NURSES LABS MIDTERMS Flashcards by Jan Jazmine Ferrer

The three primary elements that determine the pressure in the cardiovascular system are heart rate, stroke volume, and:

A. Baroreceptors
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)
D. All of the above

Answer: B. Peripheral resistance.

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Untreated hypertension can result to which of the following:

A. Stroke
B. Renal failure
C. Loss of vision
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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A student nurse was asked to take the blood pressure of a patient in the emergency room. The BP reads 140/90 mmHg. She would be correct to say that this BP belongs to ____________ classification.

A. Normal
B. Elevated
C. Stage 1 Hypertension
D. Stage 2 Hypertension

D. Stage 2 Hypertension

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Which of the following medications will decrease the therapeutic effects of quinapril (Accupril)?

A. NSAIDs
B. Allopurinol
C. Antacids
D. All of the above

A. NSAIDs.

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A patient receiving nitroprusside begun manifesting headache, distant heart sounds, imperceptible pulses, and shallow breathing. The nurse knows that these are signs of?

A. Reflex tachycardia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Cyanide toxicity
D. Severe alteration of blood pressure

C. Cyanide toxicity.

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The primary treatment for heart failure (HF) is ___________.

A. Increasing the heart rate so the heart can pump more blood
B. Decreasing the heart rate so the heart can rest
C. Increasing contractility so the heart will be able to pump more blood
D. Decreasing contractility to prevent muscle fatigue

C. Increasing contractility so the heart will be able to pump more blood.

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The most common cause of HF is ______________.

A. Hypertension
B. Valvular heart diseases
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Coronary artery disease (CAD)

D. Coronary artery disease (CAD)

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Digoxin was prescribed to a patient with ventricular tachycardia. What should the nurse do?

A. Administer the drug as ordered.
B. Discuss the order with the doctor.
C. Discontinue other intravenous medications before administering digoxin.
D. Count apical pulse for one full minute before administering.

B. Discuss the order with the doctor.

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What is the antidote for digoxin intoxication?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Digoxin immune fab (Digibind, DigiFab).
D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

C. Digoxin immune fab (Digibind, DigiFab).

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An infant who is receiving cardiac glycosides has an apical pulse of 80 beats per minute. Which is the best nursing intervention for this assessment finding?

A. Administer drug as ordered.
B. Withdraw the drug and notify doctor.
C. Assess apical pulse every hour for the next five hours.
D. Decrease drug dose and administer.

B. Withdraw the drug and notify doctor.

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What signals the novice nurse that intravenous milrinone was combined to furosemide in management of patients with heart failure?

A. Presence of bubbles
B. Pink discoloration of the solution
C. Formation of precipitates
D. No obvious sign. Solution is clear.

C. Formation of precipitates

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What is the therapeutic level for digoxin?

A. 0.5-2 ng/mL
B. 1.5-2 ng/mL
C. 0.5-1.5 mg/mL
D. 0.5-2 mg/mL

A. 0.5-2 ng/mL.

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In severe cardiac glycoside toxicity, all of the following should be in the bedside, except _________.

A. Lidocaine
B. Phenytoin
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. A and B only

C. Calcium channel blockers.

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Type of angina which involves spasm of the blood vessels

A. Stable angina
B. Pre-infarction angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Prinzmetal angina

D. Prinzmetal angina.

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Contraction and relaxation in each cardiac cycle is controlled by:

A. autonomic nervous system
B. the heart
C. cranial nerves
D. central nervous system

B. the heart.

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All of the following can cause arrhythmia, except:

A. acidosis
B. respiratory depression
C. hyperkalemia
D. none of the above

D. None of the above.

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Verapamil and diltiazem belong to which class of antiarrhythmics?

A. Class IV
B. Class III
C. Class Ia
D. Class II

A. Class IV

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The conduction system of the heart include the following:

A. Sinoatrial node
B. Bundle of Purkinje
C. His Fibers
D. Atriomyocardial node

A. Sinoatrial node.

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The phase of cardiac muscle cell action potential characterized by calcium entering the cell and potassium leaving the cell.

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4

B. Phase 2.

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Beta-adrenergic blockers belong to which class of antiarrhythmics?

A. Class Ia
B. Class Ib
C. Class II
D. Class IV

C. Class II.

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Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks potassium channels?

