Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) Flashcards

1
Q

What type of anesthetic is recommended for cerebral coiling?

A

GETA w/ arterial line and large bore IV.

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2
Q

What is most important in prevention of radiation damage:
shielding, time or distance?

A

Distance

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3
Q

What drug(s) is/are direct thrombin inhibitors?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

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4
Q

How do direct thrombin inhibitors work?

A

Antagonizes thrombin to prevent fibrinogen → fibrin

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5
Q

What laboratory test will measure Pradaxa’s (Dabigatran) effects?

A

dTT

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6
Q

What drug(s) is/are Factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
  • Apixaban (Eliquis)
  • Edoxaban (Savaysa)
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7
Q

What is the MOA of Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Prevents cleavage of prothrombin → thrombin

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8
Q

What drugs can reverse the effects of coumadin?

A

Vitamin K
FFP

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9
Q

What drugs reverse the effects of direct thrombin inhibitors and factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Factor concentrates (2, 7, 9, 10)
  • PCC
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10
Q

What is the effect of CO₂ levels on cerebral blood flow?

A

Hypercapnia = Increased CBF (vasodilation)

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11
Q

Standard 1:

A

Patient’s Rights
- Autonomy
- Privacy
- Safety

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12
Q

Standard 2:

A

Pre-Anesthesia assessment/eval

Labs, METs

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13
Q

Standard 3:

A

Patient Specific Plan
- Legal rep
- healthcare team

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14
Q

Standard 4:

A

Informed Consent

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15
Q

Standard 5:

A

Documentation

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16
Q

Standard 6:

17
Q

Standard 7:

A

Plan/modification of plan

Accepting responsibility until another anesthesia personnel member takes over

18
Q

Standard 8:

A

Positioning

19
Q

Standard 9:

A

Monitoring/alarms

  • Must be audible
20
Q

Standard 10:

A

Infection control

21
Q

Standard 11:

A

Transfer of care

22
Q

What are the components of the Modified Aldrete Scoring System for the PAR score:

A
  1. Respirations
  2. O2 Saturation
  3. Consciousness
  4. Circulation
  5. Activity

needs 9 or 10

23
Q

What are the components of the Postanesthesia Discharge scoring system for the PAR score?

A
  1. Vital Signs
  2. Surgical Bleeding
  3. Activity and mental status
  4. Intake and Output
  5. Pain/Nausea/Vomiting
24
Q

T/F:

If a patient loses consciousness and the ability to respond purposefully, the anesthesia care is a general anesthetic, irrespective of whether airway instrumentation is required?

25
Q

Common procedures in IR:

A
  • Endovascular treatments
  • Radiofrequency ablations
  • TIPS: Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt
  • Angiograms
  • MRI
  • CT Scan Guided Biopsies
26
Q

When doing a GETA for Cerebral aneurysms, what is recommended?

A
  • Large bore IV
  • Volatiles
  • Propofol and Precedex
27
Q

Complications that can arise from a Cerebral Aneurysm?

A
  • Rupture/dissection
  • contrast hypersensitivity (anaphylaxis)
  • Groin hematoma
28
Q

Recommendations for Abdominal Aneurysms?

A
  • Large bore IV, Art line
  • Heparin (ACT’s, protamine)
  • Foley cath
  • controlled, mild hypotension
29
Q

What is the normal dose of protamine as a reversal agent for Heparin?

A

1-1.5 mg/ 100u of Heparin

30
Q

Describe the patho of a TIPS procedure

A

Decompression of portal circulation in patients with portal hypertension and recurrent GI bleeds who have failed medical therapy.

31
Q

Can a TIPS procedure correct the patient’s chronic liver damage?

Where are the catheter and stent inserted through?

A

NO

Through the Internal Jugular Vein

32
Q

Comorbidities for TIPS

A

Recent GI bleed
Hepatic encephalopathy
Ascites
Pleural effusion
Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
Coagulopathy
Decreased protein binding

33
Q

Anesthesia Implications for TIPS:

A
  • GETA w/ RSI
  • IV/Art
  • Replace volume (Albumin, PRBC’s)
  • Radiation Protection
34
Q

Pros and Cons for EP Ablation:

A

Pros:
- Minimally invasive
- 60-85% success on 1st attempt

Cons:
- Long (2-6 hrs)
- Uncomfortable
- Could cause V-Tach/fib

35
Q

When is cardioversion most successful in treating a-fib?

What medication should we avoid before performing a CV?

A

Within 7 days from a-fib onset

Lidocaine (Na+ Channel blocker)

36
Q

Anesthesia considerations for an ERCP:

A
  1. These patients have extreme comorbidities
  2. Prone position w/ head to side
  3. Anti-spasmodic necessary (Glucagon)
  4. Narcotics not recommended
  5. GETA
37
Q

What are some physiologic responses we expect to see during an ECT?

A
  • Incontinence
  • Myalgia (2-7 days)
  • Headache
  • Emergence agitation/confusion
38
Q

Which comes first during an ECT:
Parasympathetic response or sympathetic response?

A

Parasympathetic response followed by a 10-20 min sympathetic response.

39
Q

What are the anesthesia implications for ECTs?

A
  • Hyperventilation
  • Ativan/Haldol on standby
  • Short acting B-Blockers for HTN
  • Caffiene for HA