NSAIDS Flashcards

1
Q

COX enzymes

A

Cyclooxygenases - enzymes responsible for synthesis of prostaglandins, thromboxanes and prostacyclins, all of which are needed during inflammation.
COX 1 - constitutive - meaning always expressed.
COX 2 - inducible - meaning expressed only when needed (during disease and inflammation)

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2
Q

NSAIDS

A

Non steriodal antiinflammatory drugs that have antiinflammatory, anti-pyretic and analgesic properties.
These are drugs that inhibit COX enzymes, by that decrease synthesis of prostaglandins and decrease the inflammatory response.

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3
Q

Side effects of NSAIDS

A
  • GIT: inhibition of COX 1 causes decreased PGE2 which leads to peptic ulcers or GI bleeding.
    - Renal: inhibition of COX 1+2 causes decreased PGE2 and PGI2 which leads to Na and water retention, hypertension and hemodynamic acute kidney injury.
    - CVS: inhibition of COX 1 in platelets causes decreased TAX2 so inhibits vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.
    inhibition of COX 2 in vessels causes decreased PGI2 so inhibits vasodilation and allows platelet aggregation.
    *So drugs inhibiting COX 2 more will lead to a “prothrombic state” which will allow more formation of clots, increasing the risk for stroke or myocardial infarction.
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4
Q

Which NSAIDS are selective COX 2 inhibitors?

A

Lumiracoxib > Rofecoxib > Etodolac > Diclofenac > Celecoxib

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5
Q

Paracetamol (Acetaminophen)

A
  • Antipyretic and analgesic effect. No anti-inflammatory effect.
  • The ONLY centrally acting analgesic-antipyretic. So is less active in the periphery and as a result has less side effects.
  • Is mostly metabolized in the liver by conjugation (glucuronidated or sulfated) and excreted by urine. But a small percentage is hydroxylated to NAPQI which is toxic. Normally, NAPQI reacts with glutathione and is then excreted.
  • In case of overdose, the metabolism of paracetamol shifts to NAPQI which will react with hepatic proteins and cause hepatotoxicity.
  • N - Acetylcysteine is life saving in cases of paracetamol overdose because it mimics glutathione.
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6
Q

Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid)

A
  • The only IRREVERSIBLE NSAID. It irreversible acetylates COX enzymes non-selectively, so inhibits both COX 1+2.
  • It has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic effect. These are due to inhibition of COX 2, but inhibition of COX 1 mostly lead to the typical side effects.
  • Used for analgesia - headache, arthralgia, myalgia.
  • Used for anti-inflammatory - osteoarthritis, gout, RA. But only in higher does (4-6gr per day).
  • Used for anti-aggregatory - preventing thrombus formation and reduce risk of CVS problems. But only in low doses (160mg every other day).
  • Used to facilitate closure of the patent ductus arteriosus.
  • Is contraindicated in children with viral infection because it can lead to Reye’s syndrome. Paracetamol is used instead.
  • Has typical NSAIDs side effects. A mild toxicity of aspirin is called Salicylism.
  • Diflunisal is a derivative of aspirin, it’s 3-4 times more potent as analgesic and anti-inflammatory, but has NO antipyretic effect. This is because it doesn’t reach the CNS, and as a result doesn’t cause salicylism.
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7
Q

Ibuprofen

A
  • A non-selective COX inhibitor. Has antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-aggregatory effect.
  • Derivative of propionic acid.
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8
Q

Ketoprofen

A
  • A non-selective COX inhibitor. Has antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-aggregatory effect.
  • Derivative of propionic acid.
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9
Q

Which NSAIDs are derivatives of propionic acid?

A

Ibuprofen, Ketoprofen, Naproxen, Fenoprofen, Flurbiprofen, Oxaprozin.
*Naproxen is the least harmful NSAIDs in patients with CVS diseases.

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10
Q

Indomethacin

A
  • A non-selective COX inhibitor. Has antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-aggregatory effect.
  • Derivative of acetic acid.
  • Its use is limited because it can be toxic.
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11
Q

Sulindac

A
  • A non-selective COX inhibitor. Has antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-aggregatory effect.
  • Derivative of acetic acid.
  • Similar to indomethacin but has less severe side effects.
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12
Q

Piroxicam + Meloxicam

A
  • Are non-selective COX inhibitors. Derivatives of oxicam.
  • Have long half-lives, and their excretion in urine interferes with excretion of lithium.
  • Used to treat RA, Ankylosing spondylitis, osteoarthritis.
    Meloxicam can be relatively COX 2 selective in low doses.
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13
Q

Phenylbutazone + Metamizole

A
  • Are non-selective COX inhibitors.
  • Have strong anti-inflammatory and weak analgesic effect (except of metamizole) and antipyretic effects.
  • Have serious side effects (other than the typical ones) agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia.
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14
Q

Celecoxib

A
  • A selective COX 2 inhibitor, so doesn’t inhibit COX 1.
  • Has typical side effects. But DOESN’T have anti-aggregatory effect, so doesn’t prolong bleeding.
  • Contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulfonamides.
  • Contraindicated in patients taking CYP2CP inhibitors. Like Fluconazole, Fluvastatin and Zafirlukast.
  • Since it doesn’t have an anti-aggregatory effect, it’s not used in patient with ischemic heart disease or stroke.
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15
Q

Diclofenac

A
  • A selective COX 2 inhibitor, so doesn’t block COX 1.
  • Can cause GIT problems, so can be given in combination with Misoprostol to prevent GIT problems.
  • Can lead to prenatal closure of the ductus arteriosus.
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16
Q

Nimesulid + Nabumetone + Tolmetin

A
  • Are preferentially COX 2 inhibitors, meaning they prefer being selective to COX 2.
  • Nimesulid is a strong analgesic, and anti-inflammatory, has low effects on platelet aggregation and rarely causes GIT problems.
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17
Q

DMARDs - disease modifying anti-rhumatic medications

A

Drugs that reduce the progression of RA and prevent joint destruction. They are slow acting and with long duration of action.
Methotrexate, Chloroquine, Hydroxychloroquine, Sulphasalzine, Leflunomide, Gold salts….