A. Class Ia
B. Class IV
C. Class Ib
D. Class III

D. Class III.

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This is the preferred antiarrhythmic in Advanced Cardiac Life Support protocol.

A. ibutilide (Corvert)
B. propranolol (Inderal)
C. procainamide (Pronestyl)
D. amiodarone (Cordarone)

D. amiodarone (Cordarone)

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What is the difference between Class Ia and Ib antiarrhythmics?

A. Ia depresses phase 0 and Ib depressed phase I.
B. Ia shortens the duration of action potential and Ib prolongs the duration of action potential.
C. Ia prolongs the duration of action potential and Ib shortens the duration of action potential.
D. Ia extremely slows down conduction and Ib has no effect on conduction.

C. Class Ia prolongs duration of action potential and Ib shortens the duration of action potential.

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A patient who is receiving quinidine should avoid the following foods, except:

A. skim milk
B. broccoli
C. Both A and B
D. none of the above

C. Both A and B

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The drug of choice for treatment of supraventricular tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. A. adenosine B. verapamil C. digoxin D. lidocaine

A. adenosine.

Lipid levels of individuals with coronary artery disease (CAD) is usually high. All of the following are factors of CAD, except: A. Men B. Gout C. Untreated Chlamydia infections D. None of the above

D. None of the above.

Antihyperlipidemic agent that is used to decrease plasma cholesterol levels. A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors C. Bile acid sequestrants D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitor

C. Bile acid sequestrants

A pregnant woman needs a lipid-lowering agent. What would be the best class of lipid-lowering agent for pregnant women? A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors B. Bile acid sequestrants C. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

B. Bile acid sequestrants.

The only statin with outcome data to show effectiveness in decreasing CAD and incidence of myocardial infarction. A. atorvastatin (Lipitor) B. simvastatin (Zocor) C. pravastatin (Pravachol) D. fluvastatin (Lescol)

C. pravastatin (Pravachol)

Which of the following medical conditions will render antihyperlipidemics ineffective? A. biliary obstruction B. diabetes mellitus C. both A and B D. none of the above

A. biliary obstruction.

This drug works on the brush border of the intestines. A. ezetimibe B. pitavastatin C. gemfibrozil D. colestipol

A. ezetimibe

7. A patient who is taking a bile acid sequestrant complains of abdominal distention and nausea. What should the nurse do? A. Document, withdraw drug, and notify doctor. B. Provide comfort measures. C. Prepare emergency equipment at bedside. D. Dismiss the complaint.

B. Provide comfort measures.

What vitamin plays a role in lowering cholesterol concentration? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B2

C. Vitamin B3

When should statins be taken to maximize its therapeutic effects? A. After meals B. During meals C. At night D. In the mornings

C. At night.

The doctor ordered atorvastatin for an obese client’s hyperlipidemia. This patient is receiving erythromycin for a toe infection at the same time. The nurse knows that this combination should be avoided because? A. It increases risk of atorvastatin toxicity. B. It can result to potentially fatal lipolysis. C. It can result to breakdown of muscles. D. It decreases the effectiveness of erythromycin.

C. It can result in breakdown of muscles.

Which organ(s) produce(s) clotting factors? A. Bone marrow B. Spleen and other lymphoid tissues C. Liver D. Both B and C

C. Liver.

What is the first reaction to a blood vessel injury? A. Vasodilation and swelling B. Vasoconstriction C. Bleeding D. Blood coagulation

B. Vasoconstriction.

Which of the following substances will alert the nurse for an increased risk of bleeding in a patient taking clopidogrel? A. Chamomile tea B. Orange juice C. Candied mushrooms D. Peanuts

Chamomile tea.

