Anesthesia for Operative Delivery (Extra)) Flashcards

1
Q

What is operative vaginal delivery?

A

Forceps or vacuum assisted delivery

Less use these days partly due to medico-legal concerns, shortens 2nd stage of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some factors contributing to operative vaginal delivery?

A
  • Non reassuring FHR
  • Maternal Exhaustion
  • Arrested Descent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four T’s associated with maternal hemorrhage?

A
  • Tone
  • Trauma
  • Tissue (retained products)
  • Thrombin (coagulation status)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: Maternal mortality is 10 times greater with cesarean delivery compared to vaginal delivery.

A

True:

Failed intubation
Inadequate ventilation
Pulm. Aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the type of skin incision based on?

A

How rapidly the fetus must be delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differentiate which skin incision is being described:

Lower incidence of uterine rupture
Higher likelihood of umbilical hernia
Less painful
Faster access
Cut from umbilicus to pubic symphasis

A

Lower incidence of uterine rupture: Low Transverse
Higher likelihood of umbilical hernia: Low Vertical/Midline
Less painful: Low Transverse
Faster access: Low Vertical/Midline
Cut from umbilicus to pubic symphasis: Low Vertical/Midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of uterine incision is most common for cesarean deliveries?

Benefits of this?

A

Low Transverse

This incision has less risk of bladder injury and uterine rupture in future pregnancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False:
There is a high risk of uterine rupture with a low vertical incision.

A

False:

There is a higher risk than low transverse, but still a low risk in general.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the risk of uterine rupture with a classical incision?

A

Approximately 10%

TOLAC is contraindicated with classical incisions due to this high risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Comapred to the other 2 uterine incisions, the classical incision puts the patient at a higher risk of these 2 complications:

A
  1. Abdominal adhesions
  2. Uterine rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the step-by-step process of how to handle a maternal hemorrhage:

A

Call for Help/ Blood Products
- IV Fluids, Albumin, Warm products
2nd Large bore IV & Airway
Check uterine tone
- Pitocin
- Consider Methergine/Hemabate
TXA (1g over 5 min)
Coags and Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can the OB do to aide with Maternal hemorrhage?

A
  1. Compression/B Lynch suture
  2. Hysterectomy
  3. Uterine artery ligation
  4. Bakri Balloon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What complications from previous c-sections can affect future pregnancies?

A
  • Placenta Previa
  • Placenta accreta, increta, percreta
  • Uterine rupture
  • Hemorrhage

Known issue = GETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What classifies a “high-risk” pregnancy?

A
  1. Multiparity, Multiple C-sections
  2. Classical incision
  3. Anemia
  4. Abnormal placental implantations (previas)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should we have readily available in the OR in preparation for an emergent situation?

A
  • Pressors
  • Succs/Prop
  • Blood tubing
  • Blood in blood bank
  • LMA, Bougie, Video laryngoscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pre-op meds we may need to give for c-sections:

A
  1. Pepcid 20 mg
  2. Reglan 10mg (monitor for EPS)
  3. Bicitra 30 mls
  4. ABX (Ancef, Azithromycin –> very high risk of nausea)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the advantages of neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Mother awake
  • Early bonding
  • Presence of support person
  • Use of opioids

Examples include morphine and fentanyl.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the disadvantages of neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Maternal discomfort
  • Nausea
  • Hypotension
  • Shoulder pain/ chest pressure

Nausea is not uncommon during a C-section, and hypotension can occur due to sympathetic blockade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the bezhold-jarisch reflex? How does it present?

A

Mechanoreceptors in the wall of the LV respond to a “low stretch”

  1. Vasodilation
  2. Hypotension
  3. Bradycardia
20
Q

What is the purpose of administering Ondansetron (Zofran) before spinal anesthesia?

A

Prevents nausea and hypotension by inhibiting the activation of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex.

5-HT3 antagonism

21
Q

What is the preferred position to prevent hypotension during cesarean delivery?

A

Slight head up position (10 degrees)

Left Uterine displacement

This helps prevent aortocaval compression.

22
Q

What local anesthetic is commonly used in spinal anesthesia?

A

Hyperbaric lidocaine 5%

It carries a risk of transient neurologic syndrome (TNS).

23
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common dosage for Morphine in spinal anesthesia is _______.

A

100-150 mcg

This dosage can provide postoperative analgesia.

24
Q

What is the risk associated with the use of Bupivacaine in epidurals?

A

Cardiac toxicity

This risk is a concern with higher concentrations.

25
Q

What adjunct can be added to local anesthetics to speed up onset time?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

This helps to increase the non-ionized state of local anesthetics.

26
Q

What is a Combined Spinal Epidural (CSE)?

A

A rapid block associated with SAB with the option to use an epidural catheter

This allows for sequential dosing if necessary.

27
Q

What should be monitored before and after SAB placement?

A

FHT and maternal BP

Monitoring is crucial for maternal and fetal safety.

28
Q

What is the typical duration for postoperative analgesia with Morphine in spinal anesthesia?

A

12-24 hours

This duration can vary depending on dosage and individual patient factors.

29
Q

What is the purpose of administering 15 ml to extend an epidural?

A

To make adequate for surgery

This dosage is crucial for ensuring effective anesthesia during surgical procedures.

30
Q

What is the Allis test used for?

A

To assess level before incision

This test helps in determining the appropriate anesthetic level prior to surgery.

31
Q

What does Combined Spinal Epidural (CSE) refer to?

A

A rapid block associated with SAB and an option to use an epidural catheter

CSE provides both immediate and prolonged pain relief.

32
Q

What are the indications for General Endotracheal Tube Anesthesia (GETA)?

A
  • Fetal distress
  • Sustained fetal bradycardia
  • Maternal hemorrhage with hypovolemia
  • Neuraxial anesthetic not possible
  • Coagulopathy/thrombocytopenia
  • Infection
  • Patient refusal
  • Failed block/patient not tolerating

These situations necessitate GETA to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.

33
Q

List the benefits of GETA.

A
  • Rapid onset
  • Secured airway
  • Hemodynamic stability

These benefits make GETA an effective choice in certain emergency situations.

34
Q

What are the disadvantages of GETA?

A
  • Increased maternal mortality
  • Difficulty with airway management
  • Failed oxygenation/ventilation
  • Risk of aspiration
  • Mother not awake during delivery
  • No ‘support person’ in the OR
  • Potential anesthesia recall
  • Neonatal respiratory & CNS depression
  • 1-minute APGAR scores lower with GETA

These risks highlight the need for careful consideration before choosing GETA.

35
Q

What is the initial step in the GETA induction sequence?

A

Preoxygenate and monitor

This step is crucial for ensuring adequate oxygen supply before intubation.

36
Q

What is the purpose of cricoid pressure during GETA induction?

A

To prevent aspiration

Cricoid pressure is an essential technique used during rapid sequence induction.

37
Q

What medication is often used for intubation in GETA?

A

Succinylcholine 1-1.5 mg/kg

This neuromuscular blocker is commonly used for rapid intubation.

38
Q

What should be documented during the GETA procedure?

A
  • Uterine incision time
  • Delivery time

Accurate documentation is critical for medical records and future care.

39
Q

What is the recommended volatile agent concentration after delivery of the fetus?

A

0.5-0.75 MAC

This concentration helps maintain anesthesia while allowing for uterine tone restoration.

40
Q

What should be administered after delivery to reduce the risk of recall?

A

Benzodiazepines

Administering benzodiazepines post-delivery helps mitigate anesthesia recall.

41
Q

What is the role of magnesium infusion in GETA?

A

Potentiates neuromuscular blockade

Magnesium can enhance the effects of neuromuscular blockers during anesthesia.

42
Q

What are the treatments for uterine atony?

A
  • Pitocin/Oxytocin
  • Methergine/Methylergonovine
  • Hemabate/Carboprost

These medications are critical for managing uterine atony and ensuring uterine contraction.

43
Q

What is the typical concentration for Pitocin used for uterine contractions?

A

10 units/mL

This concentration is commonly used to stimulate uterine contractions post-delivery.

44
Q

True or False: GETA allows the mother to be awake during delivery.

A

False

GETA typically results in the mother being unconscious during the procedure.

45
Q

Fill in the blank: The initial medication for pain control postoperatively is _______.

A

Opioids

Opioids are a primary choice for managing postoperative pain effectively.