missing in narcoleptic patients?

A

Orexin

143
Q

Leptin

A

What makes you feel full, stops the hypothalmus from making Orexin.

144
Q

What are the 5 components that can lead to Metabolic Syndrome (need 3)

A 
HTN
Hyperglycemia
Abdominal Obesity
Low HDLs
High TGs
145
Q

Why is Metabolic Syndrome polygenic?

A

means there is a genetic cause along with a lifestyle cause (poor diet, smoking or drug induced)

146
Q

What are you at immediate risk for if you have metabolic syndrome?

A

cardiovascular disease, diabetes

147
Q

Risks of being obese?

A

hypertension, diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, heart disease, breast cancer, prostate cancer, uterine cancer, colon cancer. Also in kids, worry about bowed legs, respiratory apnea

148
Q

What are the 5A’s intervention framework used for?

A

Behavioral counseling with addictions, like smoking and alcohol, but can also be used for weight loss

149
Q

What are the 5As?

A 
Assess - BMI at every visit
Advise - behavior change advice
Agree -on  treatment goals
Assist - counseling or pharmacotherapy, referrals
Arrange - follow up appts
150
Q

Which is the most common surgical treatment for obesity?

A

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, attaches directly to jejunum, which interferes with absorption. See the most weight loss but also the most side effects and death. Interferes with fat-soluble vitamins

151
Q

Which surgical treatment of obesity has less side effects but also less effective?

A

Gastric banding, makes the stomach smaller but lose less weight. Absorption is NOT compromised.

152
Q

Side effects that can occur with gastric surgery?

A

infection, GI issues (reflux, vomiting), nutritional deficiencies, scarring

153
Q

Inadequate intake of Protein causes:

A

Kwashiokor. patients are getting enough calories through (rice, etc.), but just not adequate nutrients. Edematous malnutrition will see: peripheral edema, moon facies, protruded abdomen, skin hyperkeratotic (shiny, ulcerated), brittle hair…

154
Q

Physical signs of rickets?

A

Ricketic rosary on costochondral joints on the ribs is the only way to diagnose in adults with labs. In infants you see the hot cross bun skull and suture lines are prominent.

155
Q

Inadequate intake of protein and calories, causes?

A

Marasmus. Which is absolute starvation, will see wasting, no muscle, no subq fat, prolonged calorie deficiency

Clinical Medicine (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions