NIS Flashcards

1
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “serving the interest of the patient”?

A

Principle of primacy of patient welfare

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2
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “Physicians must be honest with their patients and empower them to make informed decisions”?

A

Principle of patient autonomy

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3
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “fair distribution of healthcare resources”?

A

Principle of social justice

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4
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “commitment to lifelong learning”?

A

Commitment to professional competence

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5
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “Medical errors should be communicated promptly to patients and patients should be honestly informed before treatment consent”

A

Commitment to honesty with patients

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6
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “physicians are responsible for safeguarding patient information”?

A

Commitment to patient confidentiality

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7
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “certain relationships should be avoided”?

A

Commitment to maintaining appropriate relations with patients

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8
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “physicians should not only maintain clinical competence, but should work collaboratively with other professions to continuously improve the quality of healthcare”?

A

Commitment to improving quality of care

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9
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “work to provide a uniform and adequate standard of care reducing barriers to equitable healthcare”?

A

Commitment to improving access to care

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10
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “provide cost-effective health and develop guidelines for effective use of healthcare resources”?

A

Commitment to just distribution of finite resources

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11
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “upholding scientific standards, promote research, and create new medical knowledge”?

A

Commitment to scientific knowledge

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12
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “obligation to recognize and disclose to the general public and deal with conflicts of interest”?

A

Commitment to maintaining trust by managing conflicts of interest

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13
Q

Of the fundamental principles and physician responsibilities in the Physician Charter of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), which describes “work collaboratively to maximize patient care, participate in self regulation including remediation and discipline of members who have failed to meet professional standards”?

A

Commitment to professional responsibilities

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14
Q

What are the two dimensions of quality?

A

excellence and consistency

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15
Q

What are the two goals of quality?

A

1) Maximize the likelihood of health outcomes desired by the patient 2) Satisfy the patient (excellence from the perspective of the patient)

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16
Q

What is the difference between Quality Control, Quality assurance, and quality improvment?

A

Quality control = measuring and testing elements to ensure that standards are met and correcting instances of poor quality. Ex: proofreading a report. Quality assurance = a process for monitoring and ensuring performance quality in an organization (includes QC but has a broader strategy as well). Ex: standardized templates with performance metrics Quality improvement = activities designed to improve performance quality in an organization in a systematic and sustainable way. Ex: implementation of standardized templates through a QI project with monitoring.

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17
Q

Who’s responsible for “Continuous quality improvement”?

A

Everyone.

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18
Q

The 2001 Institute of Medicine Report, “Crossing the Quality Chasm” stated that everyone has a responsibility to make healthcare: (6 things)

A

Safe, Effective, Patient-centered, Timely, Efficient, Equitable

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19
Q

The ACGME and American Board of Medical Specialties described these 6 core competences that all physicians should attain:

A

1) Practice-based learning and improvement 2) Patient care and procedural skills 3) Systems-based practice - i.e. coordinate care in a healthcare system 4) Medical Knowledge 5) Interpersonal and Communication skills 6) Professionalism

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20
Q

According to the 2000 Institute of Medicine Report, “To err is human”, how many in hospital deaths per year were attributable to medical errors?

A

44000 to 98000 in hospital deaths per year

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21
Q

According to the 2000 Institute of Medicine Report, “To err is human”, what was a fundamental change needed to decrease error?

A

Blaming and “rooting out the bad apples” was not a viable strategy to decrease error

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22
Q

The 2015 Institute of Medicine Report, “Improving Diagnosis in Health Care” added a definition to diagnostic error which was directly related to radiology. What was this?

A

It defined diagnostic error as the failure to 1) establish an accurate and timely explanation of the patient’s health problems OR 2) communicate that explanation to the patient. The emphasis on communication came with several recommendations for IT and radiology to improve communication.

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23
Q

Regarding error reduction, what is human factor engineering?

A

Attempts to design systems that optimize safety and minimize the risk of error in complex environments. EX: a plug can only be plugged in the correct way.

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24
Q

Regarding error reduction, what is standardization?

A

Establishing an agreed upon, standardized approach for both equipment and processes, such as using a checklist before procedures, to identify variances.

25
Q

Regarding error reduction, what are the two major parts of communication?

A

1) conveyance - transmission of information from sender to receiver 2) convergence - verification, discussion, and clarification until both parties recognize that they mutually agree (or fail to agree) on the meaning of the information

26
Q

Regarding error reduction, what is a high reliability organization?

A

an organization that continually manages its environment mindfully, adopting a constant state of vigilance that results in the fewest number of errors.

27
Q

Regarding error reduction, high reliability organizations anticipate unexpected events and contain their impact. What are the three elements to anticipation? What are the two elements of Containment?

A

Anticipation: 1) Preoccupation with failure 2) Reluctance to simplify (i.e. they dig deep into problems) 3) Sensitivity to operations - focus on reality not what is “supposed” to happen Containment: 1) Commitment to resilience 2) Deference to expertise

28
Q

The Skill-Rule-Knowledge (SRK) model is a classification scheme of what?

A

Human error

29
Q

Regarding the SRK model of human error, actions that are largely performed automatically are considered what? What are ways to correct them?

A

skill-based action. Amenable to behavior shaping constraints like forcing functions that make it easy to perform the right action and hard to perform the wrong action. I.E. an automatically locking autoclave door

30
Q

Regarding the SRK model of human error, actions that require an intermediate level of attention are considered what? What are ways to correct them?

A

Rule-based actions. Amenable to increased supervision, additional training and coaching, practice, and decision support

31
Q

Regarding the SRK model of human error, actions that require an high level of attention are considered what? What are ways to correct them?

A

Knowledge-based action. Amenable to increased supervision, additional training and coaching, practice, and decision support.

32
Q

According to the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), what 4 things encompass a “culture of safety”?

A

1) Acknowledgement of the high risk nature of an organization’s activities 2) A blame-free environment 3) Encouragement of collaboration 4) Organizational commitment of resources to address safety concerns

33
Q

Steep authority gradients discourage what?

A

Steep authority gradients discourage reporting of quality and safety errors to senior leadership. This undermines a culture of safety but increases the difficulty of accurately measuring error rates.

34
Q

In an effort to reconcile the need for reducing a focus on blame and maintaining individual accountability, the “Just Culture” model distinguishes what 3 things.

A

1) Human error (mistakes) 2) At-risk behavior (taking shortcuts) 3) Reckless behavior (flaunting firmly established safety rules)

35
Q

In the Just culture model, the response to the error is predicated on the type of behavior associated with the error, not the outcome or severity of the event. In single words what are the responses to the 3 types of behavior?

A

Human error - Console At-risk behavior - Coach Reckless behavior - Punish/Sanction

36
Q

In the Just Culture model, who is the “second victim”?

A

Second Victim in the healthcare worker who is traumatized by an error or adverse patient event. Can be similar to PTSD.

37
Q

What is a Daily Management System? What are common elements of a DMS?

A

provides day to day operating framework for leaders to engage with staff to solve problems on a continuous basis. Elements: Tiered huddles; Goal and metrics review; daily readiness assessment; problem management and accountability cycle; regular follow up; frequent visits to the workplace (this all seems low yield but they spend like a whole page on it so eh)

38
Q

What is the safety champion?

A

A person in the organization who takes ownership of the processes and fosters the creation and maintenance of the safety culture, including oversight of the reporting systems.

39
Q

What are 3 examples of well known improvement models?

A

Lean, Six Sigma, and the Model for Improvement

40
Q

What’s the difference between a improvement project sponsor, project leader, vs a project coach?

A

Project sponsor: provides organizational oversight and support, removing barriers as they arise. Has organizational authority. Project leader: directs and coordinates activities of the project to ensure its success. Alerts the project sponsor when more help is needed. Project coach: expert in improvement methods who advises and supports the team. helps guide the leader and facilitates communication with the sponsor

41
Q

it is more/less effective to select improvement project participants from front-line workers rather than supervisors.

A

More effective that participants are front-line workers

42
Q

What are the major steps improvement models share?

A

Identifying a problem; forming a team; assessing current performance; measuring performance; establishing a specific goal; identifying causes of problems; prioritizing problem-solving efforts; developing solutions through iterative testing; sustaining the improvement; high-reliability solutions

43
Q

What is this chart and what does it show?

A

Annotated run chart. Indicates the dates and natures of interventions implemented during the project plotted with a quantified outcomes measure on the y axis. Measures performance.

44
Q

When establishing a goal for an improvement project, the acronym SMART is used. What does it mean?

A

SMART goal: Specific; measurable; achievable; relevant; and time-bound

45
Q

What diagram is this diagram and what is it used for?

A

Fishbone or cause and effect diagram. Tool to document causes of problems that negatively affect performance. Identifies causes of problems.

46
Q

What is this chart and what does it show?

A

Pareto chart. Illustrates which causes occur most frequently - part of prioritizing problem-solving efforts.

47
Q

What is the Pareto principle?

A

The 80/20 rule. A few causes are usually responsible for the majority of problems.

48
Q

What is the process of iteratively testing, refining, and validating process changes?

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act. Results in actionable conclusions which determines next steps.

49
Q

Strategies to increase the likelihood that results will be sustained include:

A

1) establishing regular measurement and feedback 2) using handoffs to enforce standards by ensuring that all staff expect the same standard 3) establishing the practice of stopping the process and summoning immediate supervisors whenever a problem is encountered 4) embedding checks into the process 5) using high-reliability solutions (likely lower yield)

50
Q

High reliability processes are more likely due to:

A

high reliability processes more likely result from standardization than education and feedback

51
Q

At least 2 patient identifiers should be used before every procedure. What can be used as patient identifiers?

A

patient name; assigned identification number; telephone number; date of birth; government-issued photo identification; last four digits of the social security number. Sources of identifiers can include the patient; a relative; a guardian; a domestic partner; or a healthcare provider who has previously identified the patient.

52
Q

What are the four levels of sedation, analgesia, and anesthesia?

A

1) minimal sedation or anxiolysis -cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, but ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are unaffected 2) Moderate sedation/anesthesia -maintains protective reflexes and a patent airway and able to be aroused by physical and verbal stimulation 3) Deep sedation/analgesia -pt responds purposefully after repeated or painful stimulation. ventilatory function and airway protection may be impaired. CV function maintained. 4) General Anesthesia -complete loss of protective reflexes, maintain airway, and respond to painful stimulation

53
Q

Do all sedated patients need monitoring, even if only with minimal sedation?

A

Yes. All sedated patient need monitoring regardless of intended sedation level.

54
Q

What are the six-levels of ASA classification?

A

Class I - a normal healthy patient Class II - a patient with mild systemic disease Class III - a patient with severe systemic disease Class IV - a patient with severe systemic diease that is a constant threat to life Class V - a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation Class VI - a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

55
Q

Which ASA class patients require consultation with anesthesiology or the performance of anesthesia by anesthesiology/CRNA?

A

Class III or IV

56
Q

Who can sedate class V patients?

A

Only anesthesiologists

57
Q

Who must monitor a patient when sedation in being performed under a radiologist?

A

A separate qualified healthcare professional whose primary focus is monitoring, medicating, and care of the patient.

58
Q

What should be monitored in a sedated patient?

A

level of consciousness, respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, blood pressure, heart rate, and cardiac rhythm

59
Q

Because reversal agents may have a shorter durations of effect than the sedating agent, how long should a patient be monitored?

A

For 2 hours after consciousness and vital signs return to normal.