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Phlebotomy > NHAP Study Guide > Flashcards

NHAP Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 types of ciruclation in the heart?

A
  1. Pulmonary Circulation 2. Systemic Circulation
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2
Q

What does Pulmonary Circulation do?

A

Pulmonary Circulation carries DEOXYGENATED blood from the Right Ventricle to the lungs.

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3
Q

What does Systemic Circulation do?

A

Systemic Circulation carries OXYGENATED blood from the Left Ventricle throughout the body.

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4
Q

What are the 2 RIGHT valves of the heart?

A
  1. Tricuspid Valve: atrioventricular valve 2. Pulmonic Valve: semi-lunar valve
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5
Q

What are the 2 LEFT valves of the heart?

A
  1. Mitral Valve: atrioventricular valve 2. Aortic Valve: semi-lunar valve
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6
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart?

A
  1. Endocardium 2. Myocardium 3. Epicardium
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7
Q

What are the 8 blood vessels?

A
  1. Aorta 2. Arteries 3. Arterioles 4. Capillaries 5. Venules 6. Veins 7. Superior Vena Cava 8. Inferior Vena Cava
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8
Q

How many liters of blood are in the average adult body?

A

5-6 liters

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9
Q

Plasma is the ________________ portion of blood.

A

liquid

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10
Q

Formed Elements is the ___________ portion of blood.

A

cellular portion

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11
Q

What does the formed elements (celluar portion of blood) consist of?

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes

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12
Q

What is the lifespan for Erythrocytes?

A

120 Days

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13
Q

What are the 5 leukocytes (white blood cells)?

A
  1. Neutrophils 2. Lymphocytes 3. Monocytes 4. Eosinophils 5. Basophils
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14
Q

What is another name for Leukocytes?

A

White Blood Cells

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15
Q

The process by which the blood vessels are repiared after injury.

A

Hemostasis.

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16
Q

What are the 4 stages of Hemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular Stage 2. Platelet Phase 3. Coagulation Phase 4. Fibrinolysis
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17
Q

Explain the Vascular Phase of Hemostasis.

A

1st step in Hemostasis. Injury to blood vessels, causing it to constrict and slowing the blood flow.

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18
Q

Explain the Platelet Phase of Hemostasis.

A

2nd step in Hemostasis. Platelets adhere to injured endothelial lining. This forms aggregation (temporary platelet plug).

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19
Q

Define Aggregation.

A

A temporary platelet plug formed during the platelet phase of hemostasis.

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20
Q

Explain the Coagulation Phase of Hemostasis.

A

3rd Step in Hemostasis. Converts temporary platelet plug into a stabin fibrin clot.

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21
Q

Explain Fibrinolysis in Hemostasis.

A

4th Step in Hemostasis. Breakdown and removal of the stabin fibrin clot.

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22
Q

What does APTT stand for?

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

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23
Q

What is APTT used to monitor?

A

APTT montiors Heparin Therapy and intrinsic pathways.

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24
Q

What does PT stand for?

A

Prothrombin Time

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25
Q

What is PT used to monitor?

A

PT monitors Coumadin Therapy, as well as extrinsic pathways.

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26
Q

What are the 3 major beins located in the antecubital fossa that are acceptable to use for a VP?

A
  1. Median Cubital Vein 2. Cephalic Vein 3. Basilic Vein
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27
Q

Vein of choice for a VP. A large vein that tends not to move.

A

Median Cubital Vein.

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28
Q

2nd vein of choice for a VP. This vein has tendency to move. It is often the only vein that can be palpated in an obese patient.

A

Cephalic Vein.

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29
Q

3rd vein of choice for a VP. Tends to move.

A

Basilic Vein.

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30
Q

What are 3 unsuitable veins for a VP?

A
  1. Sclerosed Veins 2. Thrombotic Veins 3. Tortuous Veins
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31
Q

Blood accumlates in the tissue surrounding the vein. Caused by either the needle going through the vein or insufficient pressure being applied.

A

Hematoma.

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32
Q

What are 2 causes of a Hematoma?

A
  1. Insufficient pressure applied to the site. 2. Needle going through the vein
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33
Q

Increase of proportion of plasma due to tourniquet being left on too long.

A

Hemoconcentration.

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34
Q

What can cause Hemoconcentration?

A

The tourniquet being left on too long.

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35
Q

What is the longest a tourniquet should be left on?

A

1 minute

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36
Q

What is the longest a tourniquet should be left on?

A

Phlebitis.

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37
Q

Tiny, non-raised red spots that appear on/around the site due to a tournqiuet being left on too long and capillaries burst.

A

Petechiae.

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38
Q

What can cause Phlebitis?

A

Repeated VP to a site

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39
Q

What can cause Petechiae.

A

Tourniquet being left on too long and capillaries burst

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40
Q

A blood clot, usually consequence of insufficient pressure after a needle is withdrawn.

A

Thrombus.

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41
Q

What can cause Thrombus.

A

Insufficient pressure after a needle is withdrawn.

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42
Q

Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot.

A

Thrombophlebitis.

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43
Q

Systemic infection associated with the presence of a pathogenic organism introduced during VP.

A

Septicemia.

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44
Q

An injury to underlying tissues cause by probing the needle.

A

Trauma.

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45
Q

What can cause trauma.

A

Probing the needle at the site.

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46
Q

Fluid retention in the tissue or inflammation.

A

Edema.

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47
Q

Name 9 complications that can be caused by a VP.

A
  1. Hematoma 2. Hemoconcentration 3. Phlebitis 4. Petechiae 5. Thrombus 6. Thrombophlebitis 7. Septicemia 8. Trauma 9. Edema
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48
Q

How far should you puncture when doing a capillary stick?

A

No deeper then 2.0mm

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49
Q

Where to you puncture on the heel?

A

Medial and lateral of the plantar surface of the heel.

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50
Q

What is the order of draw?

A

Yellow, Lt. Blue, Red, Tiger Top, Green, Lavender, Gray

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51
Q

Name the 3 parts of the chemistry section.

A
  1. Electrophoresis 2. Toxicology 3. Immunochemistry
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52
Q

1 in order of draw.

A

Yellow Tube

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53
Q

2 in order of draw.

A

Light Blue Tube

54
Q

3 in order of draw.

A

Red Tube

55
Q

4 in order of draw.

A

Tiger Top Tube (red/gray)

56
Q

5 in order of draw.

A

Green Tube

57
Q

6 in order of draw.

A

Lavender Tube

58
Q

7 in order of draw.

A

Gray Tube

59
Q

Explain Electrophoresis in relation to chemistry section.

A

Analyzes chemical components of blood.

60
Q

Explain Toxicology in relation to chemistry section.

A

Analyzes plasma levels of drugs and poisons in the blood.

61
Q

Explain Immunochemistry in relation to chemistry section.

A

Detects and measures substances such as hormones, enzymes, and drugs.

62
Q

Define Profile.

A

A group of tests ordered by a physician.

63
Q

Explain the Blood Bank Section.

A

Where blood is collected, stored and prepared for blood transfusion.

64
Q

Explain the Serology (immunology) section.

A

Evaluates patients immune response through the production of antibodies.

65
Q

Explain the Microbiology section.

A

Detection of pathogenic microorgranisms in patient samples.

66
Q

Explain the Urinalysis section

A

Detects infection of the kidney and urinary tract.

67
Q

Explain the Hematology section.

A

Formed elements of the blood are studied. Whole blood is the most common test.

68
Q

What is the most common test of the Hematology section?

A

Whole blood

69
Q

Explain what to do for an External Hemorrage.

A

Elevate the affected part above heart level and apply direct pressure to the wound.

70
Q

Define Shock.

A

Insufficient return of blood flow to the heart.

71
Q

Define Agents in relation to the chain of infection.

A

Infectious microorganisms that can be classified as viruses, bacteria, fungi and parasites.

72
Q

Define Portal of Exit in relation to the chain of infection.

A

How the infectious agent leaves it’s reservoir.

73
Q

Define Mode of Transmission in relation to the chain of infection.

A

Specific ways in which the microorganisms travel.

74
Q

Define Portal of Entry in relation to the chain of infection.

A

What allows the infectious agent to access the susceptible host.

75
Q

Define Susceptible Host in relation to the chain of infection.

A

The person/host who is susceptible to the agent and is not resistant or immune.

76
Q

What are the 5 steps to the chain of infection?

A
  1. Agent 2. Portal of Exit 3. Mode of Transmission 4. Portal of Entry 5. Susceptible Host
77
Q

Destruction of pathogenic microogranisms after they leave the body.

A

Medical Asepsis.

78
Q

What is the solution fraction for disinfection?

A

1:10 bleach to water

79
Q

Failure to exercise the standard of car that a responsible person would give.

A

Negligence.

80
Q

What are the 4 D’s of negligence?

A
  1. Duty of care 2. Derelict: Breach of duty of care 3. Direct Cause: legally recognizable injury occurs as a result of breach of duty 4. Damage: wrongful activity must have cause the injury
81
Q

Wrongful act that results in injury to a person.

A

Tort.

82
Q

What is it called if you touch a patient before they give you full consent?

A

Battery

83
Q

Release of medical records without the patients permisson.

A

Invasion of Privacy.

84
Q

Injury to another persons reputation or name.

A

Defamation of character.

85
Q

Explain Fasting Specimens.

A

Collection of blood when the patient is in basil state - refrained from exercise, food, or drink for 12 hrs prior to drawing.

86
Q

What does a 2 hour postsprandial test evaluate?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

87
Q

What does OGTT stand for?

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

88
Q

What is an OGTT used to diagnose?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

89
Q

When is an OGTT scheduled to start?

A

0700-0900

90
Q

What are you testing for at the 3 hr OGTT?

A

Hyperglycemia

91
Q

What are you testing for at the 5 hr OGTT?

A

Hypoglycemia

92
Q

What is the purpose of Therapeutic Drug Monitoring?

A

Monitor blood levels of certain medications.

93
Q

What is the purpose of Blood Cultures?

A

Detect presence of microorganisms in a patient’s blood.

94
Q

Explain PKU.

A

Test that is ordered on infants to detect phenylketonuria - causes MR and brain damage

95
Q

Explain Cold Aggulations.

A

Blood collected in red tubes that have been pre-warmed to 37 degrees celsius for 30 min.

96
Q

Explain Chilled Specimens.

A

Specimens that must be chilled ASAP in crushed ice or ice/water mixture.

97
Q

What type of tests would need to be chilled specimens?

A

Arterial Blood Gasses & Lactic Acids

98
Q

Explain Light Sensative Specimens?

A

Protected from light - wrapped in aluminum foil.

or collected in amber colored tubes

99
Q

What is the additive in the Tiger Top Tube (red/gray)?

A

Thixotropic gel for serum separation.

100
Q

What is the additive in a Gray Tube?

A

Antiglycolytic Agent: Sodium Fluoride, Lithium Iodoacetate Anticoagulant: Potassium Oxalate

101
Q

What is the additive in a Red Tube?

A

Nothing - it is a plain tube

102
Q

What is the additive in a Lt. Blue Tube?

A

Sodium Citrate

103
Q

What is the additive in a Yellow Tube?

A

Sodium Polyanetholesulfonate (SPS)

104
Q

What is the additive in a Green Tube?

A

Heparin combined with sodium, lithium or ammonium ion.

105
Q

What additive is in a Lavender Tube?

A

EDTA

106
Q

What is the purpose of the Thixotropic Gel (Serum Separator) in a Tiger Top Tube?

A

Form a barrier between the serum and fibrin clot - seperate the serum.

107
Q

Common Tests for a Red Tube.

A

Serum Chemistry Tests. Serology Tests. Blood Bank.

108
Q

Common Tests for a Tiger Top Tube.

A

Most chemistry tests.

109
Q

Common Tests for a Gray Tube.

A

Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT). Blood Alcohol Levels (BAC). Lactic Acid Measurements.

110
Q

Common Tests for a Green Tube.

A

Chemistry Screens. STAT Electrolytes.

111
Q

Common Tests for a Lavender Tube.

A

CBC (included RBC, WBC, & Platelet Count). WBC Differenetial Count. Hemoglobin & Hematocrit Determinations. ESR. Sickle Cell Screening.

112
Q

Common Tests for a Lt. Blue Tube.

A

Prothrombin Time (PTT). Coumadin Therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT). Factor Assays. Bleeding Time (BT).

113
Q

What does Post-Parandaial mean?

A

After a Meal

114
Q

Microorgaisms that cause disease are _______________.

A

pathogenic

115
Q

What is the antiglycolytic agent that maintains glucose stability for 3 days?

A

Sodium Fluoride

116
Q

Which tests requires the specimen to be protect from light prior to testing?

A

Bilirubin

117
Q

What is the purpose of warming the site prior to a dermal puncture?

A

Increases the blood flow.

118
Q

Arterial Blood is the best sample for determination of ____________ ______ and _____________ ______________.

A

Blood pH. Blood Gases.

119
Q

What is the most common complication from phlebotomy?

A

Hematoma

120
Q

“Butterfly” is another name for a ____________ _____________ __________.

A

Winged Infusion Set.

121
Q

How long should it take for a Red Top Tube to clot?

A

30-60 minutes

122
Q

Define Hemolysis.

A

Destruction of Red Blood Cells

123
Q

Red Blood Cells are also called _________________.

A

Erythrocytes

124
Q

Should you recap a needle?

A

NO

125
Q

The most common cause of blood culture contamination is ____________ _____________ ____________.

A

Improper Skin Preparation

126
Q

What is the vein that is most easily palpated in an obese patient?

A

Cephalic

127
Q

Peak Level and Trough Level are used in ____________ ___________ ______________.

A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

128
Q

Nosocomial Infections are infections contracted in a __________ ________ __________.

A

Health Care Setting

129
Q

Contraction of the heart is ___________.

A

Systole

130
Q

Relaxation of the heart is ____________.

A

Diastole

131
Q

What is the function of a Leukocyte?

A

To provide the body protection against infection.

132
Q

What do Erythrocytes contain?

A

Hemoglobin - the 02 carrying protein

Phlebotomy (6 decks)

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