ENDOCRINE/PREOP Flashcards

1
Q

What are endocrine glands also known as?

A

Ductless glands

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2
Q

How do hormones reach their target tissues?

A

Through blood transport

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3
Q

What is the mechanism called that regulates hormone secretion based on the body’s needs?

A

Negative feedback

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4
Q

Fill in the blank: Insulin causes a decrease in blood glucose levels, which is the _______ of the initial condition that stimulated its secretion.

A

Opposite action

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5
Q

What health patterns are most affected by endocrine problems?

A
  • Nutritional/metabolic
  • Activity/exercise
  • Elimination
  • Sleep/rest
  • Sexuality/reproductive
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6
Q

What dietary deficiencies should be assessed in patients with endocrine problems?

A
  • Protein
  • Iodide-containing foods
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7
Q

What changes should be noted in a patient’s physical appearance during assessment?

A
  • Hair texture and distribution
  • Facial contours and eye protrusion
  • Voice quality
  • Body proportions
  • Secondary sexual characteristics
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8
Q

What is a key neurological symptom associated with hypopituitarism?

A

Change in vision

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9
Q

What is the most life-threatening deficiency in hypopituitarism?

A
  • ACTH
  • TSH
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10
Q

What are the common causes of hyperpituitarism?

A

Anterior pituitary tumors or tissue hyperplasia

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11
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Growth hormone hypersecretion after puberty

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12
Q

What are common symptoms of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

A
  • Polydipsia
  • Polyuria
  • Dehydration
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13
Q

True or False: Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) is characterized by vasopressin secretion even when plasma osmolarity is low.

A

True

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14
Q

What is the primary intervention for diabetes insipidus?

A

Lifelong vasopressin therapy

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15
Q

What does a high aldosterone level promote?

A

Sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion

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16
Q

What is a common assessment finding in SIADH?

A
  • Headache
  • Weakness
  • swollen
  • Muscle cramps
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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The major mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _______.

A

Aldosterone

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18
Q

What diagnostic assessments are important for evaluating endocrine disorders?

A
  • Labs
  • Imaging tests
  • Stimulation/suppression tests
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19
Q

What should be monitored post-transsphenoidal pituitary surgery?

A
  • Neurologic response
  • Postnasal drip
  • Hormone replacement
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20
Q

What might truncal obesity and buffalo hump indicate?

A

Adrenocortical excess

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21
Q

What is the result of ADH deficiency in diabetes insipidus?

A

Excretion of large amounts of diluted urine

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22
Q

What is the typical urine output in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

A

4-20 liters/day

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23
Q

What are some interventions for SIADH?

A
  • Fluid restriction
  • Monitoring intake and output
  • Drug therapy with vasopressin antagonists
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24
Q

What physical changes are assessed in patients with potential endocrine disorders?

A
  • Height
  • Weight
  • Fat distribution
  • Muscle mass
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25
Q

What is the purpose of the water deprivation test in diagnosing diabetes insipidus?

A

To determine if urine osmolality increases with fluid deprivation

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26
Q

What are signs of dehydration in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

A
  • Extreme thirst
  • Weight loss
  • Muscle weakness
  • Dry mucous membranes
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27
Q

What neurological changes could indicate hyperpituitarism?

A
  • Visual changes
  • Headache
  • Increased intracranial pressure
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28
Q

What factors should be considered during endocrine assessment?

A
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Medication use
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29
Q

What is the primary function of aldosterone?

A

Controls extracellular fluid volume by promoting sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion

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30
Q

What regulates aldosterone production?

A

Renin-angiotensin system, serum potassium concentration, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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31
Q

What are glucocorticoids produced by the adrenal cortex regulated by?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone ACTH and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

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32
Q

What is the main glucocorticoid and its effects?

A

Cortisol; affects carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism, the body’s response to stress, emotional stability, and immune function

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33
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

A condition characterized by diminished production of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids, resulting in decreased aldosterone and cortisol

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34
Q

What are common causes of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • Idiopathic autoimmune (majority of cases) * Tuberculosis * Metastatic cancer * AIDS * Hemorrhage * Gram-negative sepsis * Adrenalectomy * Abdominal radiation * Drugs or toxins
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35
Q

What triggers Addison’s crisis?

A

Rapid onset life-threatening event; need for cortisol and aldosterone exceeds available supply, often in response to stress

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36
Q

What are common symptoms of adrenal gland insufficiency?

A
  • Anorexia * Nausea/Vomiting * Abdominal pain * Bowel changes * Weight loss * Salt craving * Hyperpigmentation * Muscle weakness
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37
Q

What interventions are important for adrenal gland insufficiency?

A
  • Promote fluid balance * Prevent hypoglycemia * Monitor labs * Administer hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone
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38
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

A condition caused by hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones leading to excessive cortisol or androgen production

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39
Q

What are common manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome?

A
  • Central obesity * Fragile skin * Diabetes * Osteoporosis * Muscle wasting * Hypertension * Moon face * Increased susceptibility to infection
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40
Q

What is the treatment approach for Cushing’s syndrome?

A
  • Excision or radiation of tumors * Tapering steroids * Dexamethasone suppression test for diagnosis
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41
Q

What is the role of thyroid hormones?

A
  • Control metabolic rate * Promote growth hormone secretion * Regulate metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats * Affect heart rate and respiratory drive
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42
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Excessive secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland

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43
Q

What are common causes of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Graves’ disease * Toxic nodular goiter * Exogenous hyperthyroidism
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44
Q

What are symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Nervousness * Heat intolerance * Weight loss * Palpitations * Bulging eyes (exophthalmos) * Increased appetite
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45
Q

What is thyroid storm?

A

A life-threatening condition of extreme hyperthyroidism requiring immediate medical attention

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46
Q

What laboratory findings are indicative of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Low TSH * High T4 levels * Increased radioactive iodine uptake
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47
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

A condition characterized by insufficient production of thyroid hormones

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48
Q

What are common manifestations of severe hypothyroidism?

A
  • Extreme fatigue * Hair loss * Weight gain * Cold intolerance * Myxedema coma
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49
Q

What is myxedema coma?

A

A rare and life-threatening condition caused by severe hypothyroidism, often triggered by stress or sedatives

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50
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A

Lowers serum calcium and phosphorus levels by reducing bone resorption

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51
Q

What is the normal range for TSH?

A

0.3-5.0 uU/mL

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52
Q

What is the most common treatment for Graves’ disease?

A

Radioactive iodine therapy

53
Q

What dietary requirements are necessary for thyroid hormone production?

A

Adequate intake of protein and iodine

54
Q

What is Myxedema Coma?

A

A rare and life-threatening condition caused by severe hypothyroidism, often occurring in elderly women during winter.

It can be triggered by undiagnosed hypothyroidism, sedatives, or opioid agents.

55
Q

What are the early signs and symptoms of Myxedema Coma?

A

Depression, diminished cognitive status, lethargy, somnolence, and respiratory drive depression.

These symptoms can lead to coma, and the condition is considered an emergency.

56
Q

What is the mortality rate of Myxedema Coma?

A

Very high.

57
Q

What precautions should be taken when treating Myxedema Coma?

A

Administer oxygen and fluids cautiously, avoid heating pads.

Heating pads increase oxygen requirements and may lead to vascular collapse.

58
Q

What is a goiter?

A

An enlarged thyroid gland, often associated with thyroid tumors.

59
Q

What characterizes an Iodine Deficient Goiter?

A

High TSH levels with thyroid enlargement to compensate for low thyroid hormone levels.

Usually presents with no symptoms other than swelling.

60
Q

What is a Nodular Goiter?

A

A thyroid enlargement with nodules, can be associated with thyroid cancer.

61
Q

What is a common characteristic of Thyroid Cancer?

A

A hard, single, fixed nodule that usually produces hyperthyroidism initially.

62
Q

What are the post-operative concerns after a Thyroidectomy?

A

Edema of the glottis, airway management, potential injury to parathyroid glands leading to calcium deficiency, and risk of laryngospasm.

Keep a trach set at bedside and advise the patient to minimize talking.

63
Q

What is Hyperparathyroidism?

A

An increase in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels leading to hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia.

64
Q

What are common assessment findings in Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Weight loss, bone fractures, osteoporosis, arthritis, psychological distress.

65
Q

What is the management for Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Nonsurgical and surgical management, including diuretics and hydration with normal saline.

66
Q

What defines Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decreased function of the parathyroid gland, often due to removal of parathyroid tissue.

67
Q

What are common causes of Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Iatrogenic causes, idiopathic causes, and hypomagnesemia from various conditions.

68
Q

What interventions are needed for Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Correcting hypocalcemia, vitamin D deficiency, and hypomagnesemia.

69
Q

What symptoms might a patient with hypothyroidism exhibit?

A

Fatigue, muscle aches, bradycardia, non-pitting edema, and low blood pressure.

70
Q

What laboratory results would indicate hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased T3 and T4 levels, increased TSH levels.

71
Q

Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching about hypothyroidism?

A

When I am feeling better in a few months, I will no longer need to take the Synthroid pills.

72
Q

Which finding requires immediate attention in a patient with Grave’s disease?

A

Irregular heart rate and rhythm.

73
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for an older female patient with hyperparathyroidism?

A

Implement fall precautions.

74
Q

What should be included in the postoperative plan of care after a total thyroidectomy?

A

Avoiding extending the patient’s neck.

75
Q

What is the priority concept for perioperative patients?

A

Gas exchange, Pain

The interrelated concepts include Infection and Tissue integrity.

76
Q

What is the role of nurses in the perioperative process?

A

Provide care before, during, and after surgery

77
Q

What organization defines evidence-based guidelines for perioperative care?

A

AORN - Association of periOperative Registered Nurses

78
Q

What are the National Patient Safety Goals related to surgical care?

A

SBAR, Surgical Care Improvement Plan (SCIP), Surgical Safety Checklist, TeamSTEPPS

79
Q

When does the preoperative phase begin and end?

A

Begins when patient is scheduled for surgery; ends at time of transfer to surgical suite

80
Q

What is a key focus during the preoperative phase?

A

Preparing for surgery and ensuring safety

81
Q

What should be obtained during the physical assessment in the preoperative phase?

A

Baseline vital signs

82
Q

What systems should be assessed during the preoperative phase?

A
  • Cardiovascular
  • Respiratory
  • Kidney
  • Neurologic
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Nutrition
  • Skin
  • Psychosocial
83
Q

What are the priority collaborative problems for preoperative patients?

A
  • Need for health teaching
  • Anxiety due to fear
  • Minimizing anxiety
84
Q

What are methods to minimize anxiety in preoperative patients?

A
  • Encourage communication
  • Promote rest
  • Use distraction
  • Teach the caregiver
85
Q

What is essential for informed consent in the preoperative phase?

A

Ensure informed consent is obtained

86
Q

What dietary restrictions might need to be implemented in the preoperative phase?

A

Implement dietary restrictions as per guidelines

87
Q

What should be documented before surgery?

A
  • Allergies
  • Height
  • Weight
  • Laboratory and diagnostic test results
88
Q

What are expected outcomes of the preoperative phase?

A
  • States understanding of informed consent
  • Demonstrates preoperative exercises
  • Verbalizes reduced anxiety
89
Q

What should be assessed in the respiratory system postoperatively?

A

Patent airway and adequate gas exchange

90
Q

What vital signs should be monitored in the cardiovascular system postoperative?

A

Report BP changes that are 25% higher or lower than baseline

91
Q

What should be assessed in the neurologic system postoperatively?

A

Cerebral function and level of consciousness

92
Q

What is important to assess regarding fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance?

A

Intake and output (I&O), hydration status

93
Q

What should be reported regarding urine output in the renal/urinary system?

A

Report urine output of <30 mL/hr

94
Q

What should be assessed in the gastrointestinal system postoperatively?

A
  • Postoperative nausea/vomiting (PONV)
  • Intestinal peristalsis
  • Constipation
95
Q

What indicates impaired wound healing postoperatively?

A

Dehiscence and evisceration

96
Q

What is essential for pain assessment postoperatively?

A

Continuous assessment needed

97
Q

What should be assessed in psychosocial evaluation postoperatively?

A

Signs of anxiety

98
Q

What laboratory assessments are important preoperatively?

A
  • Analysis of electrolytes
  • CBC
  • Urinalysis
  • Kidney function tests
  • ABG
99
Q

What are the priority collaborative problems for patients in the immediate postoperative period?

A
  • Potential for decreased gas exchange
  • Potential for infection and delayed healing
  • Acute pain
  • Potential for decreased peristalsis
100
Q

What should self-management education include postoperatively?

A
  • Pain management
  • Drug therapy
  • Safety
  • Prevention of infection
  • Nutrition therapy
101
Q

What health care resources might be available for postoperative patients?

A
  • Home care nurse
  • Meals on Wheels
  • Support groups
102
Q

What are expected outcomes for postoperative patients?

A
  • Adequate lung expansion
  • Appropriate wound healing
  • Acceptable pain management
  • Return of peristalsis
103
Q

Which laboratory finding requires nursing intervention before surgery?

A

Serum potassium 2.5 mEq/L

104
Q

What is the purpose of compression stockings and pneumatic compression devices?

A

They help to prevent blood clots

105
Q

What nursing actions are appropriate for a client with GI bleeding showing signs of hypovolemia?

A
  • Increase IV infusion rate
  • Monitor vital signs frequently
  • Administer supplemental oxygen
  • Notify the Rapid Response Team
106
Q

What is the definition of perfusion?

A

The process of delivering blood to the capillary beds in the body’s tissues.

107
Q

What are the two commonly known values that make up a blood pressure reading?

A

Systolic (SYS) and diastolic (DIA) pressures.

108
Q

What is the normal range for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

Between 70 and 100 mmHg.

109
Q

What is the formula for calculating Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

MAP = [(2x diastolic) + systolic] ÷ 3

110
Q

What is the minimum MAP required to provide sufficient blood to the coronary arteries, kidneys, and brain?

A

At least 60 mmHg.

111
Q

Name the four stages of shock.

A
  • Initial Stage
  • Compensatory Stage
  • Progressive Stage
  • Refractory Stage
112
Q

What causes hypovolemic shock?

A

Too little blood volume, resulting in decreased Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP).

113
Q

List three laboratory assessment signs of hypovolemic shock.

A
  • Decreased pH
  • Increased lactic acid
  • Increased or decreased hemoglobin
114
Q

What are the nonsurgical management strategies for hypovolemic shock?

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • IV therapy
  • Drug therapy
  • Monitoring
115
Q

What are early indicators of shock that should be taught to patients and family members?

A
  • Increased thirst
  • Decreased urine output
  • Light-headedness
116
Q

What is septic shock a subset of?

117
Q

What are the components of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?

A

The clinical features include fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, and leukocytosis.

118
Q

What does DIC stand for and what is it?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation; a serious disorder where blood clotting proteins become overactive.

119
Q

What is the Modified Early Warning Score (MEWS) used for?

A

Early detection of patients at risk for deterioration.

120
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention when a client with suspected sepsis has vital signs of BP 92/44, HR 134, and SpO2 90%?

A

Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation.

121
Q

What is the earliest clinical sign of hypovolemic shock?

A

Increased heart rate.

122
Q

What assessment finding in a client in the refractory phase of shock requires immediate nursing intervention?

A

Bleeding, oozing from IV sites.

123
Q

What is the primary intervention for a client with an abscessed tooth showing signs of sepsis?

A

Initiating IV fluids.

124
Q

What is the significance of a moderate amount of purulent drainage at a surgical site?

A

It indicates a potential infection.

125
Q

What should be done before administering antibiotics in cases of suspected sepsis?

A

Obtain blood cultures.

126
Q

What does a decrease in urine output indicate in a patient with severe sepsis?

A

Possible acute kidney injury due to inadequate perfusion.

127
Q

True or False: Changes in systolic blood pressure are always present in the initial stage of shock.

128
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ phase of shock is characterized by severe hypotension and inadequate perfusion.

A

refractory