Nitrous Oxide and the Endothelium Flashcards

1
Q

What are the actions of NO?

A

binds to free radicals
combines with oxyhaemoglobin
activates guanylate cyclase in VSMC
lowers IC Ca by SERCA uptake into IC stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the indirect effects of NO?

A

inhibition of PDE
inhibition of ET-1
inhibition of renin-release -> decreased AngII release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the actions of NO via cGMP?

A

stimulation of Na-K ATPase
Katp opening
inhibition of Rho Kinase
modulation of Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the actions of NO on Ca?

A
downregulation on IP3 formation via PLC
Decreasing Ca mobilisatio through IP3R
promoting Ca uptake by the SR via PKG stimulation of CaATPase
reducing passive Ca influx
increasing Ca efflux
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does NO reduce IP3 formation?

A

inhibiting PLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does NO promote Ca uptake by the SR?

A

stimulating the Ca-ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the types of NO available for therapeutic use?

A

short and long acting formulations

sublingual tablets, sprays, patches and ointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why are effects of NO diminished with chronic use?

A

nitrate tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features of nitrate tolerance?

A

loss of effects
need to increase dose
onset of vascular abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the forms of nitrate tolerance?

A

true tolerance

pseudotolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of pseudotolerance?

A

activation of RAAS
increases in catecholamine levels and release rates
increase in vasopressin levels
volume expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the features of true vascular tolerance?

A

impaired biotransformation
increased vascular superoxide production
desensitisation of soluble guanylyl cyclase
increase in PDE activity
increased vascular endothelin production
supersensitivity to vasoconstrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which form of tolerance is specific to nitrates?

A

True vascular tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Activation of RAAS - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

pseudotolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

increase in catecholamine levels - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

pseudotolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

increase in vasopressin - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

pseudotolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

volume expansion - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

pseudotolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

impaired biotransformation - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

increased vascular superoxide production - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

desensitisation of soluble guanylyl cyclase - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

increase in PDE activity - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

increased vascular endothelin production - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

supersensitivity to vasoconstrictors - pseudotolerance or true vascular?

A

true vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What did the study by Munzel et al. find when using GTNs to investigate tolerance?

A

when comparing tolerant vessels with control vessels, the vasopressor phenylephrine and vasoconstrictor AngII showed increased constriction in tolerant vessels.
this can be reversed by the ACE inhibitor Captopril.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When did the study by Munzel take place?

A

2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How was vasoconstriction reversed in tolerant vessels in the study by Munzel et al?

A

using the ACE Inhibitor Captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the features of Isosorbide Mononitrate Tolerance?

A
  • no vascular tolerance
  • endothelial dysfunction
  • stimulates vascular superoxide production
  • increased endothelin production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the features of Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate Tolerance?

A
  • no vascular tolerance
  • no endothelial dysfunction
  • up-regulates antioxidant enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some NO donor drugs?

A

Sodium Nitroprusside
Diethylamine/NO
S-nitrosothiols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some features of using sodium nitroprusside?

A

used in acute coronary HF
causes a profound dilation
can’t be given in high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do Diethylamine and S-nitrothiols do?

A

liberate NO spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give some cardiovascular agents which modulate NO bioavailability

A
ACE Inhibitors
Calcium Channel Blockers
Statins
b-blockers
PDE Inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give an example of an ACE Inhibitor

A

Ramipril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give an example of calcium channel blockers

A

nifidepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give an example of a statin

A

simvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give an example of a b-blocker

A

atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give and example of a PDE Inhibitor

A

Sildelfanil

38
Q

How do statins work to modulate NO bioavailability?

A

reduce inflammation and stabilise eNOS mRNA

39
Q

Which naturally occurring molecule blocks NO synthesis?

A

Asymmetric dimethylarginine - ADMA

40
Q

What Arginine analogues can also be used to inhibit NO synthesis?

A

L-NMMA

L-NAME

41
Q

What did a study by Vallance et al. 1989 find?

A

that blood flow was constricted when L-NMMA applied but could be restored by L-Arginine

42
Q

What does the group ‘Prostanoids’ include?

A

prostaglandins, thromboxanes and prostacyclins

43
Q

Which COX is constitutively active?

A

COX1

44
Q

When is COX2 induced?

A

with inflammation

45
Q

What are the effects of PGI2?

A
  • increase in cAMP -> decrease in Ca -> decrease constriction
  • prevents platelets forming clots
  • metabolised quickly
46
Q

What molecule does PGI2 work in conjunction with?

A

NO

47
Q

What are the effects of PGE2 activation?

A

inhibition of NA release - NA being a potent constrictor

48
Q

What are the effects of PGG2 and PGH2?

A

constricting factors however not well understood

49
Q

What is vasoconstriction augmented by?

A
  • decrease in NO

- superoxide production

50
Q

What is EDHF?

A

Endothelium derived hyper-polarising factor

51
Q

What does EDHF cause?

A
  • increase in endothelial Ca
  • activation of SKca and IKca channels
  • hyperpolarisation of endothelial cells -> spreads to SMC
52
Q

What does EDHF cause in neighbouring SMC?

A

activation of Na/K ATPases and/or K channels

53
Q

What is the function of EDHF postulated to be?

A

the back up when NO and PGI2 is impaired

54
Q

How many isoforms are there of endothelin and which is the main form?

A

3, ET-1

55
Q

What induces endothelin production?

A

AngII, Adrenaline, hypoxia and oxLDL

56
Q

What inhibits endothelin production?

A

shear stress, NO, PGI2

57
Q

What does ET1 cause constriction via?

A

ETa receptor which results in production of IP3

58
Q

What can block endothelin converting enzyme?

A

phosphoramidon

59
Q

What is the effect of endothelin at ETb on endothelial cells?

A

vasodilation

60
Q

How was it determined that endothelin at ETb causes vasodilation?

A

Bosetan (ETa/ETb blocker) causes pulmonary arterial hypertension

61
Q

What should a test of endothelial function/NO bioavailability be?

A
  • safe
  • non-invasive
  • reproducible
  • inexpensive
  • standardised between labs
  • identifiers of early disease
  • able to predict CV outcome
62
Q

What are the pros of coronary catheterisation?

A
  • gold standard invasive test
  • assesses endothelial function at vascular bed of interest
  • predicts CV outcome
63
Q

What are the cons of coronary catheterisation?

A
  • invasive
  • expensive
  • limited to patients who require the procedure
64
Q

What are the pros of venous occlusion plethysmography with brachial catheterisation?

A
  • more accessible than coronary arteries

- correlates with coronary arteries

65
Q

What are the cons of venous occlusion plethysmography with brachial catheterisation?

A
  • invasive
  • can and has killed before
  • limited repeatability
  • difficult to standardise
  • vascular injury risk
66
Q

What does venous occlusion plethysmography involve?

A

applying pressure to a vein
this causes blood build up due to arterial input being the same
swelling occurs which is measured by a strain guage

67
Q

What are the pros of high frequency ultrasound flow mediated dilitation?

A
  • gold standard non-invase test
  • repeatable
  • can be standardised for reproducibility
  • NO dependent
68
Q

What are the cons of high frequency ultrasound flow mediated dilitation?

A
  • expensive equipment
  • easily affected by physiological factors
  • extensive training required
  • high inter-operator variabilit
69
Q

What does the process of high frequency ultrasound flow mediated dilitation involve?

A

occlusion of blood flow using pressure cuff above the normal systolic pressure ~200mmHg
causes reactive hyperaemia which causes the artery to dilate

70
Q

What are the pros of Laser Doppler Flowmetry and Imaging?

A
  • easy to use
  • non-contact
  • not operator dependent
  • measures microcirculation specifically
71
Q

What are the cons of Laser Doppler Flowmetry and imaging?

A
  • depth of detection is uncertain

- spatial heterogeneity with single point instruments

72
Q

What does laser doppler flowmetry and imaging involve

A

measuring the blood flow by laser beam reflection off of RBCs
used alongside iontopheresis where a drug of charge (i.e. ACh + is driven through the skin with a positive electrode)
useable with occlusion hyperaemia or localised heating ring

73
Q

What are the two peaks associated with a localised heating ring?

A

first peak is the heat receptor activation response

second peak is NO dependent

74
Q

What are the pros of EndoPAT?

A
  • non invasive
  • easy to use
  • automated analysis
  • FDA approved
75
Q

What are the cons of EndoPAT?

A
  • expensive consumables
  • more data needed on reproducibility
  • digital circulation affected by sympathetic tone
76
Q

What is involved with EndoPAT technique?

A

measuring changes in finger tip volume
measures size of pulse before and after occlusion
extent of response is NO dependent
all compared to non-occluded finger

77
Q

What are the pros of Pulse Wave Reflection technique?

A
  • non-invasive
  • easy to use
  • may reflect basal endothelial function
78
Q

What are the cons of Pulse Wave Reflection technique?

A

influenced by structural aspects of the vasculature beyond the endothelium

79
Q

What is seen in Pulse Wave Reflection technique?

A

a decrease in diastolic BP when NO is increased compared with the baseline

80
Q

Describe the process of atherogenesis?

A
  • endothelium starts to produce adhesion protein markers
  • markers are pulled into arterial intima -> blood monocytes
  • produces fatty streaks and foam cells to produce a plaque
  • causes a clump of platelets
  • dislodges which may cause a CV event
81
Q

What are the classic risk factors for CVD?

A
T1/2 Diabetes Mellitus
dyslipidemia
ageing
HBP
smoking
82
Q

What are the novel risk factors for CVD?

A

inflammation
obesity
oxidative stress

83
Q

In which groups of people can NO bioavailability be seen to be reduced?

A

people with hyperglycaemia and T1 diabetes

84
Q

What does low NO bioavailability and T1 diabetes correlate with?

A

poor HbA1C

85
Q

Where is low NO bioavailability also seen?

A

in obese children and children with T1 Diabetes - originates in utero?

86
Q

What is the Barker Hypothesis?

A

That nutritional deficiencies occurring during critical periods of fetal development and infant life may induce a long term physiological change

87
Q

What evidence is there to support the Barker Hypothesis?

A

children with low birth weight -> age 9 have lower NO bioavailability which is normalised with nitroglycerin-induced vasodilation

88
Q

Which measure is a good indicator of risk for CV events?

A

Framingham risk score

89
Q

What are the associated scores for increased risk of CV events?

A

a ratio of

90
Q

What type of therapy improved childhood T1DM with risk factors?

A

intensive insulin therapy where the use of insulin and its dose is monitored intensively compared with a group who go about their business as normal

91
Q

What are the clinical utilities of using NO bioavailability and endothelial function testing?

A
  • identification of novel risk factors
  • investigation into pharmacological mechanisms for vascular dysfunction and artheroscelerosis
  • evaluating pharmacological interventions
  • monitoring response to primary/secondary prevention therapies and strategies
92
Q

What therapies/strategies also improve endothelial function?

A
  • statins
  • tuna oil over a period of weeks
  • lowering oxidative stress via blackcurrant juice -> increased FMD production