NURS270 Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

what is cultural sensitivity

A
  • recognizes and respects the unique cultural background of each patient
  • acknowledges the impact of culture on a persons beliefs, values, customs and lifestyle
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2
Q

what is cultural competence

A
  • process where we recognize the need for knowledge and skills to modify assessment and intervention strategies in order to achieve equity
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3
Q

cultural saftey

A
  • focuses on social and political power that redefines the provider-patient relationship with emphasis on self-determination
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4
Q

what framework is used to define cultural competence

A

ABCDE framework

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5
Q

what does the A stand for (ABCDE Framework)

A

affective domain

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6
Q

affective domain (ABCDE Framework)

A
  • an awareness of and sensitivity to cultural values, needs and bias
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7
Q

what does the B stand for (ABCDE Framework)

A

behavioural domain

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8
Q

behavioural domain

A
  • the possesion of skills that are necessary to be effective in cross cultural encounters
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9
Q

what does the C stand for (ABCDE Framework)

A

cognitive domain

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10
Q

cognitive domain

A

involves cultural knowledge (theory, research, and cross cultural approaches to care)

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11
Q

what does D stand for (ABCDE Framework)

A

dynamic of difference

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12
Q

dynamic of difference

A

differences in worldview’s exists and can be the basis for discrimination and racism towards minority groups and social power imbalances

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13
Q

what does the E stand for (ABCDE Framework)

A

equity

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14
Q

equity (ABCDE Framework)

A

highlights the needs for equity in care and for attending to the practice environment (including support for clinicians)

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15
Q

what are the 3 levels of dynamic of difference

A
  • nurse patient level
  • patient health system level
  • patient society level
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16
Q

nurse patient level (dynamic of difference)

A

nurses are aware of won biases and recognize that patients have their own biases aswell
- build trust, respect patients right an autonomy, recognize where margilization or exculsion can occur

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17
Q

patient health system level (dynamic of difference)

A

the extent to which patients/families feel understood and supported

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18
Q

patient society level (dynamic of difference)

A

considering the effect of systemic oppression and institutional racism

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19
Q

what is asthma

A
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20
Q

asthma triggers

A
  • excersize
  • pollen
  • bugs in home
  • chemical fumes
  • cold air
  • fungus spores
  • dust
  • smoke
  • strong odors
  • pollution
  • anger
  • stress
    -pets
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21
Q

mild-moderate asthma symptoms

A
  • frequent coughing
  • night waking to cough or early morning cough
  • increased wheezing
  • gradula increase in activity intolerance
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22
Q

servere asthma symptoms

A
  • rescue medication not effective
  • significant difficulty with breathing, increased wheezing, uncontrolled cough
  • cyanosis
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23
Q

life threatening asthma symptoms

A
  • retractions seen in chest intercostal muscles, severe distress,
  • rapid breathing no wheezing (minimal to no air exchange)
  • medications are not effective
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24
Q

medications for non-emergent management of asthma

A

preventative action: Leukotriene modifier
- montelukast (singulair)
rescue/reliever action: SABA
- salbutamol

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25
Q

Preventative action: leukotriene modifier
(example + adverse effects)

A

motelukast (singulair)
- headache, GI upset

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26
Q

rescue action: SABA

A
  • salbutamol (ventolin)
  • tremors, nervousness, tachycardia
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27
Q

medications for macitence of asthma

A
  • Anticholinergics/SAMA
  • LABA
  • Inhaled corticosteriod
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28
Q

anticholinergics / SAMA (example + adverse effects)

A
  • ipratropium bromide (atrovent) and Tiotropium bromide (spirvia)
  • dry mouth, cough
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29
Q

LABA (example + adverse effects)

A
  • formoterol (foradil) and salmeterol (servent)
  • tremor, nervousness, tachycardia
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30
Q

inhaled corticosteriod (example + adverse effects)

A
  • fluticasone (flovent) and budesonide (pulmicort)
  • increased appetite, mood skin or menstraul irregularities, immunosupression
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31
Q

combination inhalers examples

A
  • budesonide and formoterol (symbicort)
  • fluticasone and salmeterol (Advair)
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32
Q

why should you take your short/long acting inhaler prior to your inhaled corticosteroid (asthma)

A
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33
Q

what action should be preformed after taking a dry powder inhaler, such as some combination inhalers and inhaled corticosteroids
- why?

A

rinse mouth and spit
why -

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34
Q

what is instrumental functioning

A

how family members interact and behave with one another
- Activities of daily living (with illness can become a challenge; role changes, caregiver burden)

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35
Q

what is expressive functioning

A
  • emotional, verbal, and nonverbal communication
  • circular communication
  • problem solving
  • roles
  • influence and power
  • beliefs
  • alliances and coalitions
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36
Q

BMI

A

uses height to weight ratios

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37
Q

<18.5

A

underweight

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38
Q

18.5-24.9

A

normal

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39
Q

25.0-29.9

A

overweight

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40
Q

30-34.9

A

obese (class I)

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41
Q

35-39.9

A

obese (class II)

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42
Q

> 40.0

A

obese (class III)
“b=morbidly obese”

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43
Q

how to claculate waist to hip ratio

A

waist circ. / hip circ. (in cm)

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44
Q

what is optimal wiast to hip ratio for women

A

less than 0.80

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45
Q

what is optimal waist to hip ratio for a male

A

less than 0.95

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46
Q

abdominal obesity is called

A

android obesity

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47
Q

android obesity

A
  • higher triglyceride and lipid levels
  • greater risk for metabolic syndrome
  • greater risk for other pathologies (cardiovascular health problems)
  • easier to lose than gluteofemoral fat (gynoid obesity)
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48
Q

what are the 5 A’s of obesity management

A
  • ASK permission to discuss weight
  • ASSESS risk and potential causes of weight gain
  • ADVISE on risks, benefits, and options
  • AGREE on wight loss goals and plans
  • ASSITS with education, resources, and follow-up care
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49
Q

as a nurse when planning for weight reduction the following factors should be taken into consideration:

A

social, emotional, behavioural influences

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50
Q

signs and symtoms of COPD

A
  • intermittent cough (gradually worsening)
  • sputum production
  • increasing dyspnea (especially on exhalation)
  • weight loss is common
  • may develop Cor Pulmonale
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51
Q

potential complications of COPD

A
  • cachexia
  • Cor Pulmonale
  • Acute exacerbations of COPD
  • acute respiratory failure
  • depression and anxiety
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52
Q

how to asses for cor pulmonate

A

jugular venous distention and pedal edema

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53
Q

over time, people with COPD may develop cardiac complicationsWhich of the following may occur as a complication of COPD
a) left venticular heart failure
b) right ventricular heart failure
c) mitral stenosis
d) myocardial infraciton

A

B. right ventricular heart failure

54
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of right ventricular heart failure? select all that apply
a. clubbing of the fingers
b. dependent pedal edema
c. distended neck veins
d. hepatomegaly

55
Q

what is heart failure

A
  • abdnormal condition involving impaired cardiac pumping/filling
  • heart is unable to produce an adequate cardiac output to meet metabolic need s
56
Q

left sided heart failure symtoms

A

pulmonary edema/ congestion, (increased resp rate, crackles, decreased PaO2, pink forthy sputum)

57
Q

right sided heart failure causes

A

left sided heart failure, cor pulmonale, right ventricular MI

58
Q

right sided heart failure symtoms

A
  • jugular venous distention, hepatomegly, splenomegly, vascular congestion of GI tract, peripheral edema
59
Q

what are the primary risk factors of heart failure

A
  • coronary artery disease
  • hypertension
  • failty heart valves (stenosis, infection, regurgitation)
    -arrythmias (afib and tachycardia)
  • family history, congeitial
60
Q

contributing factors for heart failure

A
  • diabetes
  • tobacco, alcohol, cocaine use
  • obesity
  • high serum cholesterol
61
Q

what symtoms are seen in both LS and RS heart failure

A
  • tachycardia
  • fatigue
  • nocturia
  • weight gain
62
Q

mixede heart failure

A

left and right heart failure

63
Q

signs and symtoms of mixed heart failure

A
  • poor EF < 35%
  • high pulmonary pressure
  • biventricular failure (both ventricles)
64
Q

what triggers exacerbation of heart failure

A
  • high sodium and fluid intake
  • infection
  • uncontrolled Afib
  • renal failure
65
Q

what is the first line of treatment for heart failure

A

ACE inhibitors

66
Q

medication management of heartfailure

A
  • beta-adrenergic blockers
  • anticoagulants
  • vasodilators
  • digoxin (cardiac glycoside)
67
Q

ischemia

A

inadequate blood flow

68
Q

stroke

A

ischemia to a part of the brain from wither blockage or hemorrhage into the brain
- results in death of brain cells

69
Q

what can be lost after a stroke

A
  • movement, sensation, or emotions that were controlled by the affected area
70
Q

what is vital for stroke treatment

A

early recognition
- reduce disability and prevent death

71
Q

types of ischemic stroke

A
  • thrombotic
  • embolic
72
Q

thrombolic stroke is more commone in

A

men
oldest median age

73
Q

thrombolic stroke is assoicated with

A

hypertension and diabetes mellitus

74
Q

what is the most common type of stroke

A

thrombotic

75
Q

thrombotic stroke warning

A

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

76
Q

thrombolic stoke onset

A

often during or after sleep

77
Q

thrombolic stroke course

A

stepwise progression, signs and symptoms develop slowly

78
Q

embolic stroke occurs more in

79
Q

what is the second most common stroke

80
Q

embolic stroke occurs when

A

embolus (often originates in the heart -Afib) lodges in and occludes a cerebral artery

81
Q

embolic stroke warning

A

TIA is uncommon

82
Q

embolic stroke onset

A

not always related to activity, sudden onset

83
Q

embolic stroke course

A

single event, signs and symtoms, usually some improvement, recurrence common without aggressive treatment of underlying disease

84
Q

what are the two types of hemorrhagic stroke

A
  • intercerebral
  • subarachnoid
85
Q

hemorrhagic stroke is often related to

A

hypertension

86
Q

intercerebral stroke

A

bleed into brain parenchyma

87
Q

intercerebral stroke occurance

A

slightly higher in women

88
Q

intercerebral stroke warning

89
Q

intracerebral onset

A

often related to activity

90
Q

intracerebral course

A

progression over 24 hours; fatality more likely with presence of coma

91
Q

subarchanoid stroke

A

bleed into subarchanoid space

92
Q

subarachoid occurance

A

higher in women
- youngest median age

93
Q

subarachonoid warning

94
Q

subarchanoid onset

A

often related to activity, sudden onset

95
Q

subarachoid course

A

acute, onset, usually single sudden event described as the “ worst headache of the patients life” fatality more likely with presence of coma

96
Q

what are the signs of stroke

A
  • dropping face
  • can you raise both arms
  • speech slurred or jumbled
97
Q

medical mediation for vessel ischemia

A
  • recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
  • dissolves clot
  • must be administered 3-4.5 hours of onset of clonical signs of ischemic stroke
98
Q

Dm type 1 was formerly known as

A

“juvenile onset” or “ insulin dependent” diabetes

99
Q

type 1 DM most often occurs in

A

people under the age of 30

100
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

insulin PRODUCTION problem
- progressive destruction of pancreatic B cells by the bodys own T cells

101
Q

type 1 diabetes must always be managed with

102
Q

type 1 diabetes symptoms

A
  • presents as a short history of weight loss, polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weakness and fatigue, gential thrush, blurred visiion
103
Q

what is the msot prevelent type of diabetes

A

type 1 diabetes

104
Q

type 2 diabetes

A
  • insulin PRODUCTION and UTILIZATION problem
105
Q

type 2 DM onset

106
Q

type 2 diabetes symptoms

A

polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria (excess urination), weakness and fatigue, genital thrush, blurred vision, weight loss, slow healing wounds

107
Q

treatment for gestational diabetes

A

first route: nutritional management and physical activity
second route: insulin injections

108
Q

secondary diabetes can occur

A

because of another medical condition or treatments and medications use that cause abnormal blood glucose levels

109
Q

secondary diabetes examples

A
  • schizophrenia
  • cystic fibrosis
  • hyperthrodism
  • use of parenteral nutrition
110
Q

self care practices to minimize complications

A
  • deep breathing and coughing techniques (incentive spirometer)
  • splinting insisions on the torso when moving or coughing
  • avoding strain for bowel movements
  • hand washing
  • ambulation during recovery (arm and leg exercise)
  • avoiding pressure ulcers
111
Q

post op pain management after surgery

A
  • importance of taking pain medication
  • pain scale use
  • side effects of pain medication and how to counter-act them
  • body position strategies
  • non pharmacologic pain management
112
Q

discharge teaching for self care at home

A
  • restrictions on lifting objects of a certain weight
  • driving limitation
  • diet suggestions
  • ambulation/exercise recommendations
  • medication adherence
  • pain management at home
  • follow up visits or tests
113
Q

when should a patient express need for pain medication

A

instruct patient to request pain medication before the pain becomes severe

114
Q

in patient pre op nursing assessment

A
  • psychosocial assessment and coping with surgery
  • health history questions
  • medication list (including herbal supplements)
  • alcohol, tobacco, cannabis and drug use
  • allergies
  • review of systems and physical assessment
  • nutritional status and fluid and electrolytes
115
Q

immediate / emergency procedure consent form

A

2 physicians consent

116
Q

incompetent patient consent form

A
  • someone with power of attorney
117
Q

enhanced recovery after surgery principle

A

patients are active participants in pre and post-op care and recovery
- want to avoid insulin resistance

118
Q

ERAS includes evidence based guidlines for

A
  • nutrition
  • mobility
  • fluid management
  • anesthesia
  • pain and nausea control
119
Q

ERAS protocol

120
Q

general post op nursing care

A
  • vital signs routine
  • nursing post op assesment and ongoing post op care
  • patient teaching
  • nursing interventions to treat and prevent potential alterations in functioning
  • preparing patient for discharge to home
121
Q

5 common precipitating factors for deliriun in older adults

A
  • use of physical restraints
  • low serum albumin levels, indicative of malnutrition
  • prescription of more than three new medications
  • use of urinary catheter
  • an iatrogenic event (infections, injury, and complications caused by medications or diagnostic or therapeutic procedures
122
Q

type of felirium

A
  • hyperactive
  • hypoactive
  • mixed
123
Q

hyperactive delirium

124
Q

hypoactive delirium

125
Q

mixed delirium

126
Q

Diagnostic tools for diagnosising delirium

A
  • Recoginzing Acute Delirium As part of your Routine (RADAR)
  • Confusion assesment Method (CAM)
    Delirium Index (DI)
127
Q

RADAR

A
  • drosy
  • trouble following directions
  • slowed movement
128
Q

considerations for delirium

A
  • physical exam findings (infection)
  • medications
  • lab results
  • sleep deprivation
  • enviormental risk factors (noise, lighting)
129
Q

what are the 5 stages of greif

A

denial
anger
bargaining
depression
acceptance

130
Q

what is the last sense to disappear