nrsg 126 midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

basal metabolic rate

A

the rate at which the body uses energy while at rest to keep vital functions going, such as breathing and keeping warm.

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2
Q

functional food

A

have biologically active ingredients added that have demonstrated health benefits (e.g., probiotic yogourt, or pea fibre-fortified breads and pasta).

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3
Q

fortified food

A

have additional vitamins, minerals, or both to provide added health benefits (e.g., fortified soy beverages and fruit juice with calcium

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4
Q

organic food

A

vegetables, fruit, eggs, milk, and meat produced without synthetic (human-made) pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers; genetically modified organisms (GMOs); antibiotics or growth hormones; or irradiation or ionizing radiation (a way to preserve food with radiation energy). Organic farmers may use natural pesticides approved for organic food production

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5
Q

GMO

A

Contains the insertion of the genes of one organism into another organism, often to resist disease and develop desired characteristics, such as a hardier texture, higher nutritional value, or faster growth

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6
Q

carbohydrates

A

main source of energy. controls blood glucose and insulin metabolism. includes: sugar, starch, and fiber. can be soluble or insoluble

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7
Q

insoluble carbs

A

Don’t dissolve in water. Adds bulk to stool, good for helping with constipation, but too much can cause constipation. Ex: Whole grains, vegetables, wheat bran.

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8
Q

soluble carbs

A

Absorbs water and turns into a gel, helps with blood sugars and cholesterol. Ex: Bran, barley, nuts, seeds, beans, lentils, peas and some fruits and veggies.

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9
Q

what are proteins

A

Molecules needed for tissue growth, maintenance, and repair. Assist with BP, healing, development.

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10
Q

Nitrogen balance

A

nitrogen intake = nitrogen losses.
Negative nitrogen balance occurs from lack of protein (< intake, injury, fever, starvation)
Positive nitrogen balance increases tissue growth and repair, healing, etc.

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11
Q

lack of protein in the body due to decreased intake, injury, fever, starvation, infection.

A

negative protein balance

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12
Q

proteins that can not be produced in the body. There are 9 of them

A

essential amino acids

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13
Q

proteins that can be synthesized in our body.

A

non-essential

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14
Q

a protein that has all 9 amino acids. usually from animals

A

complete protein

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15
Q

what is an incomplete protein?

A

a protein that lacks one or more of the amino acids needed to build cells. usually from plants. can be mixed together to make a complete protein.

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16
Q

What makes energy, cushions organs, lubricates body tissues, and insulates/protects cell membranes.

A

Fat/lipids

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17
Q

monosaturated fats (need to redo)

A

Fat/lipids

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18
Q

polyunsaturated fats (need to redo)

A

good fats. need to be eaten for heart health, muscle movement, blood clotting. (omega 3, tuna, flaxseed)

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19
Q

saturated vs unsaturated

A

Saturated: usually from animals, solid, lack double bonds, less healthy.
unsaturated: usually from plants, liquid, at least one double bond, healthier

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20
Q

A waxy substance the body needs to build cells and make vitamins and other hormones. Too much is a problem

A

Cholesterol

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20
Q

Trans Fats

A

Either naturally occurring or artificial. Artificial is a process where hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid. They lower HDL and increase LDL

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21
Q

two sources of cholesterol

A

liver - regulates and produces
food - animal products

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22
Q

what can be a side effect from taking these meds?
Diuretics
Estrogen and progestin
Retinoids
Steroids
Beta blockers
Some immunosuppressants
Some HIV medications

A

High triglycerides

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23
Q

What are the effects of COPD exacerbation on nutrition (Metabolism, N balance, etc)

A

Exacerbation increased energy usage = body breaks down proteins and muscle tissue
Respiratory distress decreases appetite = limiting physical activity = decreasing nitrogen balance
A compromised respiratory system decreases fxn of absorption nutrients = contributing to malnutrition

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24
Q

In COPD, Cytokines are released because of chronic __________. This increases the body’s nitrogen loss as it accelerates protein breakdown.

A

Inflammation

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25
Q

What micronutrient is essential in epithelialization?

A

Zinc

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26
Q

Proteins are used in?

A

Tissue growth, maintenance, repair
DNA and RNA synthesis
Blood clotting, acid-base balance
Hormones

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27
Q

Albumin, insulin, and immunoglobulins are depleted by diseases, disorders, and ____________.

A

Malnutrition

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28
Q

Why is it important to maintain a balance between energy intake and expenditure?

A

To prevent malnutrition, maintain healthy body weight, and ensure proper metabolic function.

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29
Q

Identify factors that influence nutrition.

A
  • Age * Socioeconomic status * Culture * Health status * Accessibility to food and genetics
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30
Q

What are common challenges related to nutrition in the older adult population?

A
  • Malnutrition * Changes in appetite * Difficulty chewing or swallowing * Social isolation * Co-morbidities *
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31
Q

What are the components of nutritional assessment?

A
  • Dietary history * Physical examination * Laboratory tests * Anthropometric measurements
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32
Q

What is the pathophysiology related to tissue integrity in older adult clients?
(Pathophysiology = ∆in body processes bc of disease/injury)

A

Diminished skin elasticity, reduced vascular supply, and impaired wound healing processes.

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33
Q

Identify assessment data pertinent to integument.

A
  • Skin turgor * Color changes * Lesions * Integrity of skin
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34
Q

Discuss factors affecting skin integrity.

A
  • Nutrition * Hydration * Age * Mobility * Chronic conditions
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35
Q

Describe the process of wound healing. Modify later

A
  • Hemostasis * Inflammation * Proliferation * Remodeling
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36
Q

What are the risk factors that contribute to pressure injury formation?

A
  • Immobility * Moisture * Poor nutrition * Friction and shear
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37
Q

What are the differences between wounds that heal by primary, secondary, and tertiary intention?

A
  • Primary: edges are brought together * Secondary: wound heals from inside out * Tertiary: delayed closure due to infection
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38
Q

What does NPO stand for?

A

Nothing per os (nothing by mouth)

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39
Q

How do these macro minerals affect the body processes: Ca++, PTH (parathyroid hormone), ETOH (not sure)

A

Ca = muscle contractions, blood clotting, hormones
PTH = influences calcitonin (lowers Ca) and calcitriol (increases Ca), needs vitamin D to promote reabsorption
ETOH = associated with poor nutrition, decreased Ca, absorption, low Mg

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40
Q

Acute vs Chronic wounds

A

Acute = heal rapidly as long as the cause is removed, sudden onset (surgery wound, skin tears)
Chronic = plan is most oftenly to prevent wound progression, manage pain (PI, diabetic ulcers)

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41
Q

Aging effects on the skin.

A

Epidermis thinning = > risk of tears
Dehydration and poor nutrition = healing processes and overall integrity
Tape is a big risk!!!!

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42
Q

What is nitrogen balance?

A

The difference between nitrogen intake and nitrogen excretion.

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43
Q

The wound healing processes for secondary intention is different from primary intention by?

A

Repair times are longer
Greater chances of scarring
> chance of infection
If healing is further delayed, it becomes a tertiary wound (delayed primary closure)
Greater loss of tissue

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44
Q

What is the recommended daily water intake for adults?

A

Approximately 3 liters per day.

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45
Q

What are the two categories of vitamins?

A
  • Fat-soluble (A, D, E, K) * Water-soluble (B & C)
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46
Q

What are the electrolytes the body uses?

A
  • Calcium * Sodium * Potassium
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47
Q

What is the care and risks associated with Tertiary wounds?

A

Needs to be open
Greater risk of infection
Can require surgery to close
e.g. pressure wound with an infection needs to be kept open to drain

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48
Q

List some changes that occur to the body that impact eating in older adults.

A
  • Changes in taste and smell * Decreased appetite * Difficulty chewing
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49
Q

What is the impact of nutrition on wound healing?

A

Adequate nutrition supports cellular repair, reduces infection risk, and enhances recovery.

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50
Q

What are the stages of wound healing?

A
  • Hemostasis = Bleeding and clotting
  • Inflammation = Redness, warmth, sometimes pain
  • Proliferation = Development of granulation tissue and capillaries
  • Remodelling = Same as previous
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51
Q

What is a pressure injury (PI)?

A

Localized damage to the skin and underlying tissue due to pressure.

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52
Q

What is incontinence associated dermatitis (IAD)?

A

Skin irritation caused by prolonged exposure to moisture from urine or feces.

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53
Q

What affects each stage of wound healing?
Bleeding/Hemostasis
Inflammation
Proliferative
Remodeling

A

Bleeding/hemostasis = Anticoagulants, liver/bone damage, NSAIDS
Inflammation = Steroids (anti-inflammatory), chemotherapy, immunocompromised, age, cancer
Proliferative & Remodeling = protein/nutrition, hydration, etc

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54
Q

What does primary intention healing involve?

A

Wound edges are brought together, leading to minimal scarring.

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55
Q

What is secondary intention healing?

A

Wound healing occurs from the inside out, resulting in more significant scarring.

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56
Q

What is tertiary intention healing?

A

Wound is kept open initially to reduce infection risk before being closed later.

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57
Q

How does the following affect the stages of inflammation:
Necrotic/dead tissue
Repeated pressure
Trauma
Foreign bodies
Infection
Poor nutrition
ETOH/Drug and cigarette use

A
  1. Dead cells/tissue needs to be removed
  2. No pressure relief, “tissue to breathe”
  3. Foreign bodies need to be removed
  4. Infection keeps the area damaged
  5. Affects healing and repair (hydration, immune function)
  6. Associated with poor nutrition, causes vasoconstriction relaying healing
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58
Q

What are the differences regarding healing between partial- and full-thickness wounds?

A

Partial = regeneration occurs via: hemostasis and bleeding, inflammation, epithelial proliferation, migration of cells from other areas
Full = Hemostasis and bleeding, inflammation, proliferation, remodelling that can take upwards of 2 years (stage 3-4 PI)

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59
Q

What can increase the risk of skin tears in older adults?

A
  • Dehydration * Poor nutrition * Certain illnesses
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60
Q

Moisture, perfusion, co-morbidities, nutrition, mobility
Are all factors that can influence the chances of ________?

A

Pressure injuries

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61
Q

PI’s can be caused by these three motions of force:

A

Friction
Sheer
Pressure

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62
Q

Further risk factors for pressure injuries include:

A

Impaired sensory fxn
Mobility
Infection
Age
Moisture
Nutrition

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63
Q

What is a Pressure Injury (PI)?

A

A change in or break in the skin caused by an injury or trauma related to pressure, localized to skin and underlying tissue.

Also known as pressure ulcers, sores, decubitus ulcers, or bed sores.

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64
Q

What are factors that delay the inflammatory response?

A
  • Necrotic tissue
  • Repeated pressure
  • Trauma
  • Foreign bodies
  • Infection
  • Poor nutrition
  • Substance use (ETOH, drugs, cigarettes)

These factors can significantly affect wound healing processes.

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65
Q

What does ‘slough’ refer to in wound healing?

A

Bacteria and dead tissue present in a wound.

Slough can impede the healing process and may require debridement.

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66
Q

What are the risk factors for Pressure Injury (PI)?

A
  • Impaired Sensory Perception
  • Impaired Mobility
  • Alteration of Level of Consciousness (LOC)
  • Tissue Perfusion
  • Infection
  • Age
  • Psychosocial Impact of Wounds

Understanding these factors is crucial for prevention and management of PIs.

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67
Q

What are the classifications of Pressure Injuries?

A
  • Stage 1: Intact skin, non-blanchable erythema
  • Stage 2: Partial thickness skin loss
  • Stage 3: Full thickness tissue loss without bone or tendon exposure
  • Stage 4: Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon
  • Unstageable: Base of ulcer covered by slough or eschar
  • Suspected Deep Tissue Injury: Discolored intact skin

Each stage has specific characteristics that guide treatment.

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68
Q

What is Incontinence Associated Dermatitis (IAD)?

A

Skin inflammation due to chronic exposure to urine or feces, resulting in redness and potential blistering.

IAD can increase the risk of Pressure Injuries.

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69
Q

True or False: IAD can occur in the absence of any risk factors for Pressure Injuries.

A

True.

IAD has different etiologies compared to Pressure Injuries.

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70
Q

IADs can be caused or worsened by:

A

Immobility
Exposure to urine/feces = > pH, exposures to enzymes and bacteria

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71
Q

What are some systemic factors that affect wound healing?

A
  • Age
  • Anemia
  • Hypo-proteinemia (low protein)
  • Zinc deficiency

These factors can hinder the healing process and must be addressed.

72
Q

What are some nursing assessments when concerned about a PI?

A
  • Assessing skin integrity
  • Evaluating mobility and sensory perception
  • Nutritional status
  • History of incontinence

These assessments help identify patients at risk for developing Pressure Injuries.

73
Q

What are feeding options for a client who cannot eat?

A
  • Tube feed (NG/NJ, PEG/PEJ)
  • Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

These options ensure proper nutrition is maintained for healing.

74
Q

IADs vs PI

A

IADs = urinary or fecal incontinence causes, peri area, pain burning itching, poorly defined edges, with/without skin loss
PI’s = sheer friction pressure, bony prominences or medical device, pain, distinct edges, non-blanchable skin to full thickness skin loss

Both may cause infection

75
Q

What is a scenario in which a patient might need total parenteral nutrition?

A

Patient cannot swallow or is too high risk of aspiration to safely eat.

76
Q

Diagnose, Plan, and Implement strategy for a patient with PI

A

Diagnosis = risk for pressure injury
Plan = Skin care and nutrition maintenance, appointments with PT and OT, T&P Q2H
Implement = Assist with meals and turning and positioning

77
Q

What should evaluation include for patient care?

A
  • Weights
  • Calorie counts
  • Evaluation of healing
  • Monitoring lab values (fluids, electrolytes, proteins)
  • Evaluating vital signs
  • Assessing symptoms of diagnosis
78
Q

Fill in the blank: Healing can be affected by _______.

A

[stress, illness, injury]

79
Q

True or False: Fluid restriction is not considered in patient intake assessment.

80
Q

What does IAD stand for?

A

Incontinence Associated Dermatitis

82
Q

How does immobility affect nutrition? (Nitrogen balance, metabolism, hunger)

A

Decreased mobility further decreases appetite, affecting the body by decreasing its nitrogen balance and metabolic change of increasing protein break down.

83
Q

What allied heath care members can help with IADs and PIs

A

Nurses Specialized in Wound, Ostomy, and Incontinence Care (NSWOC)
Dietician
Speech Lanuage Pathologist
PT OT
Physician

They can increase physical strength, accelerate recovery and wound closure, decrease disk of infection

84
Q

BMR impacted by?

A

Healing, stress, injury, illness, sex, age

85
Q

What are the common effects of aging in regard to the heart and circulation?

A

Thickening blood vessel walls
Atherosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis
Narrowing Lumen
Less elastic vessels

86
Q

Where is the Point of Maximal Impulse

A

5th intercostal space = mitral valve

87
Q

When and where does the heart receive oxygen perfusion?

A

During diastole and through the coronary arteries that branch off of the aorta

88
Q

Where do the coronary vessels drain blood to?

A

The blood vessels drain onto the coronary sinus which connects to the right atrium

89
Q

Which two valves are most commonly replaced?

A

Aortic and Mitral (Bicuspid) valves

90
Q

Starling’s Law states that increasing the _________ of the heart muscles increases its _________ force.

A

Stretching (preload); contraction (afterload)

91
Q

When baroreceptors detect an INCREASED blood pressure…

A

…vasodilation is stimulated

92
Q

When baroreceptors detect DECREASED blood pressure…

A

…vasoconstriction is stimulated to increase BP

93
Q

Why is it important to understand how long blood cells live for?

