NHA - Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The set of records that lists each monetary transaction by date is called the ____.

A

Books

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2
Q

The ______ mandates how financial records must be maintained.

A

Accounting System

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3
Q

The first place financial transactions are recorded in date order is/are the _______.

A

Journals

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4
Q

The ________ is used to record transactions that do not fit into any other journal.

A

General Journal

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5
Q

When the debits and credits zero out, the accountant prepares the ______

A

Trial Balance

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6
Q

The ____ summarizes all debits and credits.

A

General Ledger

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7
Q

If the administrator wants to see the facility’s net worth, he/she would look at the ____.

A

Balance Sheet

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8
Q

Balance sheets are not _______________.

A

Prepared by the bookkeeper

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9
Q

To calculate the value of an investor’s investment in a business, you need to look at the ______.

A

Balance Sheet

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10
Q

The ________ records a transaction when funds are actually received or paid out

A

Cash accounting system

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11
Q

_______________ assumes the supplies stored the longest will be used first, thereby raising the value of the remaining inventory.

A

First in - First out

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12
Q

Records revenues and expenses when they are incurred rather than when cash is received or is paid out.

A

Accrual Accounting

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13
Q

Money invested into the facility.

A

Capital

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14
Q

Capital=assets - liabilities

A

Net Worth

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15
Q

Accounting Equation

A

Assets = L + C

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16
Q

Records transactions that DO NOT PROPERLY FIT INTO ANY OTHER JOURNAL such as A/P Journal, Cash Disbursement Journal, Sales Journal

A

General Journal

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17
Q

Summary of all debits/credits in journal for a period of time. Consists of individual accounts.

A

General Ledger

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18
Q

FIRST STEP in accounting cycle

A

Journalizing

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19
Q

Records the entire financial position of the SNF at one period in time. Summarizes assets, liabilities, and capital.

A

Balance Sheet

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20
Q

Newer inventory used 1st. Goods remaining in inventory is LOWER than the value of goods already used. INFLATION

A

LIFO

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21
Q

Older supplies in stock are used first. Value of the goods remaining are HIGHER that goods already used. DEFLATION

A

FIFO

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22
Q

Resident care costs, payroll taxes, salaries, benefits, med supplies, capital equipment.

A

Direct Costs

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23
Q

Support service costs, housekeeping, maintenance, interest expense, administration, payroll, utility, depreciation, and tax.

A

Indirect Costs

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24
Q

Expense and Revenue budget, these both make what budget.

A

Operating Budget

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25
Q

A wrong or literally means twisted. Exists when plaintiff is harmed as a direct result of breach of duty. Facility fails to provide care to residents causing harm to residents. CIVIL CASE/MONEY DAMAGES

A

Tort

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26
Q

A person appoints another individual to make decisions on his/her behalf AFTER THE PERSON BECOMES INCOMPETENT.

A

DPOA

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27
Q

Agreement in which a person (PRINCIPLE) gives another person (ATTORNEY IN FACT) the authority to make decisions on behalf of the principle

A

POA

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28
Q

legal document that allows a person to appoint a healthcare agent to make treatment decisions in the event he/she becomes incapacitated and unable to make decisions for him/herself.

A

Healthcare proxy

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29
Q

Agent who acts on behalf of a patient who lacks the capacity to participate in a particular decision

A

Surrogate Decision Maker

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30
Q

Appointment by a probate court of a substitute decision maker for a person a Jude declares incompetent

A

Guardianship/Conservatorship

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31
Q

Bequest of a real/personal property effective at the death of the tester

A

Will

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32
Q

Person who dies with a will

A

Testate

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33
Q

Person who dies without a will

A

Intestate

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34
Q

Advanced directive which resident gives instructions on if he/she wants life sustaining equipment to be used.

A

Living Will

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35
Q

(Meds not given + wrong meds given) / (total # of doses given + doses ordered but not give)

A

Med Error Rate

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36
Q

Fluid pressure builds up in the eye causing loss of sight.

A

Glaucoma

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37
Q

Cloudiness of the eye lens

A

Cataract

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38
Q

Dilates the pupils of the eyes to relieve eye pressure

A

Mydriatics

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39
Q

Robitussin

A

Schedule 5 Drugs

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40
Q

Valium, Diazepam

A

Schedule 4 Drugs

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41
Q

Tylenol w/ Codeine

A

Schedule 3 Drugs

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42
Q

Must be Separately Locked (Opium, Codeine, Cocaine, Morphine) High Abuse and dependency

A

Schedule 2 Drugs

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43
Q

Marijuana, Heroine, LSD

A

Schedule 1 Drugs. Cannot be used in NH

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44
Q

Pain reducers

A

Analgesic

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45
Q

Warfarin/Heparin

A

Anticoagulants - blood thinners

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46
Q

Right medication, dose, time, route, patient

A

5 rights to med administration

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47
Q

Must be monitored every 30 mins, removed every 2 hours for 10 minutes

A

Restraints

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48
Q

Hygiene, mobility, elimination, dining, communication

A

5 ADLS

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49
Q

MCR FACILITY: funds in excess of $100 must be deposited in what type of separate account.

A

Interest Bearing Acct.

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50
Q

MCR Facility: funds less than $100 must be in what account.

A

Non-interest bearing acct.

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51
Q

MCD Resident: funds in excess of $50. What account?

A

Interest bearing acct.

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52
Q

MCD Resident: funds less than $50. What account?

A

Non-interest bearing acct.

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53
Q

To assure the security of personal funds deposited in the RTF account. What insurance is needed?

A

Surety Bond

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54
Q

Resident trust fund account statements are issue when?

A

Quarterly and upon request.

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55
Q

14 calendar days after admission, 14 days w/in significant changed, not less than once every 12 months.

A

Comprehensive Assessments

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56
Q

Facility must maintain all resident assessments how long?

A

15 months

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57
Q

Must electronically transmit MDS to CMS w/in how many days

A

14 days

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58
Q

1 Month 5% sig.
3 Month 7.5% sig
6 Month 10% sig.

A

Significant weight losses

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59
Q

October 1st - March 31st. Annually

A

Must offer flu shot

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60
Q

Wash 150-160 degrees and final rinse at 180 degrees

A

High Temp Dishwasher

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61
Q

Wash 120 degrees and final rinse 50 ppm hypochlorite

A

Low Temp dishwasher

62
Q

Wash, Rinse, Sanitize

A

Hand Washing

63
Q

Food must be stored how high off the ground

A

6 inches

64
Q

1) Accommodate no more than 4 residents (2016 only 2 residents)
2) measure at least 80 sq. ft. per resident in multi resident room. At least 100 sq. ft. in single resident room.
3) Direct access to corridor
4) One operable window
5) floor at or above ground level
6) clean daily
7) privacy curtain
8) resident call light

A

Resident Rooms

65
Q

Nurse aide can work how many months without being certified, if nurse aide completed state approved training

A

4 months

66
Q

If the CNA did not provide any care or work in the capacity of a CNA over a 24 month period, what happens to the CNA?

A

CNA must go through new training and competency eval.

67
Q

CNA must register every__?

A

2 years

68
Q

Nurse aide performance reviews must be completed every___?

A

12 months

69
Q

CNA required training is no less than how many hours?

A

12 hours

70
Q

Upper Management

A

Nursing Home Administrator

71
Q

Middle Level Management

A

DON, Dept. Heads. responsible for implementing policies

72
Q

Lower level Management

A

ADON, charge nurse

73
Q

Person who is empowered by the ED to make decisions for the organization. Ex: DON

A

Line Authority

74
Q

Person with advisory role to the manager with no authority to make decisions for the organization. EX: accountant, admin assistant

A

Staff Authority

75
Q

First step, setting the objectives of the organization. Long range goals are identified, accomplished during strategic planning.

A

Planning

76
Q

Long-term planning process by key stakeholders in which the organizations goals, measurable objectives, and direction for the immediate future are determine.

A

Strategic Planning

77
Q

Second function of managers. Work necessary to achieve a goal is broken down into segments, each of which is handled by one person. First step in implementation of a plan and where departmentalization occurs.

A

Organizing

78
Q

Ensuring that facility is staffed appropriately and staff have been trained on the care needed.

A

Staffing

79
Q

Manager makes decisions. Process of communicating to employees what is to be done by each of them and helping them to accomplish it.

A

Directing (leading)/Decision Making

80
Q

Compares ultimate financial results with the expected financial results. Checks performance and takes corrective action.

A

Controlling

81
Q

Broad statements of goals and procedures. Allow flexibility in decision making

A

Policies

82
Q

Step by step guide by which task is to be performed in order to attain a goal.

A

Procedure

83
Q

From subordinates to upper mgmt.

A

Upward Comm.

84
Q

From upper mgmt. to lower level.

A

Downward Comm.

85
Q

Info. flowing between peers or persons of equal rank.

A

Horizontal Comm.

86
Q

Easy going, supportive leadership style

A

Laissez- faire

87
Q

Allows considerable employee input and is a true participative management style

A

Democratic

88
Q

Sympathetic, fathering/mothering style that provides rewards.

A

Paternal

89
Q

Threatening, intimidating, decisive management style

A

Dictatorial

90
Q

Hierarchy of Needs

A

Abraham Maslow

91
Q

Theory X,Y,Z

A

Douglas Mcgregor

92
Q

Process of defining a job in terms of tasks/behaviors; process of grouping a series of related tasks into a position; Prepares the job description

A

Job Analysis

93
Q

Info. about a job that results in a statement of the job to be done; usually a list of duties. Used to select, train, evaluate, and compensate employees

A

Job Description

94
Q

Statement of skills, education, and experience required to perform the job.

A

Job Specification

95
Q

Prohibits discrimination on basis of age, sex, race, marital status, religion, national origin, or handicap.

A

Civil Rights Act 1964

96
Q

Defined the rights of workers; Unionization, collective bargaining (unions).

A

National Labor Relations Act 1935 (Wagner Act)

97
Q

50% plus one of the employees who vote, vote for the union, then the union will be established.

A

National Labor Relations Board

98
Q

Amendment of Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Intended to cover all employers of 15 or more persons

A

Equal Employment Opportunity Act 1972

99
Q

Monitors activities and powers of labor unions. Written notice must be provided 10 days prior to striking/refusal to work

A

Taft-Hartley Act 1947

100
Q

Seeks to protect the interests of the individual union member against possible union abuses

A

Landrum-Griffin Act 1959

101
Q

Requires men and women performing equal jobs receive equal pay. Enforced by the EEOC.

A

Equal Pay Act 1963

102
Q

Limits the power of federal courts to issue injunction in cases involving or growing out of labor disputes. Legalized union organizing activities, affirmed workers rights to organize for collective bargaining purposes.

A

Norris-LaGuardia Act 1932

103
Q

Can only garnish 25% of disposable earrings or amount which disposable wages are greater than 30 times the federal minimum wage.

A

Consumer Credit Protection Act 1968

104
Q

Need to have 15 or more persons working for you; has authority to bring lawsuits against employers in federal courts. To prevent any person from engaging in any unlawful employment practices.

A

EEOC

105
Q

Must have work for 12 weeks or 1250 hours prior to leave.

A

Family and Medical Leave Act 1993.

106
Q

Privacy standards that facilities must ensure their residents in order to continue to be eligible for their MCR funds. Privacy for resident. Enable workers to change jobs w/o losing coverage

A

Health insurance portability and accountability act 1996
HIPAA

107
Q

Prohibits age based employment discrimination against 40 years or older. Covers private employers with 20 or more employees

A

Older Workers Benefit Protection Act 1990

108
Q

Employee benefit not require by law: sick time, leave/vacation, workers comp.

A

Fringe Benefit

109
Q

Overtime and Family/Medical Leave are what kind of benefits?

A

Required by law benefits

110
Q

Protects employees from being discriminated against on the basis of age. Protects employees age 40-70.

A

Age Discrimination Employment Act 1967

111
Q

Employer must advise applicants if credit reports will be requested

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act

112
Q

1.Right to restrict union organizers to certain locations and time periods to avoid interference w/ facility operations
2. Right to prohibit union activities during employee work hours
3. Right to prohibit supervisors from engaging in union organizational activity
4. Company is forbidden to ask employees about their union activities and cannot ask if they are part of the union

A

Managements Rights regarding Union Labor Rights

113
Q

Occurs when the selection rate for any racial, ethnic, sex group is less than 80% of the rate of the group with highest selection.

A

Adverse Impact

114
Q

Do not ask questions related to sex, age, race, national origin, education, religion, arrest and conviction records, marital status, credit rating, or disabilities.

A

Interview Questions that cannot be asked.

115
Q

Do you need a reasonable accommodation to perform the essential functions of the job is lawful or unlawful to ask?

A

Unlawful

116
Q

Avoids conflict, some supervisors give consistently high ratings

A

Leniency Error

117
Q

Consistently giving moderate scores regardless of poor or outstanding performance

A

Error of Central Tendency

118
Q

One particular job behavior; punctuality, permits the presence or absence of this one trait to color several or most other trait ratings.

A

Halo Effect

119
Q

One particular bad job behavior, and the employee is overall negative

A

Horn Effect

120
Q

Every facility having health insurance must offer an employee who leaves and his/her dependents the opportunity of staying int he program. 18 months for laid off employees. Up to 29 months for disabled individuals. Up to 36 months for dependents following separation, divorce, or death.

A

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

121
Q

Must be completed within 72 hours (3 business days) of employment

A

Employment Eligibility Verification Form I-9

122
Q

Nursing homes must report to the FDA, or manufacturer, within 10 working days of becoming aware, after the incident. All incidents in which the medical device caused or contributed to a residents death.

A

Safe Medical Device Act 1990

123
Q

Imposes on all employers a general duty to provide each employee a safe work place, free from hazards causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm.

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

124
Q

A log and summary of occupational injuries and illnesses taht occur with in the SNF each calendar year. Business w/ less than or equal to 10 employees are exempt from completing this form. Only record injuries and illnesses that OSHA classifies as RECORDABLE and WORK RELATED

A

OSHA 300 - Log

125
Q

Between January and February of every year this form must be posted.

A

OSHA 300A Form

126
Q

To sure there is reasonable degree of safety to portent people from fire and related hazards. Fire marshal enforces LSC.

A

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA 101)

127
Q

Materials must be 2 hour fire resistance and 1 hour fire resistant or less.

A

Fire safety code specifies these materials

128
Q

Doors must be ____ hour fire rated?

A

1 and 1/2 hours

129
Q

This made buildings accessible to and usable by the visually and physically handicapped. Requires audible and flashing fire alarms

A

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

130
Q

No room shall be more than ________ feet from an _____ in the facility

A

100 / Exit

131
Q

Parking spaces for individuals with physical disabilities are how wide?

A

8 feet Wide

132
Q

Ramps are how deep and wide

A

3 ft deep and 5 ft. Wide

133
Q

How high must stair hand rails be?

A

28 inches

134
Q

Parking spaces must have how many handicap spaces per 25 spaces?

A

At least 1 handicap space

135
Q

How wide must a handicap space be?

A

13ft. wide

136
Q

Dimensions of ramps?

A

1:12, max rise of 30 inches.

137
Q

How wide must wheelchair passage be?

A

32” for doors, 36” everywhere else

138
Q

Handrail dimensions?

A

30-34 inches from ramp or stair tread

139
Q

Threshold dimensions?

A

No more than 1/2” high on entrances and exit doors. 3/4” on sliding doors

140
Q

Tells you what to do in the event of a spill; contact with eyes, skin, etc; what proper PPE to wear; compounds in each chemical; where to store the chemical; emergency phone number

A

SDS (safety data sheets)

141
Q

OSHA records must be kept for how long?

A

5 years

142
Q

Summary of OSHA 300 Log, does not contain names of the employees who were involved in accidents/injuries. Must be displayed in facility each Feb. through April.

A

OSHA 300A Log.

143
Q

When only one of a very limited number of residents or employees may be affected

A

Isolated

144
Q

When more than a very limited of residents or employees may be affected

A

Patterned

145
Q

When the problems are pervasive throughout the facility and/or represent a systemic failure that affected, or has the potential to be affected, a large group of residents and employees

A

Widespread

146
Q

No actual harm with potential for harm

A

Level 1

147
Q

No actual hard with potential for more than minimal harm that is no IJ

A

Level 2

148
Q

Actual harm that is not IJ

A

Level 3

149
Q

IJ to resident safety/health

A

Level 4

150
Q
A