Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PBL > Nursing 2MM3 Exam Review > Flashcards

Nursing 2MM3 Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are modifiable risk factors?

A

Those that can be potentially altered through lifestyle change and medical treatment

  • hypertension
  • diabetes
  • high cholesterol
  • smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are non-modifiable risk factors?

A

Age, gender, race, low birth rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an ischemic stroke?

A

results from inadequate blood flow to the brain from partial or complete blockage of artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a transient ischemic stroke?

A

temporary episode of neurological dysfunction, symptoms last less than 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a thrombotic stroke?

A

Occurs when a clot forms in a diseased and narrowed BV in the brain

  • most common
  • sudden onset
  • usually remains conscious in first 24 hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an embolic stroke?

A

occurs when an embolus lodges and blocks a cerebral artery resulting in infarction

  • remains conscious
  • sudden onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

result from bleeding in the brain tissue or in the subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a intracerebral stroke?

A

bleeding in the brain caused by a rupture of a vessel

  • occurs during activity
  • sudden onset
  • decreased LOC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a subarachnoid stroke?

A

intracranial bleeding into the CSF filled space

- silent killer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are side effects of left sided stroke?

A

paralyzed right side, expressive aphasia, receptive aphasia, amnesic aphasia, global aphasia, dysphagia, slow and cautious, memory deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is expressive aphasia?

A

AKA: Broca’s aphasia

  • cannot produce language, spoken or written
  • can understand speech
  • singing can be used as a tool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is receptive aphasia?

A

inability to understand written or spoken language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is global aphasia?

A

Both receptive and expressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are side effects of right sided stroke?

A

Paralyzed left side, spacial-perceptual, impulsive and quick moving, memory deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a MRI used for?

A

used to determine the extent of injury, greater specificity in determining location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a CT scan used for?

A

fast imaging, indicates size and location of lesion, helps differentiate between the type of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is delirium?

A

state of acute mental confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is delirium characterized by?

A

acute onset, fluctuating course, altered LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are predisposing factors?

A

present at the time of admission, demographic, cognitive status, functional status, coexisting conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are precipitating factors?

A

noxious insults related to hospitalization, surgery, drugs, incurrent illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is hypoactive delirium?

A

decreased alertness, decreased psychomotor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is hyperactive delirium?

A

Agitation, restlessness and hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is mixed delirium?

A

alternating periods of hyperactive and hypoactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is dementia?

A

impaired memory, slow gradual decline, chronic, decreased orientation, decreased ability to perform ADL’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

cause by stroke or chronically damaged/narrowed brain blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are signs and symptoms of vascular dementia?

A

difficulty concentrating and analyzing situations, unsteady gait, restlessness, agitation, incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are risk factors for vascular dementia?

A

aging, increased BP, atherosclerosis, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Parkinson’s dementia?

A

a progressive neurodegenerative disease of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s dementia?

A

dysphagia, difficulty concentrating, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the progression of Parkinson’s dementia?

A

gradual onset, ongoing progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

abnormal protein deposits form plaques and tangles in the brain (connections b/w cells die off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

memory loss, disorientation, reduced cognition, decline in social skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

older population, genetic, hospitalization, medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are treatments for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

creating a safe and supportive environment, cholinesterase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is lewy body dementia?

A

protein deposits in nerve cells, accumulation of Lewy bodies results from the loss of neutrons that create ACTH and dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Lewy body dementia?

A

cognitive fluctuations, hallucinations, motor disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are risk factors for Lewy body dementia?

A

60+, male, family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is fronto-temporal dementia?

A

degeneration of the frontal, temporal, or both sides (tau protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are signs and symptoms of fronto-temporal dementia?

A

behavioural: loss of inhibitions, depression, compulsivity, loss of empathy
language: aphasia, loss of semantics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the progression of fronto-temporal dementia?

A

gradual decline, stepwise, rare, more common younger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Huntington’s dementia?

A

A progressive brain disorder caused by a single defective gene on chromosome 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Huntington’s dementia?

A

involuntary jerking, slow abnormal eye movement, impaired gait, difficulty with speech and swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are cognitive changes of Huntington’s dementia?

A

disorganized thinking, behavioural/emotional instability, lack of awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are behavioural changes of Huntington’s dementia?

A

depression, irritability, social withdrawal, insomnia, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is prediabetes?

A

blood sugars that are higher than normal, can turn into type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are risk factors for prediabetes?

A

high BP, high cholesterol, high BMI, sleep apnea, psychiatric disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

occurs during the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

cluster of metabolic disorders, abdominal obesity, increased TG levels, decreased HDL levels, hypertension, increased glucose levels, insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

insulin resistance or dysfunctional secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are risk factors for type 2 diabetes?

A

40+, family history, history of prediabetes, heart disease, hypertension, high cholesterol, overweight, sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are signs and symptoms of type 2 diabetes?

A

non specific manifestations, fatigue, weight gain, tingling/numbness, prolonged wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A

the pancreas does not produce any insulin, rapid onset, acute manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are signs and symptoms of type 1 diabetes?

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasic, weight loss, weakness, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is nephropathy?

A

microvascular complications associated with damage to the SBV’s that supply the glomeruli of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is neuropathy?

A

nerve damage that occurs because of the metabolic derangements associated with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is retinopathy?

A

microvascular damage to the blood vessels of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is hypoglycaemia?

A

extremely low blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are risk factors for hypoglycaemia?

A

alcohol intake without food, loss of weight without change in dose, taking too much meds/insulin, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

cold/clammy skin, headache, hunger, nervousness, tachycardia, confusion, nausea, numbness/tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is hyperglycaemia?

A

high blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are risk factors for hyperglycaemia?

A

corticosteroids, emotional/physical stress, illness, infection, lack insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are symptoms of hyperglycaemia?

A

abdominal cramps, blurred vision, elevated BG, headache, increased urination, weakness, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are symptoms of hyperglycaemia?

A

abdominal cramps, blurred vision, elevated BG, headache, increased urination, weakness, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is environmental data?

A

home characteristics, community characteristics, access to healthcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Friedman family assessment model?

A

identifying data, developmental stage and history, family structure, family function, family coping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the Calgary family assessment model?

A

developmental stages, structural, developmental, functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

a family’s cultural, historical, linguistic and ethnic origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is race?

A

influences individual members and group identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is social class?

A

shaped by education, income and occupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is religion and spirituality?

A

can influence their ability to cope with or manage an illness or health concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is environment?

A

the larger community, neighbourhood and home contexts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is gender?

A

a set of beliefs or expectations of masculine and feminine behaviours and experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is rank order?

A

order of children by age and gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are subsystems?

A

smaller groups of relationships within a family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a functional assessment?

A

how family members interact and behave towards each other

  • instrumental functioning
  • expressive functioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is instrumental functioning?

A

the normal activities of daily living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is expressive functioning?

A

the ways in which people communicate

  • emotional communication
  • verbal communication
  • nonverbal communication
  • circular communication
  • problem solving
  • roles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is developmental assessment?

A

nteractions between an individuals development and the phase of the family developmental lifestyle

1) family life stages
2) tasks
3) attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the McGill/Developmental Model?

A

family as a subsystem, health as the focus of worth, learning the process through which the health behaviours are acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a randomized control trial used for?

A

effectiveness of a prevention or treatment/therapy/intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a randomized control trial?

A

strongest design, people randomly selected to receive the intervention or not to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are pros of randomized control trial?

A

random selection and longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are cons of randomized control trial?

A

cost, long period follow up, generalizability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are cohort analytic studies used for?

A

effectiveness of a prevention, treatment, intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a cohort analytic study?

A

longitudinal, prospective study

  • 2 groups people select control or experimental
  • NO randomization
  • group differences may be due to factors that were there prior to intervention
86
Q

What are cons of cohort analytic study?

A

increased bias, expensive

87
Q

Cohort analytic study

A

Eligible participants –> non random allocation

  • -> a) school based –> i) outcome ii) no outcome
  • -> b) diet exercise –> i) outcome ii) no outcome
88
Q

What is investigator triangulation?

A

more than 1 data collector

89
Q

What is theory triangulation?

A

findings are examined in relation to existing theories

90
Q

What is member checking?

A

come up with an idea and go back to ask the participant

91
Q

What is PICO?

A

Population, intervention, comparison, outcome

92
Q

What is a case control study used for?

A

exposure is related to an outcome

93
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

looks at 2 groups of people, those that were exposed to the intervention and those that weren’t (look back in time)

94
Q

What are pros of case-control studies?

A

allows assessment of unreachable populations, control group included

95
Q

What are the negative of case-control studies?

A

hard to get control group that matched perfectly

96
Q

What is the mechanism of case-control studies?

A

Eligible participants

  • -> outcome –> i) exposure ii) no exposure
  • -> no outcome –> i) exposure ii) no exposure
97
Q

What is a cohort study used for?

A

What is the likelihood that a person will experience or develop the outcome if they are exposed to a disease

98
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

participants are followed over time, ensure the disease preceded outcome

99
Q

What is the mechanism of a cohort study?

A

eligible participants with exposure

  • -> outcome
  • -> no outcome
100
Q

What is a phenomenological approach?

A

the lived experience of individuals

101
Q

What is grounded theory?

A

the process that shapes behaviour and interaction

102
Q

What is ethnographic study?

A

how cultural knowledge, norms, values influence one’s life experience within social context of a culture or subculture

103
Q

What is homogenous sampling?

A

select participants who have similar narratives of a phenomenon

104
Q

What is heterogenous sampling?

A

select participants who can provide different narratives of a phenomenon

105
Q

What is snowball sampling?

A

used when no sampling frame exists

106
Q

What is theoretical sampling?

A

associated with grounded theory, aim to seek data that challenge emerging ideas

107
Q

What is the effect of smoking on surgery?

A

smokers are at an increased risk for post op complications

  • increased mucous thickness
  • greater difficulty clearing airways
108
Q

What is the effect of alcohol/substance abuse on surgery?

A

predispose the patient to adverse reactions of anesthetic, cross-tolerant, withdrawal

109
Q

What is the effect of obesity on surgery?

A

reduce respiratory and cardiac function, increased risk of embolus, pneumonia, poor wound healing, dehiscence

110
Q

What is the effect of immunocompetence on surgery?

A

excess thinning of skin, destruction of collagen, impaired vascularization, infection, poor wound healing

111
Q

What is the effect of malnourishment on surgery?

A

poor tolerance of anesthesia, delayed blood clotting mechanism, infection, poor wound healing

112
Q

What is the effect of young age in surgery?

A

less BV, dehydration, over hydration, airway management, temperature management

113
Q

What are respiratory complications of surgery?

A

airway obstruction, hypoxemia, hypoventilation, atelectasis (collapsed lung)

114
Q

What are cardiovascular complications of surgery?

A

hypotension, hypertension, dysrhythmia, fluid retention, DVT, syncope

115
Q

What are the neurological complications of surgery?

A

delirium, delayed awakening

116
Q

What are the GI/GU complications of surgery?

A

nausea and vomitng, post operative ileus, paralytic ileus, low urine output, urinary retention

117
Q

What are integument complications of surgery?

A

surgical site infections

118
Q

What are psychological complications of surgery?

A

anxiety, depression, confusion, delirium, disturbed sleep pattern, body image

119
Q

What is the mechanism of biguanides?

A

enhance insulin sensitivity in the tissues and improve glucose transport into the cells
- doesn’t promote weight gain

120
Q

What is the mechanism a-glucosidase inhibitors?

A

slow down the absorption of carbs in the small intestine

- not effective against hyperglycaemia

121
Q

what is the mechanism DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

enhance incretin pathways, stimulates the release of pancreatic beta cells

122
Q

What is the mechanism of SGLT inhibitors?

A

block the reabsorption of glucose by kidney, increasing glucose excretion and decreasing blood glucose levels
- enhances urinary glucose excretion

123
Q

What the mechanism of insulin secretagogues?

A

increases beta cell insulin production from the pancreas

  • promotes weight gain
  • hypoglycaemia
124
Q

What is the mechanism meglitinides?

A

stimulate a rapid and short lived release of insulin from the pancreas
- more rapidly absorbed and eliminated

125
Q

What is the mechanism of thiazolidediones?

