NP1 cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary factors responsible for Blood Pressure?

A
  • Blood Volume
  • Fluid loss
  • Dehydration
  • Fluid retention
  • Aldosterone
  • ADH
  • Peripheral Resistance
  • Sympathetic nervous system activity
  • Renin/angiotensin II
  • Increased blood viscosity
  • Cardiac Output
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2
Q

What is the classification for Normal blood pressure?

A
  • Systolic: Less than 120
  • Diastolic: Less than 80
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3
Q

What defines Prehypertension according to?

A
  • Systolic: 120-139
  • Diastolic: 80-89
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4
Q

What characterizes Stage 1 Hypertension?

A
  • Systolic: 140-159
  • Diastolic: 90-99
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5
Q

What defines Stage 2 Hypertension?

A
  • Systolic: 160 or higher
  • Diastolic: 100 or higher
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6
Q

What are the factors contributing to Hypertension?

A
  • Dysfunction of autonomic nervous system
  • Increased sympathetic nervous system activity
  • ↑ renal reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and water
  • Stimulation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
  • Endothelial mechanical problems
  • Age
  • Insulin resistance
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7
Q

True or False: Hypertension is often referred to as ‘The Silent Killer’.

A

True

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8
Q

What are the signs/symptoms that may indicate high blood pressure or target organ damage?

A
  • Chest pain
  • Headache
  • Shortness of breath
  • Speech problems
  • Epistaxis
  • Nocturia
  • Dizziness
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9
Q

What are the common symptoms of a Hypertensive Crisis?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Extremely high blood pressure
  • Dizzy and blurred vision
  • Shortness of breath
  • Epistaxis
  • Severe anxiety
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10
Q

What are the risk factors for Atherosclerosis?

A
  • Low HDL and high LDL
  • Increased triglycerides
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Obesity
  • Smoking
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Stress
  • African American or Hispanic ethnicity
  • Elderly
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11
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

A
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Rest pain
  • Loss of hair on lower calf, ankle, and foot
  • Dry, scaly, dusky, pale, or mottled skin
  • Thick toenails
  • Pallor when extremity is elevated
  • Rubor when extremity is lowered
  • Muscle atrophy
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12
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator in the assessment of PAD?

A

Posterior tibial pulse

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common cause of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is _______.

A

[atherosclerosis]

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14
Q

What is Virchow’s triad related to Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)?

A
  • Stasis of blood
  • Vessel wall injury
  • Altered blood coagulation
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15
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Chronic Venous Insufficiency?

A
  • Edema
  • Altered pigmentation
  • Pain
  • Stasis dermatitis
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16
Q

What are common interventions for managing VTE?

A
  • Measure the circumference of the leg
  • Rest
  • Anticoagulant therapy
  • Warm, moist soaks
  • Elevate legs when sitting
  • Compression therapy
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17
Q

What are the signs of Acute Peripheral Arterial Occlusion?

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Paresthesia
  • Paralysis
  • Poikilothermy
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18
Q

What is the treatment for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A
  • Hypotension management
  • Diaphoresis
  • Decreased LOC
  • Oliguria
  • No pulse distal to rupture
  • Dysrhythmias
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19
Q

What lifestyle modifications can help control blood pressure?

A
  • Weight control
  • Exercise
  • Smoking cessation
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20
Q

What are common side effects of statins used in treating Atherosclerosis?

A
  • Muscle cramping
  • Elevated liver enzymes
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21
Q

What should patients with PAD be taught about managing pain?

A

Walk until pain begins and rest

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22
Q

True or False: Varicose veins are more common in younger people.

A

False

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23
Q

What are the characteristics of venous ulcers?

A
  • Most serious complication of chronic venous insufficiency
  • Caused by small veins rupturing
  • Skin gets dry, cracks, and itches
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24
Q

What is Valvular Heart Disease?

A

A condition involving damage to one or more of the heart valves.

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25
Q

What causes Mitral Stenosis?

A

Most commonly caused by rheumatic fever.

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26
Q

What are the pathophysiological changes in Mitral Stenosis?

A

Valve thickening by fibrosis and calcification; leaflets fuse, stiffen, and opening narrows.

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27
Q

What are the common complications of Mitral Stenosis?

A
  • Pulmonary congestion
  • Right-sided heart failure (HF)
  • Decreased cardiac output (CO)
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28
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Mitral Stenosis?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Dyspnea on exertion (DOE)
  • Orthopnea
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
  • Hemoptysis
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Neck vein distention
  • Pitting edema
  • Atrial fibrillation (AF)
  • Fumbling, apical diastolic murmur
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29
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A

Valvular leaflet enlargement with prolapse into the atrium during systole.

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30
Q

What are the complications associated with Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A
  • Syncope
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Atrial or Ventricular dysrhythmias
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31
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A
  • Atypical chest pain
  • Dizziness
  • Syncope
  • Palpitations
  • Atrial tachycardia
  • Mid-systolic click
  • Systolic murmur
  • Normal HR and BP
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32
Q

What is the most common valve disorder?

A

Aortic Stenosis.

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33
Q

What are the complications of Aortic Stenosis?

A
  • Ventricular hypertrophy
  • Cardiac output becomes fixed
  • Left ventricular failure (LVF)
  • Pulmonary congestion
  • Right-sided failure
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34
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Aortic Stenosis?

A
  • Dyspnea on exertion
  • Angina
  • Syncope on exertion
  • Fatigue
  • Orthopnea
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
  • Harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur
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35
Q

What is the purpose of valvuloplasty?

A

Repair of the valve, not replacement.

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36
Q

What is the nursing priority after a valvuloplasty?

A
  • Observe for bleeding at site
  • Observe for signs of regurgitant valve
  • Observe for signs of thrombi
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37
Q

What is Infective Endocarditis?

A

Microbial infection of the endothelial surface of the heart.

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38
Q

What are the risk factors for Infective Endocarditis?

A
  • IV drug users
  • Hemodialysis
  • Systemic infection
  • Dental procedures
  • Body piercings
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39
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Infective Endocarditis?

A
  • Recurrent fever of unknown origin
  • Heart murmur
  • Petechiae
  • Splinter hemorrhages
  • Osler’s nodes
  • Janeway’s lesions
  • Malaise
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Cough
  • Joint pain
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40
Q

What is the treatment for Infective Endocarditis?

A
  • Antimicrobials IV for 4-6 weeks
  • Possible surgery for large vegetations
  • Balance rest and activity
41
Q

What are the complications of Infective Endocarditis?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Arterial emboli
  • Splenic infarction
  • Renal infarction
  • Mesenteric emboli
  • Neurologic changes
  • Pulmonary infarction
42
Q

What is Acute Pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the membranous sac around the heart.

43
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of Acute Pericarditis?

A
  • Substernal precordial pain
  • Pain aggravated by coughing, swallowing, and breathing
  • Worsened in supine position
  • Relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
  • Fever
  • EKG changes
44
Q

What is Cardiac Tamponade?

A

Compression of the heart due to accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac.

45
Q

What are the cardinal symptoms of Cardiac Tamponade?

A
  • Falling systolic blood pressure
  • Narrowing pulse pressure
  • Rising venous pressure (JVD)
  • Distant or muffled heart sounds
46
Q

What is the management for Cardiac Tamponade?

A
  • Pericardiocentesis
  • Emergency resuscitation equipment available
  • Monitor for complications
47
Q

What causes Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A

Caused by an upper respiratory infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

48
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Cardiomegaly
  • New or changed murmur
  • Friction rub
  • Precordial pain
  • EKG changes
  • Heart failure
49
Q

What are the four types of Cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Dilated cardiomyopathy
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (nonobstructed and obstructed)
  • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
  • Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
50
Q

What is the effect of decreased stroke volume in Cardiomyopathy?

A

Stimulates sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone response, leading to fluid retention and increased workload on the heart.

51
Q

What is the priority concept for patients with cardiac conditions?

52
Q

What are the interrelated concepts for patients with cardiac conditions?

A
  • Gas exchange
  • Comfort
  • Infection
53
Q

What are the major types of heart failure?

A
  • Left-sided
  • Right-sided
  • High-output
54
Q

What are typical causes of heart failure?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Valvular disease
55
Q

What are the two types of heart failure?

A
  • Systolic
  • Diastolic
56
Q

What causes left-sided heart failure?

A
  • Left ventricular failure
  • Right ventricular MI
  • Pulmonary hypertension
57
Q

What are common symptoms of left-sided heart failure?

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Exertional dyspnea
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Chest pain or palpitations
58
Q

What characterizes right-sided heart failure?

A

Cardiac output remains normal or above normal

59
Q

What are causes of high-output heart failure?

A
  • Septicemia
  • High fever
  • Anemia
  • Hyperthyroidism
60
Q

What are the NYHA classification stages for heart failure?

A
  • Class I: High risk but no symptoms
  • Class II: Mild symptoms
  • Class III: Moderate symptoms
  • Class IV: Severe symptoms
61
Q

What compensatory mechanisms are activated when cardiac output is insufficient?

A
  • Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
  • Renin–angiotensin system activation
  • Myocardial hypertrophy
62
Q

What is the incidence of heart failure in the U.S.?

A

6 million people

63
Q

What demographic has an increased risk for heart failure?

A

Black adults

64
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of fluid gain/loss in heart failure patients?

65
Q

What laboratory assessments are important in heart failure?

A
  • Serum electrolytes
  • Hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • BNP
  • Urinalysis
  • ABGs
66
Q

What imaging assessments are used for heart failure?

A
  • CXR
  • Echocardiography
  • Radionucleotide studies
  • MUGA
67
Q

What are the goals for evaluating outcomes in heart failure management?

A
  • Adequate pulmonary tissue perfusion
  • Increased cardiac pump effectiveness
  • Freedom from pulmonary edema
68
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

69
Q

What symptoms may indicate mitral regurgitation?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Chronic weakness
  • Anxiety
  • Atrial fibrillation
70
Q

What is a common symptom of aortic stenosis?

A

Exertional dyspnea

71
Q

What are the signs of infective endocarditis?

A
  • Petechiae
  • Splinter hemorrhages
  • Osler nodes
  • Janeway lesions
  • Roth spots
72
Q

What is the primary prevention for rheumatic carditis?

A

Penicillin or erythromycin

73
Q

What are the types of cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
  • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
  • Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
74
Q

What nursing action should be taken for a client with heart failure experiencing shortness of breath?

A

Replace the nasal cannula

75
Q

What nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with heart failure who shows signs of fatigue?

A

Energy management

76
Q

Which medications may be ordered for a client with an ejection fraction of 30%?

A
  • Lisinopril
  • Digoxin
  • Furosemide
77
Q

True or False: Right-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion.

78
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common valve dysfunction in the U.S. is _______.

A

Aortic stenosis

79
Q

What is the priority concept in the assessment of the cardiovascular system?

80
Q

What is the interrelated concept in this chapter?

A

Fluid and electrolyte balance

81
Q

What are the AV valves of the heart?

A
  • Tricuspid valve
  • Mitral valve
82
Q

What are the semilunar valves of the heart?

A
  • Pulmonic valve
  • Aortic valve
83
Q

What is the mean arterial pressure (MAP) range to maintain adequate perfusion?

A

60 to 70 mm Hg

84
Q

List the sequence of events during the cardiac cycle.

A
  • Mitral and tricuspid (AV) valves close
  • Aortic and pulmonic (semilunar) valves open
  • Isovolumetric contraction
  • Ventricular ejection
  • Isovolumetric relaxation
  • Aortic and pulmonic (semilunar) valves close
  • Mitral and tricuspid (AV) valves open
85
Q

What are the mechanical properties of the heart?

A
  • Cardiac output
  • Heart rate
  • Stroke volume
  • Preload
  • Afterload
86
Q

Define cardiac output (CO).

A

Amount of blood pumped from left ventricle per minute

87
Q

How is cardiac output (CO) calculated?

A

CO = Heart rate × Stroke volume

88
Q

What are the purposes of the vascular system?

A
  • Provides a route for blood to travel from the heart to nourish tissues
  • Carries cellular wastes to excretory organs
  • Allows lymphatic flow to drain tissue fluid back into circulation
  • Returns blood to the heart for recirculation
89
Q

What is the primary function of the venous system?

A

To complete circulation of blood by returning blood from capillaries to the right side of the heart

90
Q

What cardiovascular changes are associated with aging?

A
  • Cardiac valves
  • Conduction system
  • Left ventricle
  • Aorta and other large arteries
  • Baroreceptors
91
Q

What factors should be included in the history assessment for cardiovascular risk?

A
  • Modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors
  • Psychological factors
  • Medical history
  • Previous treatment for CVD
  • Drug history
  • Social history
  • Nutrition
  • Family history and genetic risk
  • Current health problems
  • Functional history
92
Q

What components are included in a physical assessment of the cardiovascular system?

A
  • General appearance
  • Skin color and temperature
  • Extremities
  • Blood pressure
  • Venous and arterial pulses
  • Precordium
  • Inspection
  • Palpation
  • Percussion
  • Auscultation
93
Q

What laboratory assessments are important for cardiovascular evaluation?

A
  • Serum cardiac enzymes
  • Troponin T and I
  • Serum lipids
  • Total cholesterol
  • Triglycerides
  • HDL
  • LDL
  • Other laboratory tests
94
Q

What are some diagnostic assessments for the cardiovascular system?

A
  • PA and lateral CXR
  • Angiography (arteriography)
  • Cardiac catheterization
  • ECG
  • EPS
  • Exercise electrocardiography
  • Echocardiography
  • Transesophageal echocardiography
  • Myocardial nuclear perfusion imaging (MNPI)
  • CT, MRI
95
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary function of the venous system is to complete circulation of blood by returning blood from capillaries to the _______.

A

right side of the heart

96
Q

True or False: Low HDL values indicate an increased risk for coronary artery disease (CAD).

97
Q

What action should a nurse take when having difficulty auscultating the first heart sound, S1?

A

Direct the client to lay on their left side

98
Q

What is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD) related to smoking?

A

Smoking increases risks for heart disease