A

It can provide an understanding of treatment side effects (e.g. chemotherapy will decrease WBC counts = < in WBCs after/within 12-20 days)

94
Q

Where are plasma proteins created?

95
Q

If the production of albumin is altered, the following may be affected

A

Fluid retention:
Ascites - fluid in belly
Edema - swelling of peripheries

96
Q

RBC count (increases/decreases) during infection or disease
WBC counts (increases/decreases) during infection or injury
WBC counts (increases/decreases) during cancer or chemotherapy
Platelets (increases/decreases) from anti platelet medication

A

Increases
Increases
Decreases
Decreases

97
Q

How does hypovolemia and heart failure affect stroke volume?

A

Hypovolemia causes LOW preload
Heart failure can cause HIGH preload

98
Q

What is After Load

A

The pressure ventricles have to push against for blood to be ejected

99
Q

The following contributes to an (increase/decrease) in after load
Vasoconstriction
Defective Valves
Thickness of Blood

A

All increases after load

100
Q

What is Mean Arterial Pressure

A

The minimum pressure to perfume the body with O2 (usually 60)

101
Q

In terms of blood flow, why is Ventricular Tachycardia so dangerous?

A

Ventricular tachycardia decreases cardiac output (CO) because the ventricles are not being filled up all the way. There are a number of events that occur as a result of this (e.g. the oxygen supply and demand to the heart is imbalanced. More O2 usage, less O2 perfusion).

102
Q

What is the difference between dysrhythmia and arrhythmia?

A

Dysrhythmia refers to a broad concept of abnormal rhythm.
Arrhythmia specifically refers to “without rhythm”.

103
Q

Define murmurs and state its risk factors and treatment

A

Murmurs are audible noises made by the blood from obstructions in flow or other factors.
Risk factors include: age, smoking, birth defects, HTN
Treatment: ∆ in lifestyle, interventions like surgery

104
Q

Define: Myocardial Ischemia

A

Heart cell death resulting from an O2 supply and demand imbalance
Can cause angina (chest pain)

105
Q

What are the two Heart Attack types and their treatments

A

NSTEMI = partial blockage of an artery
STEMI = full blockage of an artery
Treatment includes: ∆ in lifestyle, medication, surgery

106
Q

What risk can come from using aspirin (ASA) for angina

A

ASA is an NSAID = bleeding risk because its an anti platelet

107
Q

Arteriosclerosis and risk factors & treatment

A

General hardening of a vessel - loses elasticity
Risk factors include diet, lifestyle, smoking, HTN, age, family Hx
Treatment includes lifestyle changes, medication

108
Q

Atherosclerosis and risk factors

A

Atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis. Specifically caused be a build up of plaque from cholesterol, calcium, etc.
Treatment can be medication and ∆ in lifestyle.

109
Q

How does diabetes contribute to cardiovascular problems?

A

High sugar can damage blood vessels and can increase HTN and LDL

110
Q

The hormone __________ can increase the risk of HF by contributing to T2DM, metabolic syndrome, and CAD by when levels are too high/low.

A

Testosterone

111
Q

When the hormone ___________ is low, it increases risks for HF by causing hyperlipidemia and ventricular arrhythmias.

112
Q

The high levels of the hormone ____________ increases the risk of HF by causing atrial arrhythmias, HTN

113
Q

The acronym DOCHAP is helpful when determining the side effects for ______ - sided HF, and stands for?

A

Left
D - Dyspnea (difficulty breathing)
O - Orthopnea (difficulty breathing while laying down)
C - Cough
H - Hemoptysis (bloody sputum)
A - Adventitious breath sounds
P - Pulmonary congestion

114
Q

Left-sided heart failure affects _________ ________ to the heart.

A

Venous; return

115
Q

This type of HF affects venous return from the body organs, leading to edema within the legs and feet.

A

Right sided heart failure

116
Q

The acronym AWHEAD stands for?

A

A - Anorexia
W - Weight gain
H - Hepatomegaly (liver enlargement)
E - Edema
A - Ascites (fluid in belly)
D - Distended neck veins

117
Q

What are two ways to diagnose HF?

A

Lab tests - detects high levels of BNP
Chest X-ray (CXR) - observe cardiomegaly and pulmonary congestion

118
Q

3 most common risk factors for HF

A

MI, CAD, HTN

119
Q

How do the following medications help for HF?
Beta-blockers
ACE
ARBS (RAAS)
Anticoagulants
Diuretics

A

Beta-blockers = “lol” suffix, improves the pump of the heart
ACE = contribute to vasodilation, protects kidneys from HTN
ARBS = affects the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
Anti-coagulants = prevent clotting, duh
Diuretic = makes you pee your pants!!

120
Q

Primary S/S (risk factors) leading to HF

A

Age, family Hx, smoking, diet, sedentary lifestyle, idiopathic

121
Q

Secondary S/S (PMHx) leading to HF

A

Arteriosclerosis, conventional defects, Cushing syndrome (> cortisol), adrenal gland issues, medication, pregnancy

122
Q

What three ways can you detect an MI

A

Angiogram
Troponin levels (from cell injury)
ECG

123
Q

Detects the severity of HF

A

Levels of BNP

124
Q

Method to evaluate valves

A

Echocardiogram

125
Q

Method to detect dysrhythmia

126
Q

Detects ejection fraction

A

Echocardiogram

127
Q

Used to insert stents

128
Q

The SODA acronym is for risk factors that lead to _________
It stands for…

A

HTN.
S - sedentary, smoking, stress
O - obesity, oral contraceptives
D - diet, disease
A - African-American men, age

129
Q

Why is it important to educate patients on their medication?

A

To ensure they adhere to the plans and to understand what they do for them.

130
Q

Where and what is the fxn of the coronary sinus?

A

location=rt atrium
fxn= collects de02 blood from myocardium

131
Q

location and fxn of coronary arteries

A

location = left aorta
fxn = feed myocardium during diastole

132
Q

what is the Lub

A

S1. AV closing at and of diastole

133
Q

what is the dub

A

S2. semilunar valves closing at end of systole

134
Q

“When muscles stretch there is going to be increased strength in the contraction” is what law?

A

Starling’s law

135
Q

BP diff of 10-15 between arms is a sign of what?

A

atherosclerosis or arteriol obstruction

136
Q

How does body respond to low BP?

A
  • SNS activation
  • vasoconstriction
  • increased CO
137
Q

how does body respond to high BP?

A
  • PSNS activation
  • vasodilation
  • decreased CO
138
Q

List and describe fxn the layers of the heart wall from innermost to outermost.

A
  1. endocardium: regulates contractions, smooth non-adherent for blood flow
  2. myocardium: contracts controlled by pacemaker, where coronary arteries innervate
  3. epicardium: CT and fat, heart anchor, extra protection. coronary arteries are here.
139
Q

what is an average MAP for an adult

140
Q

irregular enlargement of the heart is known as

A

cardiomegaly

141
Q

define penia

142
Q

define poiesis

143
Q

define cytosis

144
Q

the blood the heart beats in L/min is known as

A

Cardiac output CO

145
Q

HR is

A

the # of beats/min

146
Q

amount of blood ejected from the heart during each cardiac cycle

A

Stroke volume

147
Q

define preload

A

ventricular stretch at end of diastole

148
Q

define afterload

A

resistance the heart overcomes to eject blood from ventricles

149
Q

what are the 3 V’s?

A

factors affecting afterload
vessel diameter, viscosity, and valves

150
Q

define contractility

A

ability of the heart to contract and the force at which it contracts

151
Q

what is the issue with too much contractility?

A

there is not enough time for the heart to fill and CO decreases

152
Q

C/C hypoxia vs hypoxemia

A

hypoxia = low 02 in tissues
hypoxemia = low 02 in blood

153
Q

C/C tachycardia vs bradycardia

A

Tachy: too fast >100
* decreased CO, preload, and 02 to heart
* increased myocardial 02 demand
* can be benign from exercise, or serious (V Tach)
Brady: too slow <60
* decreased CO
* benign in athletes

154
Q

treatment of arrhythmias and hear problems is based on what?

A

type of rhythm and s/s

155
Q

common s/s of dysrrhythmias

A

syncope, dizzy, lightheaded, tire easily, memory problems

156
Q

Examples of Tachy arhythmias

A
  • A-Fib: chaotic signal w/ multiple pacemaker sites
  • V-Fib: impulse comes from ventricles not SA node
157
Q

examples of brady arhythmias

A
  • sick sinus rhythm: SA impacted (dysfunction/disease/hypothyroidism)
  • Heart block: (AKA AV block) smth blocking electrical signal
158
Q

what is ACS?

A

unstable angina

159
Q

what is NSTEMI vs STEMI

A

NSTEMI = partial coronary artery blockage
STEMI = complete coronary artery blockage
stemi stands for the ST segment in an ECG and means ST elevated myocardio ischemia

160
Q

which is worse: NSTEMI OR STEMI?

161
Q

describe left sided heart failure

A

think left to the lungs
pulmonary congestion & pressure from failed venous return from lungs
THINK DOCHAP
heavy wet lung sounds
every alveoli filled with edema = impossible gas exchange

162
Q

what does DOCHAP stand for?

A

it is a memory trick for LHF problems
D: dyspnea
O: orthopnea
C: cough
H: hematocytosis
A: adventitious breath sounds
P: pulmonary congestion

163
Q

describe right sided heart failure

A
  • think right to the rest*
    venous congestion of body organs due to failed venous return.
    failure of ride side bc of increased pulmonary vascular pressure.
164
Q

what does AWHEAD?

A

memory trick for RHF
A: anorexia
W: weight gain
H: hepatomegaly
E: edema
A: ascites
D: distended neck veins

165
Q

what is azotemia?

A

build up of waste in blood due to renal failure. symptom of rightside HF

166
Q

give 5 medication classes that someone with HF would take

A
  1. Beta Blockers: improves the pump
  2. ACE: vasodilator, protects kidneys
  3. ARBS: blocks vasocontriction
  4. Diuretic: gets rid of fluid
  5. Anticoagulants: prevents sticking
167
Q

common non-pharmacological treatments for someone with HF?

A
  • restrict Na
  • restrict water
  • exercise
  • daily weigh-ins (4lbs in 2 days or 5 lbs in 1 week is BAD)
  • DASH and DRESS diets
168
Q

what is metabolic syndrome?

A

a cluster of conditions such at T2DM, insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, high chol and triglycerides, and HTN

169
Q

what is AABC?

A

memory trick for complications of HTN
A: atherosclerosis
A: aneurysm
B: broken kidneys, eyes, heart
C: clots in lungs, brain, heart

170
Q

Primary s/s:

A

basically any risk factors:
age, family hx, smoking, diet, sedentary lifestyle, idiopathic

171
Q

secondary s/s:

A

basically any meds, health HX
arteriosclerosis, congenital defect, kidney disease, cushing syndrome, adrenal gland, meds, pregnancy

172
Q

What does SODA stand for?

A

memory trick for risk factors of HTN
S: stress, smoking, sedentary
O: obesity, oral contraceptives
D: diet (Na, chol), disease (diabetes, renal, HF, high chol)
A: African American, age

173
Q

troponin labs detect…

A

MI, heart injury

174
Q

BNP labs tell you…

A

detects severity of CHF. It is released from ventricles stretching.

175
Q

CK labs tell you…

A

an inflammatory marker, detects cell damage in brain & skeletal/heart muscle

176
Q

CRP labs tell you…

A

inflammatory marker, detects tissue injury and infection

177
Q

DASH diet stands for

A

Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension

178
Q

DRESS diet stands for

A

D: decrease Na/cal/chol
R: reduce ETOH/caffeine
E: exercise
S: stop smoking
S: stress - decrease