NRSR 21 Lesson 21: Visual Problems Flashcards

1
Q

Glaucoma

A

Excess production or decreased outflow can elevate intraocular pressure above the normal 10 to 21 mm Hg (Lewis 385)

The most frequent cause of blindness among African Americans (Lewis 388)

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2
Q

Accomodation

A

a process that allows a person to focus on near objects, such as when reading. Anything altering the clarity of the lens affects light transmission. (Lewis 385)

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3
Q

Refraction

A

Refraction is the ability of the eye to bend light rays so that they fall on the retina. In the normal eye, parallel light rays are focused through the lens into a sharp image on the retina. This condition is termed emmetropia and means that light is focused exactly on the retina, not in front of it or behind it. (Lewis 385)

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4
Q

Myopia

A

can see near objects clearly (nearsightedness), but objects in the distance are blurred. (Lewis 385)

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5
Q

Hyperopia

A

can see distant objects clearly (farsightedness), but close objects are blurred. (Lewis 385)

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6
Q

Astigmatism

A

caused by unevenness in the cornea, which results in visual distortion. (Lewis 385)

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7
Q

Presbyopia

A

a loss of accommodation, causing an inability to focus on near objects. It occurs as a normal process of aging, usually around age 40. (Lewis 385)

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8
Q

Iris

A

The iris provides the color of the eye. This structure has a small round opening in its center, the pupil, which allows light to enter the eye. The pupil constricts via action of the iris sphincter muscle (innervated by CN III [oculomotor nerve]) and dilates via action of the iris dilator muscle (innervated by CN V [trigeminal nerve]) to control the amount of light that enters the eye. (Lewis 386)

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9
Q

Lens

A

a biconvex, avascular, transparent structure located behind the iris. It is supported by the anterior and posterior zonule. The primary function of the lens is to bend light rays so that they fall onto the retina. Accommodation occurs when the eye focuses on a near object and is facilitated by contraction of the ciliary body, which changes the shape of the lens. (Lewis 386)

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10
Q

Ciliary Body

A

The ciliary body consists of the ciliary muscles, which surround the lens and lie parallel to the sclera; the ciliary zonule, which attaches to the lens capsule; and the ciliary processes, which constitute the terminal portion of the ciliary body. The ciliary processes lie behind the peripheral part of the iris and secrete aqueous humor. (Lewis 386-387)

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11
Q

Choroid

A

The choroid is a highly vascular structure that serves to nourish the ciliary body, the iris, and the outer portion of the retina. It lies inside and parallel to the sclera and extends from the area where the optic nerve enters the eye to the ciliary body (see Fig. 21-1). (Lewis 387)

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12
Q

Retina

A

The retina is the innermost layer of the eye that extends and forms the optic nerve. Neurons make up the major portion of the retina. Therefore retinal cells are unable to regenerate if destroyed. The retina lines the inside of the eyeball, extending from the area of the optic nerve to the ciliary body (see Fig. 21-1). (Lewis 387)

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13
Q

Normal Physical Assessment of Visual System

A
  • Visual acuity 20/20 OU; no diplopia
  • External eye structures symmetric and without lesions or deformities
  • Lacrimal apparatus nontender and without drainage
  • Conjunctiva clear; sclera white
  • PERRLA
  • Lens clear
  • EOMI
  • Disc margins sharp
  • Retinal vessels normal, with no hemorrhages or spots

EOMI, Extraocular movements intact; OU, both eyes; PERRLA, pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation. (Lewis 390)

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14
Q

Visual Acuity Testing

A

Patient reads from Snellen chart at 20 ft (distance vision test) or Jaeger’s chart at 14 in (near vision test); examiner notes smallest print patient can read on each chart.
Determines distance and near visual acuity (Lewis 390)

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15
Q

Confrontation Visual Field Test

A

Examiner shines light into patient’s pupil and observes pupillary response; each pupil is examined independently; examiner also checks for consensual and accommodative response.
Determines if patient has normal pupillary response (Lewis 390)

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16
Q

Pupil Function Testing

A

Examiner shines light into patient’s pupil and observes pupillary response; each pupil is examined independently; examiner also checks for consensual and accommodative response.
Determines if patient has normal pupillary response (Lewis 390)

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17
Q

Tono-pen Tonometry

A

Covered end of probe is gently touched several times to anesthetized corneal surface; examiner records several readings to obtain a mean intraocular pressure (see Fig. 21-6).
Measures intraocular pressure (normal pressure is 10-22 mm Hg) (Lewis 390)

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18
Q

Ophthalmoscopy

A

Examiner holds ophthalmoscope close to patient’s eye, shining light into back of eye and looking through aperture on ophthalmoscope; examiner adjusts dial to select one of lenses in ophthalmoscope that produces desired amount of magnification to inspect retina (see Fig. 21-7).
Provides magnified view of retina and optic nerve head (Lewis 390)

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19
Q

Color Vision Testing

A

Patient identifies numbers or paths formed by pattern of dots in series of color plates.
Determines ability to distinguish colors (Lewis 390)

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20
Q

Keratometry

A

Examiner aligns projection and notes readings of corneal curvature.
Measures corneal curvature; often done before fitting contact lenses, before doing refractive surgery, or after corneal transplantation (Lewis 390)

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21
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Pain ( Foreign body sensation)

A

Superficial corneal erosion or abrasion; can result from contact lens wear or trauma; conjunctival or corneal foreign body (Lewis 391)

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22
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Pain (Severe, deep, throbbing)

A

Anterior uveitis, acute glaucoma, infection; acute glaucoma also associated with nausea, vomiting (Lewis 391)

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23
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Spots, floaters

A

Most common cause is vitreous liquefaction (benign phenomenon); other possible causes include hemorrhage into the vitreous humor, retinal holes or tears (Lewis 391)

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24
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Diplopia (Double vision)

A

Abnormalities of extraocular muscle action related to muscle or cranial nerve pathology (Lewis 391)

25
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Cataracts

A

Opacification of lens, pupil can appear cloudy or white when opacity is visible behind pupil opening.
Aging, trauma, diabetes, long-term systemic corticosteroid therapy (Lewis 391)

26
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Peripheral

A

Partial or complete loss of peripheral vision

Glaucoma; interruption of visual pathway (e.g., tumor); migraine headache (Lewis 391)

27
Q

Common Assessment Visual Abnormalities: Central

A

Loss of central vision. Macular disease (Lewis 391-392)

28
Q

ophthalmoscope

A

a hand-held instrument with a light source and magnifying lenses that is held close to the patient’s eye to visualize the posterior part of the eye. Little pain or discomfort is associated with these examinations. (Lewis 393)

29
Q

Assessment Techniques: Color vision (Ishihara color test)

A

determines the patient’s ability to distinguish a pattern of color in a series of color plates. Older adults have a loss of color discrimination at the blue end of the color spectrum and loss of sensitivity throughout the entire spectrum, especially when cataracts are present. (Lewis 393)

30
Q

Assessment Techniques: Stereoscopic vision

A

allows a patient to see objects in three dimensions. (Lewis 393)

31
Q

Implication for Nursing Practice to improve adherence to eyedrops

A
  • Where possible, simplify eyedrop regimens because they can be challenging to follow.
  • Assess patient barriers to eyedrop administration. Provide initial instruction and reinforce correct use.
  • Help patients identify a reminder system for multiple daily eyedrops, such as setting timers or connecting drop administration to other daily routines.
  • Teach caregivers to administer eyedrops for patients with impaired hand coordination. (Lewis 411)
32
Q

Cataracts

A

is an opacity within the lens. The patient may have a cataract in one or both eyes. If present in both eyes, one cataract may affect the patient’s vision more than the other. Cataracts are the leading cause of blindness worldwide and the major cause of vision loss in the United States. About 50% of the population over 65 years old has some degree of cataract formation, and nearly everyone over age 70 has one. (Lewis 412)