What drug refers to the ability to help patient feel calm and unaware of his environment? A. Anesthesia B. Sedatives C. Hypnotics D. Anxiolytics

B. Sedatives.

The most commonly used anxiolytics. A. Benzodiazepines B. Diphenhydramine C. Barbiturates D. Buspirone

A. Benzodiazepines.

Which of the following medical condition(s) can be considered as contraindication(s) to use of anxiolytics and hypnotics? A. Psychosis B. Alcoholic intoxication C. Acute gastroenteritis D. Both A and B

D. Both A & B.

What is the antidote of benzodiazepine? A. Theophylline B. Ranitidine C. Flumazenil D. Benadryl

C. Flumazenil

Abrupt withdrawal of barbiturates can precipitate what medical condition? A. Ascites B. Hypertensive crisis C. Status epilepticus D. Coma

C. Status epilepticus

Nortriptyline and protriptyline are classified as what class of TCAs? A. Amines B. Secondary amines C. Tetracyclics D. None of the above

B. Secondary amines.

The following are true about depression, except: A. External causes always play a part in assessment and diagnosis. B. Patients with depression have trouble sleeping and eating. C. Depression can lead to multiple physical problems. D. None of the above.

A. External causes always play a part in assessment and diagnosis.

Which TCA is also approved for use in patients with OCD? A. Imipramine B. Clomipramine C. Sertraline D. Amitriptyline

B. Clomipramine.

A combination of MAOIs and TCAs will precipitate which drug adverse effect? A. Severe hypertensive crisis B. Severe hyperpyretic crisis C. Severe hypnotic crisis D. Severe amnesia

B. Severe hyperpyretic crisis.

What is the treatment for hypertensive crisis caused by MAOI? A. Phentolamine B. Adenosine C. Propanolol D. Nifedipine

A. Phentolamine

How many weeks will the full therapeutic effects of SSRIs be realized? A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 8 weeks

B. 4 weeks

Student nurse Anne is currently on her psychiatric ward rotation and her clinical instructor engaged her in an oral quiz on psychotherapeutic agents. She would be right to answer that loxapine, thiothixene, and fluphenazine belong to which psychotherapeutic agent classification? A. Typical antipsychotics B. Atypical antipsychotics C. Antimanic drugs D. CNS stimulants

A. Typical antipsychotics.

All of the following are not true about psychotherapeutic agents, except: A. These agents are not indicated for behavioral disorders. B. Psychotherapeutic agents perform their curative functions in patients with psychoses. C. Antipsychotics address mental disorders mainly through their sedating effects. D. Psychotherapeutic agents help patients perform activities of daily living with ease.

D. Psychotherapeutic agents help patients perform activities of daily living with ease.

Antipsychotic which has a role in managing side effects of chemotherapy. A. Risperidone B. Haloperidol C. Prochlorperazine D. Aripiprazole

C. Prochlorperazine.

What is the top nursing consideration of a nurse who is taking care of an adult client with schizophrenia receiving antipsychotics? A. Monitor urine output. B. Obtain ECG tracing regularly as ordered. C. Assess bowel sounds. D. Provide comfort measures.

B. Obtain ECG tracing regularly as ordered.

All of the following are contraindications to neuroleptic agents, except: A. Children below age 12 B. Dementia C. Active alcoholism D. None of the above

A. Children below age 12

This drug is the mainstay treatment for mania. A. quetiapine (Seroquel) B. olanzapine (Zyprexa) C. lithium salts (Lithotabs) D. lamotrigine (Lamictal)

C. lithium salts (Lithotabs).

Antimanic drugs have effect on the following neurotransmitters, except: A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Serotonin D. None of the above

C. Serotonin.

Which of the following is the most important patient education for a patient receiving CNS stimulants? A. Proper storage of drugs B. Low-sodium diet C. Light to moderate exercises D. All of the above.

A. Proper storage of drugs

It is a rare type of seizure that appears sporadically. A. Febrile seizure B. Myoclonic seizure C. Jacksonian seizure D. Absence seizure

B. Myoclonic seizure.

Which antiseizure agents is used to treat absence seizures? A. Hydantoins B. Benzodiazepines C. Barbiturates D. Succinimides

D. Succinimides.

A patient on Dilantin began showing bruises and signs of active infection. The nurse would be right to anticipate that these manifestations give clue to ________________. A. Drug underdosage B. Hypersensitivity reactions C. Cellular toxicity D. None of the above

C. Cellular toxicity.

Which barbiturate is also indicated for management of anxiety? A. mephobarbital B. primidone C. phenobarbital D. mysoline

A. mephobarbital

Benzodiazepines exert their effect primarily on which neurotransmitter? A. GABA B. Serotonin C. Norepinephrine D. Both A and B

A. GABA.

ll of the following are direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants, except: A. botulinum toxin type A B. Myobloc C. Dantrium D. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above.

Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for children receiving muscle relaxants? A. Assess bowel sounds and activity. B. Provide skincare. C. Administer drug with food. D. Both A and B.

A. Assess bowel sounds and activity.

What is the centrally acting muscle relaxant of choice for children with tetanus? A. botulinum toxin type B B. Dantrium C. Baclofen D. Methocarbamol

D. Methocarbamol.

How long should Baclofen be tapered to prevent the development of psychoses and hallucinations? A. 12-21 days B. 1-10 days C. 7-14 days D. 7-21 days

C. 7-14 days

A patient who had a dose of botulinum toxin type A complained of headache and dizziness. What is the most appropriate nursing response? A. Provide comfort measures. B. Institute safety measures. C. Assess for possible anaphylactic reactions D. Both A and B

C. Assess for possible anaphylactic reactions.

What is the goal of therapy for Parkinson’s disease? A. To decrease dopamine and to increase cholinergic neurons B. To balance dopamine and cholinergic neurons C. To excite neurons more D. To inhibit neurons more

B. To balance dopamine (excitatory) and cholinergic neurons (inhibitory).

What is the mainstay of treatment for Parkinson’s? A. Symmetrel B. levodopa C. Cogentin D. Parlodel

B. levodopa.

The drug of choice in children with parkinsonian symptom. A. levodopa B. Artane C. Benadryl D. benztropine

C. Benadryl

Which can decrease efficacy of levodopa? A. Phenytoin B. Pyridoxine C. Niacin D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B.

A construction worker for 10 years is about to receive anticholinergics. What should the nurse consider in handling this patient? A. Do not give the drug to the patient. B. Administer it with caution. C. Discuss it with the doctor and have the order changed. D. Arrange for a possible increase in the dose.

B. Administer it with caution.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of anticholinergic agents? A. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute B. Myasthenia gravis C. Active hepatitis B D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Sensory nerves that respond to stimulation by generating impulses that produce pain sensations. A. A-fibers B. B-fibers C. C-fibers D. D-fibers

C. C-fibers

Pain that is caused by nerve injury. A. Neurotraumatic pain B. Neuropathic pain C. Nociceptive pain D. Psychogenic pain

B. Neuropathic pain.

Antidote for narcotic overdose. A. Naloxone B. Nubain C. Morphine D. Codeine

A. Naloxone

Narcotic agonist of choice for pregnant patients. A. Meperidine B. Tramadol C. Fentanyl D. Oxycodone

D. Oxycodone.

What is the treatment for opioid-induced constipation? A. Psyllium B. Relistor C. Ritalin D. Oxymorphone

B. Relistor

The only anesthetic gas used currently in medical and dental procedures. A. Nitrous oxide (pink) B. Nitrous oxide (blue) C. Nitrous oxide (green) D. Nitrous oxide (yellow)

B. Nitrous oxide (blue).

The depth of anesthesia where surgery can be safely performed? A. Excitement Stage B. Climax Stage C. Surgical Anesthesia Stage D. Stable Surgery Stage

C. Surgical Anesthesia Stage.

The most dangerous stage in the induction of anesthesia? A. Recovery period B. Excitement phase C. Medullary paralysis D. Analgesic phase

B. Excitement Phase.

Method of local anesthesia which involves injecting the anesthetic directly into the tissues to be treated. A. Nerve block B. Field block C. Topical D. Infiltration

D. Infiltration.

Tooth extraction often use what method of local anesthesia? A. Field block B. Peripheral nerve block C. Infiltration D. Central nerve block

A. Field block

Methohexital was used as an anesthetic agent for a patient. After the procedure, which is an appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate comfort? A. Discuss with the doctor the need for a prescription of analgesic. B. Keep the patient on side-lying position. C. Perform range of motion exercises on extremities. D. Reassure patient that everything will be fine now that surgery is done.

A. Discuss with the doctor the need for a prescription of analgesic.

Which non-barbiturate anesthetics is ideal for short procedures? A. Droperidol B. Ketamine C. Propofol D. Midazolam

C. Propofol.

Which anesthetic agent is usually used for children undergoing surgery but at the same time have respiratory dysfunction? A. Desflurane B. Halothane C. Ketamine D. Isoflurane

B. Halothane.