18
Q

Methotrexate

A
  • Analog of folic acid. Used for immunosuppresion and anti-rheumatic effects.
  • It interferes with production of cytokine and nucleotides.
  • It has a rapid onset compared to other DMARDs.
  • Has side effects: mucosal ulceration, nausea, cytopenias, liver cirrhosis, acute pneumonia like syndrome.
    But Leucovorin can be taken after methotrexate to reduce SE.
  • Is contraindicated in pregnancy.
19
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A
  • Has a strong benefit in RA, but less than methotrexate. It’s highly toxic!
  • Useful in severe RA and systemic lupus.
20
Q

Leflunomide

A
  • Inhibits pyrimidine synthesis by inhibiting DHODH enzyme (dihydroorotate dehydrogenase). This will decrease RNA synthesis and eventually lead to cell arrest.
  • It’s teratogenic - so is contraindicated in pregnancy.
  • Cyclosporin A
  • Tacrolimus - is x100 times more effective than leflunomide.
21
Q

Chloroquine + Hydroxychloroquine

Antimalarials

A
  • Have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. They do so by stabilisation of lysosomes and decreasing cytokines.
22
Q

Gold salts - Sodium Aurotiomalate

A
  • Has immunosuppressive effect. By decreasing ESR and C-reactive protein, increasing histidine+sulfyhdryl serum levels, decreasing Ig, rheumatoid factor and C1q-binding activity. (????)
  • Can have side effects like blood disorders.
23
Q

D-penicillamin

A
  • Analog of AA cysteine.

- Decreases proteosynthesis and DNA synthesis so slows bone destruction and RA.

24
Q

Sulphasalazine

A
  • Effects GALT (gut associated lymph tissue).

- Used in RA with fast onset, or in non-specific inflammatory bowel diseases.

25
Q

Adalimumab

A
  • TNF - alpha inhibitor

- Recombinant monoclonal antibody, binds to TNF-alpha receptor this inhibiting its activity.

26
Q

Infliximab

A
  • TNF-alpha inhibitor
  • Chimeric monoclonal antibody, that binds to TNF-alpha and inhibits it.
  • Long term treatment with infliximab will lead to synthesis of Anti-infliximab antibodies, so methotrexate is given to prevent their formation.
27
Q

Etanercept

A
  • TNF-alpha inhibitor
  • Human monoclonal antibody, binds 2 molecules of TNF-alpha and block their function.
  • Is more effective in combination with methotrexate.
  • Is dangerous in patients with life threatening infections.
28
Q

Golimumab

A
  • TNF-alpha inhibitor.
  • Human monoclonal antibody, forms stable complexes with TNF-alpha preventing its effect.
  • Is also more effective together with methotrexate.
29
Q

Rituximab

A
  • B-cell depletor
  • Chimeric monoclonal antibody, directed against CD20 on B cells resulting in their depletion.
  • Other B-cell depletors include: Ofatumumab, Belimumab, Atacicept and Tabalumab.
30
Q

Anakinra

A
  • IL-1 antagonist.
  • Recombinant antagonist protein of IL-1 receptor, binds to this receptor and prevents its function.
  • Other IL-1 antagonist: Canalonumab and Rilonacept.
31
Q

Tocilizumab

A
  • IL-6 antagonist.

- Recombinant monoclonal antibody, directed against IL-6 and inhibits it.

32
Q

Abatacept

A
  • T-cell modifying agent.
  • Recombinant fusion protein that competes with CD28 for binding with CD80/CD86 (takes the place of CD28). This will decrease the activation of T cells.
  • Other T-cell modifying agent: Belatacept
33
Q

Secukinumab + Ixekizumab

A
  • IL-17 inhibitors
34
Q

Denosumab

A
  • RANKL inhibitor
35
Q

Tofacitinib

A
  • JAK1 + JAK3 inhibitor
36
Q

Baricitinib

A
  • JAK1 + JAK2 inhibitor
37
Q

Colchicine

A
  • Has no effect on uric acid metabolism, but acts against inflammatory response to urate crystals so relieves gout pain.
  • It binds to tubilin causing it to depolymerize, this will reduce migration of granulocytes to site of inflammation and decreases inflammatory response.
  • It’s contraindicated in pregnancy.
38
Q

Allopurinol

A
  • XO (Xanthine oxidase) inhibitor
  • The most common drug used to decrease uric acid levels in gout.
  • Another XO inhibitor is Febuxostat.
39
Q

Rasburicase

A
  • Converts uric acid to allantoin, increasing its excretion.
40
Q

Probenecid

A
  • Blocks urisuric and renal tubular transport, decreases reabsorption of urate so increases its excretion.
41
Q

Lesinurad

A
  • Blocks URAT1 and OAT4 which are transporters responsible for uric acid reabsorption. So it increases urinary excretion of uric acid.