33
Q

Cataracts: Etiology and Pathophysiology

A

Age related. Also blunt or penetrating trauma, congenital factors such as maternal rubella, radiation or ultraviolet (UV) light exposure, certain drugs such as systemic corticosteroids or long-term topical corticosteroids, and ocular inflammation. The patient with diabetes mellitus tends to develop cataracts at a younger age. (Lewis 412)

34
Q

Cataracts: Clinical Manifestation

A

The patient with cataracts may complain of a decrease in vision, abnormal color perception, and glare. Glare is due to light scatter caused by the lens opacities, and it may be significantly worse at night when the pupil dilates. The visual decline is gradual, but the rate of cataract development varies from patient to patient. Secondary glaucoma can also occur if the enlarging lens causes increased intraocular pressure (IOP). (Lewis 412)

35
Q

Cataracts: Diagnostic Studies

A

History and physical examination, visual acuity measurement, opthalmoscopy, slit lamp microscope and glare testing.

36
Q

Mydriatic Drug

A

an α-adrenergic agonist that produces pupillary dilation by contraction of the iris dilator muscle.

Example: phenylephrine HCl acid (Neo-Synephrine, Mydfrin)

May cause tachycardia and elevated blood pressure, especially in elderly patient; can cause a reflexive decrease in heart rate when blood pressure rises; use punctal occlusion to limit systemic absorption (Lewis 414)

37
Q

Cycloplegic Drug

A

an anticholinergic agent that produces paralysis of accommodation (cycloplegia) by blocking the effect of acetylcholine on the ciliary body muscles. Cycloplegics produce pupillary dilation (mydriasis) by blocking the effect of acetylcholine on the iris sphincter muscle.

Example: Atropine (Atropisol, Atropair, Bufopto, Atropine-1, Isopto Atropine, Ocu-Tropine) (Lewis 414)

38
Q

Extracapsular Extraction

A

the anterior capsule is opened and the lens nucleus and cortex are removed, leaving the remaining capsular bag intact. In extracapsular extraction, the surgeon can remove the lens nucleus by “scooping” it out with a lens loop (Lewis 413)

39
Q

Phacoemulsification

A

The nucleus is fragmented by ultrasonic vibration and aspirated from inside the capsular bag. (Lewis 413)

40
Q

Levels of Visual Impairment:

Total Blindness, Functional Blindness, Legally Blind, Partially Sighted

A

Total Blindness - Total blindness
Functional blindness - Some light perception
Legal Blind - no less than 20/200 in better eye and no greater than 20 degree peripheral.
Partial Sighted - Corrected 20/200, 20 degree peripheral and no worse than 20/50.

41
Q

Cataracts - Nursing Assessment

A

Assess the patient’s distance and near visual acuity. If the patient is going to have surgery, especially note the visual acuity in the patient’s unoperated eye. Use this information to determine how visually compromised the patient may be while the operative eye is healing. In addition, assess the psychosocial impact of the patient’s visual disability and the level of knowledge regarding the disease process and therapeutic options. Postoperatively, assess the patient’s level of comfort and ability to follow the postoperative regimen. (Lewis 414)

42
Q

Patient and Caregiver Teaching Guide after Eye Surgery

A
  1. Proper hygiene and eye care techniques to ensure that medications, dressings, and/or surgical wound are not contaminated during necessary eye care.
  2. Signs and symptoms of infection and when and how to report these to allow for early recognition and treatment of possible infection.
  3. Importance of complying with postoperative restrictions on head positioning, bending, coughing, and Valsalva maneuver to optimize visual outcomes and prevent increased intraocular pressure.
  4. How to instill eye medications using aseptic techniques and adherence with prescribed eye medication routine to prevent infection.
  5. How to monitor pain and take medication prescribed for pain and to report pain not relieved by medication.
  6. Importance of continued follow-up as recommended to maximize potential visual outcomes. (Lewis 415)
43
Q

Retinopathy

A

A process of microvascular damage to the retina. It can develop slowly or rapidly and lead to blurred vision and progressive vision loss. Retinopathy is most often associated in adults with diabetes mellitus and hypertension. (Lewis 415)

44
Q

Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD)

A

the most common cause of irreversible central vision loss in persons over age 60 in the United States. AMD is divided into two forms: dry (nonexudative) and wet (exudative). (Lewis 417-418)

45
Q

AMD - Dry

A

Starts with the abnormal accumulation of yellowish colored extracellular deposits called drusen in the retinal pigment epithelium. The atrophy and degeneration of macular cells then results. (Lewis 418)

46
Q

AMD - Wet

A

characterized by the growth of new blood vessels from their normal location in thechoroids to an abnormal location in the retinal epithelium. As the new blood vessels leak, scar tissue gradually forms. Acute vision loss may occur in some cases with bleeding from subretinal neovascular membranes. (Lewis 418)

47
Q

AMD - Clinical Manifestation

A
  1. blurred and darkened vision
  2. the presence of scotomas (blind spots in the visual field)
  3. metamorphopsia (distortion of vision).
    Patients may not notice unilateral early changes in their vision if the other eye is not affected. (Lewis 418)
48
Q

Photodynamic Therapy

A

Uses verteporfin (Visudyne) intravenously and a “cold” laser to excite the dye. This procedure is used in wet AMD and destroys the abnormal blood vessels without permanent damage to the retinal pigment epithelium and photoreceptor cells. (Lewis 418)

49
Q

Glaucoma

A

is not one disease but rather a group of disorders characterized by increased IOP and the consequences of elevated pressure, optic nerve atrophy, and peripheral visual field loss. (Lewis 418)

50
Q

Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)

A

the outflow of aqueous humor is decreased in the trabecular meshwork. The drainage channels become clogged, like a clogged kitchen sink. Damage to the optic nerve can then result.21 (Lewis 419)

51
Q

Primary angle-closure glaucoma (PACG)

A

a reduction in the outflow of aqueous humor that results from angle closure. Usually, this is caused from the lens bulging forward as a result of the aging process. Angle closure may also occur as a result of pupil dilation in the patient with anatomically narrow angles. (Lewis 419)

52
Q

Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma Drug Therapy

A
  • β-adrenergic blockers - Timolol maleate
  • α-adrenergic agonists - Brimonidine (Alphagan)
  • Cholinergic agents (miotics) - Pilocarpine
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • Hyperosmolar agents - Osmoglyn, mannitol solution (Lewis 420)
53
Q

Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma Surgical Therapy

A
  • Argon laser trabeculoplasty (ALT)

* Trabeculectomy with or without filtering implant (Lewis 420)

54
Q

Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma

A

Topical cholinergic agent
Hyperosmotic agent
Laser peripheral iridotomy
Surgical iridectomy (Lewis 420)

55
Q

Argon laser trabeculoplasy (ALT)

A

is a noninvasive option to lower IOP when medications are not successful or when the patient either cannot or will not use the drug therapy as recommended. The laser stimulates scarring and contraction of the trabecular meshwork, which opens the outflow channels. (Lewis 420)

56
Q

β-adrenergic blocking glaucoma agents

A

Contraindicated in the patient with bradycardia, greater than first-degree heart block, cardiogenic shock, and overt cardiac failure. The noncardioselective β-adrenergic blocker glaucoma agents are also contraindicated in the patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma. (Lewis 422)

57
Q

α-adrenergic agonists

A

can cause tachycardia or hypertension, which may have serious consequences in the older patient. Teach the older patient to occlude the puncta to limit the systemic absorption of glaucoma medications. (Lewis 422)

58
Q

hyperosmolar agents

A

may precipitate heart failure or pulmonary edema in the susceptible patient. (Lewis 422)