A

improve insulin sensitivity transport and utilization

- increased HDL and BP

126
Q

What causes motor dysfunction in stroke patients?

A

symptoms are caused by destruction of motor neurons in the pyramidal tract

127
Q

What is the outcome of elimination function in stroke patients?

A

prognosis of only one hemisphere affected is good because there is partial sensation of bladder filling and voluntary urination, constipation is common

128
Q

What are warning signs of a stroke?

A

face drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulty

129
Q

What is the most important point in a patients history?

A

time of onset

130
Q

What is the time frame in which stroke will be assessed, acute health needs adressed, undergo diagnostic studies and receive thrombolytic therapy

A

4.5 ours from onset of symptoms

131
Q

What does acute care begin with?

A

airway
breathing
circulation

132
Q

What is the number of patients that worsen in the first 24-48 hours?

A

25%

133
Q

What always increases after stroke and what meds are given?

A

bp always increases; give antihypertensive

134
Q

T/F: many acute interventions are continued into rest of care

A

true

135
Q

Physical therapy focus on

A
  • mobility
  • progressive ambulation
  • transfer techniques
  • equipment needed
136
Q

Occupational therapy focuses on

A
  • retraining skills of daily living

- cognitive and perceptual training

137
Q

Speech therapy focuses on

A
  • speech
  • communication
  • verbal and eating abilities
138
Q

T/F: risk of aspiration pneumonia is low due to impaired consciousness and dysphagia

A
  • false; its high
139
Q

T/F: Enteral tube feedings also place the patient at risk for aspiration pneumonia

A

true

140
Q

T/F: only certain patients should be screened for swallowing ability and kept on NPO until they know

A

false: all patients

141
Q

What kind of airway is used to prevent the tongue from falling back and obstructing airway

A

oropharyngeal

142
Q

If a artificial airway is needed what may need to occur?

A

tracheostomy

143
Q

When should oral care be preformed when patients are on vent to prevent occurrence of vent assisted pneumonia

A

every 2 hours

144
Q

What scale is used to evaluate and document neurologic status in acute stroke?

A

NIH stroke scale

145
Q

What does NIHH measure?

A
  • severity

- predicts short and long term outcomes

146
Q

Goals for cardiovascular system are

A
  • maintaining homeostasis
147
Q

Why is hypertension sometimes seen after a stroke?

A

to increase cerebral blood flow

148
Q

What is important to monitor for before ambulating patient?

A

orthostatic hypotension

149
Q

After a stroke a patient is at risk for

A

venous thrombo embolism: not moving around much

150
Q

Most effect prevention of VTE is

A

mobility

151
Q

How should u position the joints ?

A

higher than the joint closer to it to prevent edema

152
Q

T/F: skin is highly susceptible to breakdown after a stroke; compounded by

A
  • true; lack of mobility, circulation and sensation

- age, poor nutrition, edema, dehydration and incontinence

153
Q

What is the most common bowel problem for patients after a stroke?

A

constipation

154
Q

What is used to prevent or treat constipation?

A
  • stool softeners (laxatives, suppositories)
155
Q

T/F: remove indwelling catheter as soon as possible to prevent infection

A

true

156
Q

Bladder retraining:

A
  • adequate fluid intake (7am-7pm)
  • observe for restlessness (pee)
  • scheduled toileting
  • bladder distention assessment
157
Q

Patients with left or right side stroke or at higher risk

A

right; mobility difficulties

158
Q

In wha time span should the nutritional needs be met by someone who has had a stroke

A
  • 72 hours
159
Q

What position and how long should the patient be in it after feeding

A

high fowlers; 30 min

160
Q

T/F: pureed foods and thin liquids are the best choice

A

false; to bland and smooth; can choke

161
Q

T/F: milk products should be avoided as they increase viscosity of mucous and salivation

A

true

162
Q

How is the effectiveness of dietary programs evaluated?

A
  • maintenance of weight
  • adequate hydration
  • patient satisfaction
163
Q

4 ways to check for swallowing safety

A
  • sit patient at 90 degree angle
  • assist patients head forward
  • assist patient to remain sitting for 30 min
  • ensure no food pocketing
164
Q

Delirium risk factors

A
  • older than 65 or 70
  • alcohol use
  • depression
  • extensive surgery
  • hip fracture
  • previous delirium
  • severe illness
165
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognize object by sight, touch or hearing

166
Q

apraxia

A

inability to carry out learned sequential movements by command

167
Q

t/f: elimination issues are temporary

A

true

168
Q

anomic apasia

A

least severe; difficulty naming things

169
Q

Dysarthia:

A

issue with muscle movement of speech

170
Q

2/3 strokes occur in people above what age?

A

65 years

171
Q

T/F: strokes are more common in men

A

true

172
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for stroke?

A

hypertension

173
Q

Diabetes increases the chance of getting a stroke by how many times?

A

4-5x higher

174
Q

What does the severity of function loss depend on?

A
  • location

- extent of brain involved

175
Q

T/F: stroke is the third most common cause of death in Canada

A

true

176
Q

Who gets strokes more? men or women

A

men

177
Q

Who is more likely to die from a stroke?

A

women

178
Q

t/f: those of colour are more likely to get a stroke

A

true

179
Q

What arteries supply the brain?

A
  • internal carotid

- vertebral

180
Q

When does cell death occur?

A

after 5 min

181
Q

when do thrombotic strokes occur?

A
  • during sleep or after sleep
182
Q

How do signs and symptoms of thrombotic strokes develop?

A

slowly

183
Q

What is the most common stroke? 60%

A

thrombotic

184
Q

2/3 of thrombotic strokes are associated with

A
  • diabetes and hypertension
185
Q

what are the two subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes?

A
  • intracerebral: ruptured vessel

- subarachnoid: intrancranial bleeding into CSF

186
Q

When do intracerebral strokes occur? Sudden or gradual onset of symptoms?

A

with activity; sudden onset with fast progression

187
Q

Possible causes of subarachnoid strokes are

A
  • drugs

- trauma

188
Q

t/f: ischemic and hemorrhagic symptoms are the same

A

true

189
Q

What would a stroke in the middle cerebral artery lead to?

A

greater weakness in upper extremities

190
Q

Aphasia

A

total loss of comprehension and use of language

191
Q

dysphagia

A

inability to communicate

192
Q

t/f: if stroke affects one side of your brain it usually doesnt interfere with bladder problems

A

true

193
Q

most important tests

A
  • MRI

- non contrast CT

194
Q

Which kind of infections are stroke patients particularly vulnerable to?

A

respiratory

195
Q

t/f: patients with left sided stroke are commonly faster in organization and performance

A

false; slower

196
Q

homonymous hemianopsia

A

blindness in the same half of each visual field

197
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

198
Q

ptosis

A

drooping eyelid

199
Q

Nutrition: patients with severe impairment may require

A
  • enteral: directly into stomach

- parenteral: into vein

200
Q

How to assess swallowing

A
  • elevate bed and presume with crushed ice or ice water to swallow
201
Q

Wound Dehiscence

A

separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges; preceded by sudden discharge

202
Q

Wound Evisceration

A

visceral organs protrude through wound opening

203
Q

t/f: Surgical wound dressings are left dry and untouched for minimum 48 h postop

A

true

204
Q

first sense to return in unconscious patients is

A

Hearing

205
Q

emergence delirium

A

Occasionally patients will wake up agitated; a condition in which patients may be disoriented to place, time, and person.

206
Q
  • The goal of PACU care
A

is to identify actual and potential patient problems that may occur as a result of anaesthetic administration and surgical intervention

207
Q

delirium tremens

A

post op reaction characterized by restlessness insomnia nightmares, tachycardia, apprehension, confusion, disorientation, irritability, hallucinations due to alcohol withdrawal

208
Q

Three phases of PACU

A
  1. right after surgery; intense monitoring and ECG
  2. Ambulatory surgery patients; prepare for transfer home etc
  3. prepare patient for self care
208
Q

Three phases of PACU

A
  1. right after surgery; intense monitoring and ECG
  2. Ambulatory surgery patients; prepare for transfer home etc
  3. prepare patient for self care
209
Q

One side neglect is common in left or right stroke?

A
  • right; forget to shave or dress one side

PBL (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions