Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

little beans > NON SCIENCE > Flashcards

NON SCIENCE Flashcards

1
Q

What is research misconduct?

A

Falsification, fabrication, and plagiarism in research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is falsification in research?

A

Manipulating research materials or changing/omitting data/results such that research is not accurately represented in the research record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is fabrication in research?

A

Making up data or results and recording/reporting them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is plagiarism in research?

A

Appropriation of another person’s ideas, processes, results, or words w/o appropriate credit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which federal and institutional offices oversee research misconduct?

A

Federal - PHS/HHS or OIG

Institutional - office for research integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the process of investigating misconduct?

A

Initial assessment –> inquiry committee –> investigation committee –> institutional decision –> federal reporting and oversight review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a significant challenge associated with producing data in medical applications for machine learning?

A

It takes thousands of samples to produce a robust algorithm, which are prone to human subjectivity for images and data on clinical outcomes requires long-term follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 6 potential advantages of machine learning in diagnostic applications?

A

1) unbiased way to formulate patterns quicker than humans can
2) reduction in inter-observer variability
3) high reproducibility and standardization
4) improved quantitative measurement and recognition of latent patterns
5) delivering specialized expertise when needed
6) efficiency of analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 7 disadvantages of machine learning in diagnostic applications?

A

1) must have adequate, high quality data
2) need well-labeled data
3) labeling data is laborious and subjective
4) large data sets can be heterogenous and have confounding factors
5) machine learning algorithms can be tricked relatively easily
6) bad at extrapolating
7) can reproduce human bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 3 applications of machine learning in pathology?

A

1) classification of renal allograft biopsies
2) predicting clinical outcomes in patients with diffuse gliomas
3) measuring tumor infiltrating lymphocytes in breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 4 reasons for truth telling?

A

1) lying undermines social trust
2) loss of trust is bad because trust is essential for doctor-patient relationships
3) a single lie often requires continued deception
4) deception is a slippery slope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the relationship between “blame-free medical excuse” in living organ donation and truth-telling

A

Blame-free medical excuse allows living organ donors to be free from coercion and pressure to donate such that their consent to the procedure is fully informed and voluntary. This requires lying to the patient, in violation of the principle of truth-telling and could lead to more complications and lying down the road, but is generally accepted to protect potential living-donors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What ethical principles are involved in living organ donation?

A

Beneficence and non-maleficence (you are harming the donor by performing an unnecessary surgery, but for the good of the donors emotional needs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 4 requirements for informed consent?

A

Patient must know

1) their diagnosis
2) the recommended treatment
3) alternative treatments/consequences of no treatment
4) risks/benefits/consequences of each option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What four factors are driving national healthcare trends?

A
  • economic forces
  • market dynamics
  • changing consumers
  • policy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What provisions does the ACA provide for value-based care?

A

It established plans for value-based payment and created the center for medicare and medicaid innovation (CMMI) to test innovative payment models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is MACRA?

A

A program that replaced previous methodology for how Medicare increases payments for services year-to-year and includes two tracks for value-based payments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What two tracks did MACRA create for value based care?

A

Advanced alternative payment models (A-APMs)

Merit-based incentive payment systems (MIPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four criteria for MIPS payments?

A

Quality, cost, improvement activities, promoting interoperability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is value in healthcare?

A

A balance that maximizes health outcomes achieved over cost of achieving outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are episodic payment models?

A

Payments based on “episodes of care” surrounding a treatment or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are bundled payments?

A

A payment model where providers receive a set fee fora service that they can split between all providers involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are accountable care organizations?

A

Networks of doctors and hospitals that share responsibility for managing the care of populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are “shared savings” programs for ACOs?

A

Any reductions in cost achieved by an ACO are shared by providers and payers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are capitated payments for ACOs?
Providers are given a set budget to manage the costs of care of a population
26
What are similarities and differences between episode-based payment models and population-based payment models?
Similarities: Shifting incentives towards reducing total cost of care and higher quality care Differences: target populations, scope of services included, "trigger" of payment, duration of time
27
What is the quadruple aim of value-based care?
1) improved efficiency of care 2) better health outcomes 3) improved clinician experience 4) improved patient experience
28
What are four ways to increase value for patients?
1) improving outcomes without raising costs 2) maintaining good outcomes while decreasing costs 3) improving outcomes dramatically for a smaller increase in cost 4) improving patient outcomes while decreasing cost
29
What is healthcare waste?
Anything we do in health care that does not make people healthier
30
What are 6 major components of healthcare waste?
1) unnecessary services 2) excessive administrative costs 3) inefficient care due to systems errors/coordination failures 4) prices that are extremely high 5) fraud 6) missed prevention opportunities
31
What are healthcare outcomes?
The results of care on the health of patients, families, and populations
32
What were the results of the University of Utah Health Care study?
Decreased cost of joint replacement and decreased cost of joint replacement
33
What is the capability, comfort, calm framework?
Capability - functional outcomes (survival, extent of recovery, ability to perform tasks) Comfort - reducing physical and emotional pain and suffering Calm - measures of the amount of time/days lost to treatment, care, payment, and chaos introduced/avoided
34
What is the international consortium of health outcomes measurement?
International panel of patients and physicians to develop standard patient outcome measurements across the spectrum of patient conditions
35
What are Patient reported outcomes (PROMS)
An attempt to capture what services provided actually improve a patients sense of well-being, but they are hard to obtain and interpret
36
What are process measures?
Measures of what is actually done in giving and receiving care. Must have been previously demonstrated to produce a better outcome for it to be valid.
37
What are structure measures?
Measures of the material, human, and organizational resources available in settings where care is delivered
38
What are balancing measures?
Measures of efforts to ensure changes do not result in other unintended consequences or effects
39
What are outcome measures?
Measures of the effects of care on the health status of patients and populations
40
What is a "cost" in health care?
The dollar amount that it costs to deliver a health care service
41
What is a "charge" in health care?
The dollar amount a health care provider asks for a service
42
What is a "price" in health care?
The dollar amount a patient pays out of pocket for a service
43
What is a "reimbursement" in health care?
The amount a third party payer (insurance) negotiates as payment to the provider for direct and indirect costs
44
What is capitation in health care?
Payment of a fee to a health care provider providing services to a number of people such that the amount paid is determined by the number of total patients
45
What is a fee-for-services model of health care?
A payment system where health care services are unbundled and paid for separately
46
What is time-driven activity based costing?
Requires providers to estimate two parameters at each process step: the cost of each resource and the quantity of time each patient spends with each resource
47
What are racial disparities?
Differences that adversely affect disadvantaged populations based on one or more health outcomes, usually resulting from the operation of healthcare systems, legal and regulatory climates, and discriminatory biases
48
What are racial differences?
Clinical, biological, genetic, or epigenetic factors associated with disease risk or outcome not caused by social factors that vary among population groups
49
Describe how lack of healthcare access contributes to health disparities in CKD?
Lack of health insurance and routine healthcare leads to over 10% of explained disparity and leads to lack of referrals to nephrology evaluations
50
What are three contributors to health disparities in CKD?
1) healthcare access 2) access to kidney transplant 3) living and working conditions
51
What is APOL1 and how does it relate to racial differences in CKD?
A gene with genetic variants that provide a survival advantage against African trypanosomiasis that leads to a greater risk of developing CKD. This is an example of racial difference in CKD.
52
What is a god committee?
A committee that was formed in Seattle to decide which patients would receive a dialysis spot (which were sparse at the time)
53
What is the leading cause of ESRD?
Hypertension
54
What is hemodialysis?
Form of dialysis conducted in clinic where blood is passed through a machine and works via counter-current diffusion to clear waste and return clean blood to patient
55
What is peritoneal dialysis?
A form of dialysis done at home every night while the patient is sleeping. Abdominal peritoneal membrane acts as a filter
56
What are important dietary restrictions for CKD patients?
Sodium - 1 tsp/day Potassium - limit bananas, mangoes, orange juice, raisins, potatoes, tomatoes, black beans, etc. Phosphorous - limit beans, cheese, dairy, milk, fish, grains, nuts, coca cola Protein - low protein diet
57
What is the 5 year survival rate for people on dialysis?
40%
58
How much of the Medicare budget is spent on ESRD?
7%
59
What are the risk factors for progression of CKD?
Reduced GFR, higher proteinuria, uncontrolled BP, evidence of fibrosis on biopsy
60
What are causes of hypovolemia from hypotonic fluid loss?
Excess urination, diuresis, kidney dysfunction, diaphoresis
61
What are symptoms of hypovolemia from hypotonic fluid loss?
Excessive thirst, lightheadedness, fever, sweating, polyuria
62
What are some causes of hypovolemia from isotonic fluid loss?
Vomiting, diarrhea, hemorrhage (traumatic, GI loss)
63
What are symptoms of hypovolemia from hypotonic fluid loss?
Vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, melena, bright red stool
64
What are some causes of hypovolemia from third space redistribution?
Pancreatitis, crush injuries, bone fractures
65
What are symptoms of hypervolemia due to heart failure?
Dyspnea on exertion, exercise intolerance, peripheral edema, orthopnea, weight gain
66
What are symptoms associated with ascites?
Increased abdominal girth, dyspnea, edema, weight gain
67
What are vital sign findings associated with hypovolemia?
- Hypotension - Tachycardia - Orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia - weight loss
68
What is the criteria defining orthostatic hypotension?
Fall of SBP by 20 mmHg or DBP by 10 mmHg within 3 mins of standing
69
What is the criteria defining orthostatic tachycardia?
Increase of pulse by > 30 beats/min following standing
70
What are physical exam findings associated with hypovolemia?
- dry mucous membranes - dry axilla - reduced skin turgor - poor capillary refill time - tachypnea
71
What are vitals sign changes associated with hypervolemia?
Weight gain
72
What are physical exam findings associated with hypervolemia?
- JVP elevation > 3 cm - abdominojugular reflux (sustained rise in JVP by 4 cm) - peripheral edema - s3 present - shifting dullness or positive fluid wave
73
What lab findings are suggestive of hypovolemia?
- elevated BUN/Cr ratio - elevated urine specific gravity - reduced Urine Na - reduced FENa - increased hemoconcentration - hypernatremia
74
What point of care ultrasound findings are suggestive of hypovolemia?
- narrow IVC diameter | - respiration-induced IVC collapse of 100% is suggestive of CVP < 2 cmH2O
75
What point of care ultrasound findings are suggestive of hypervolemia?
- wide IVC diameter | - lack of respiration-associated IVC collapse is suggestive of CVP > 20 cmH2O
76
What does rebound tenderness suggest?
Peritonitis
77
What does involuntary guarding suggest?
Peritonitis
78
What does percussion tenderness suggest?
Peritonitis
79
What does shake tenderness suggest?
Peritonitis
80
What does the shifting dullness test test for?
Ascites
81
What does the fluid wave test test for?
Ascites
82
What does the flank dullness test test for?
Ascites
83
What does a protuberant abdomen suggest?
Ascites
84
What does murphy's sign test for?
Cholecystitis
85
What does the Psoas sign test for?
Appendicitis
86
What does the obturator sign test for?
Appendicitis
87
What does costovertebral angle tenderness suggest?
Pyelonephritis
88
What does it mean for an ultrasound feature to be anechoic?
Without reflection --> appears black and tends to be less dense like water or hydronephrosis
89
What does it mean for an ultrasound feature to be hyperechoic?
It looks white
90
What does it mean for ultrasound features to be isoechoic?
Same color/echogenicity relative to another area
91
What is the color of the right kidney on ultrasound relative to the liver?
Hypoechoic
92
What does hydronephrosis look like on ultrasound?
Anechoic in collecting structures
93
What is an echogenic kidney?
A kidney that has increased echogenicity relative to liver
94
What do kidney stones look like on ultrasound?
They have shadows
95
What does pyelonephritis look like on ultrasound?
Increased blood flow in areas of infection
96
What are the benefits of ultrasounds?
No radiation, relatively inexpensive, dynamic, quick assessment of common renal disorders, can detect hydronephrosis, stones, focal pyelonephritis, infarct, etc
97
What are the pitfalls of using ultrasounds?
Depends on user ability, limited by artifacts and body habitus, requires patient cooperation, findings can be non-specific
98
What are the indications for renal biopsy?
Hematuria, proteinuria, worsening renal function, does not fit clinical course of disease, surveillance of transplanted kidney
99
What are some contraindications for renal biopsy?
Uncontrolled HTN, bleeding disorders, active renal or skin infection, atrophic kidneys, horseshoe kidney, solitary kidney, uncooperative patient
100
Where are renal biopsies taken from?
From the renal cortex to visualize glomeruli
101
Select the correct statement: A. High frequency transducer provides deeper tissue penetration with better image resolution compared to a low frequency transducer B. High frequency transducer provides superficial tissue penetration with better image resolution compared to a low frequency transducer C. Low frequency transducer provides deeper tissue penetration with better image resolution compared to a high frequency transducer D. Low frequency transducer provides superficial tissue penetration with better image resolution compared to a high frequency transducer
C. Low frequency transducer provides deeper tissue penetration with better image resolution compared to a high frequency transducer
102
A structure containing simple fluid would appear A. Anechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing B. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement C. Hypoechoic with no relative change in the appearance of structures deep to it D. Anechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement E. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing
D. Anechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement
103
A renal stone would generally appear A. Anechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing B. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement C. Hypoechoic with no relative change in the appearance of structures deep to it D. Anechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement E. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing
E. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing
104
Relative to the liver, the kidney should generally appear A. Anechoic B. Hypoechoic C. Hyperechoic
B. Hypoechoic
105
``` A renal core biopsy performed as part of the work-up of kidney disease should be obtained from the A. Hilum B. Medulla C. Corticomedullary junction D. Cortex E. Capsule ```
D. Cortex
106
``` Which of the following is NOT considered to increase a patient’s baseline risk of bleeding after renal biopsy according to a study published by Corapi et al.? A. Systolic blood pressure ≥130 mmHg B. Creatinine ≥2 mg/dL C. Hemoglobin concentration <12 g/dL D. Pediatric patient ```
D. Pediatric patient
107
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the administration of desmopressin prior to renal biopsies, according to a study published by Manno et al.? A. There was no difference in the rates of hematomas detected after renal biopsy in the group of patients who received desmopressin compared to placebo B. Patients who received desmopressin prior to renal biopsy required fewer blood transfusions compared to the patients who received a placebo C. Patients who received desmopressin had fewer clinically significant bleeding complications compared to patients who received a placebo D. There was no statistically significant difference in the hemoglobin concentrations of the patients who received desmopressin compared to the patients who received a placebo
D. There was no statistically significant difference in the hemoglobin concentrations of the patients who received desmopressin compared to the patients who received a placebo
108
"whether or not to give flu shot during hospitalization" is a result of which type of measure?
Process measures
109
" # of staff needed to deliver flu shots to every hospitalized patient" is a result of which type of measure?
Structure measures
110
"efforts to discharge by noon, resulting in an increased length of stay because patients were being kept until the next day to be discharged in the morning." is a result of which type of measure?
Balancing measures
111
"fewer people receive the influenza vaccine" is the result of what type of measure?
Outcome measures

little beans (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions