Newborn Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

APGAR stands for

A

Appearance (colour)
Pulse (HR)
Grimace (reflex irritability)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiratory (effort)

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2
Q

APGAR score is done at _____ minutes after birth

A

1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

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3
Q

APGAR score is done a third time if __________ and is done at ________ minutes

A

score is less than 7 and is done at 10 minutes

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4
Q

acrocyanosis is the common for the first _____hrs in most babies

A

24-48 hrs

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5
Q

acrocyanosis is common for the first 24-48 hrs because

A

it takes a while for blood and circulation to get to all of the body

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6
Q

newborn HR normal range

A

110 - 160

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7
Q

newborn RR normal range

A

30 - 60

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8
Q

newborn temp normal range

A

36.5 - 37.5

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9
Q

newborn BP normal range

A

SBP 50 - 75
DBP 30 - 45

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10
Q

when assessing heart rate and respirations for 1 minutes APGAR score listen for _____ seconds and multiply by ____

A

6 seconds and multiply by 10

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11
Q

thermoregulation

A

process of maintaining balance between heat loss and hear production in order to maintain its core internal temperature

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12
Q

_____________ is critical to a newborns survival

A

thermoregulation

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13
Q

“the golden hour”

A

uninterrupted skin to skin contact with parent 1-2hrs after birth

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14
Q

characteristics that predispose newborns to heat loss

A
  • Thin skin with blood vessels close to surface
  • Lack of shivering ability to produce heat until 3 months of age
  • Limited stores of metabolic substrates (glucose, glycogen, fat)
  • Limited use of voluntary muscle activity or movement to produce heat
  • Large body surface area relative to body weight
  • Lack of subcutaneous fat, which provides insulation
  • Little ability to conserve heat by changing posture (fetal position)
  • No ability to adjust their own clothing or blankets to achieve warmth
  • Inability to communicate that they are too cold or too warm
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15
Q

conduction

A

involves transfer of heat from one object to another when the two objects are in direct contact of each other

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16
Q

convection

A

flow of heat from body surface to cooler surrounding air to air circulating over a body surface

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17
Q

cold stress

A

excessive heat loss that requires a newborn to use compensatory mechanisms to maintain core body temperatures

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18
Q

as body temp decreases the newborn becomes

A

less active, lethargic, hypotonic, and weaker

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19
Q

nonshivering thermogenesis uses

A

brown fat oxidation

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20
Q

brown fat is

A

special fat that converts chemical energy to heat

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21
Q

brown fat is special becomes

A

there is only so much of it, so once it us used up it is gone

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22
Q

preterm newborns are at greatest risk for cold stress because

A

they have fewer fat store, poorer vasomotor repsonses, and less insulation to cope with a hypothermic event

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23
Q

cold stress in newborns can lead to

A
  • depleted brown fat stores
  • increased oxygen needs
  • respiratory distress
  • increased glucose consumption leading to hypoglycemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • jaundice
  • hypoxia
  • decreased surfactant production
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24
Q

length of a full term newborn is usually

A

44 to 55 cm

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25
Q

term newborn typically weighs

A

2500g to 4000g

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26
Q

low birth weight is considered less than

A

2500 g

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27
Q

very low birth weight is considered less than

A

1500g

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28
Q

extremely low birth weight is considered less than

A

1000g

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29
Q

SGA

A

small for gestational age

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30
Q

LGA

A

large for gestational age

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31
Q

AGA

A

appropriate for gestational age

32
Q

preterm is _________ weeks

A

< 37 completed weeks

33
Q

term is _________ weeks

A

38 - 42 weeks

34
Q

post term is _________ weeks

A

after 42 completed weeks

35
Q

vitamin K treatment in newborns is administered ideally ________ hours after birth

A

1-2 hours

36
Q

vitamin K treatment in newborns promotes blood clotting by

A

increasing the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver

37
Q

without vitamin K treatment after birth newborns are at risk for

A

vitamin K deficiency and subsequent bleeding

38
Q

_____ mg is given within 6 hours after birth

A

1mg IM

39
Q

erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment should be done within the first _______ hours after birth

A

1-2 hours

40
Q

erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment provides actions to prevent

A

Neisseria gonorrhea and chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis

41
Q

erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment prevents ophthalmia neonatorum which can cause __________ in the newborn

A

blindness

42
Q

erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment is given based on

A

risk factors of getting bacteria from mom

43
Q

mom is encouraged to get rubella vaccine before or after birth but cannot have during pregnancy because

A

it is a live vaccine

44
Q

TRUE or FALSE
it is common for newborns to lose weight then gain it back

A

true

45
Q

it is a concern if newborn baby loses more than ___% of weight

A

10%

46
Q

small head circumference might indicate

A
  • microcephaly caused by rubella
  • toxoplasmosis
  • SGA status
47
Q

large head circumference might indicate

A
  • hydrocephalus
  • intraventricular bleed
  • increased intracranial pressure
48
Q

newborn skin should be

A
  • smooth and flexible
  • colour consistent with genetic background
  • warm to touch and intact
49
Q

Lanugo is

A

fine downy hair usually observed over the shoulders and on the sides of the face and upper back

50
Q

cracking and peeling of the skin is most common in babies born

A

post dates

51
Q

vernix caseosa

A
  • thick white substance that protects skin of fetus
  • formed by secretions from fetus’s oil glands and is found during the first 2-3 days after birth in body creases and hair
52
Q

vernix caseosa does not need to be removed from the skin because

A

it acts as a protective moisturizer which will be absorbed into the skin

53
Q

stork bites or salmon patches are

A

superficial vascular areas found on the nape, eyelids and between eyes and upper lip

54
Q

stork bites or salmon patches are caused by

A

concentration of immature blood vessles and are most visible when the newborn is crying

55
Q

pearly white or pale yellow unopened sebaceous glands are

A

milia

56
Q

milia are most commonly found on the

A

nose, chin, forehead

57
Q

milia will disappear on their within 2-4 weeks and should not be popped because

A

popping them can lead to permanent scarring on baby’s face

58
Q

epstein pearls

A

milia that occur in newborns mouth
- occur in approx. 80% of newborns

59
Q

mongolian spots

A

benign blue or purple splotches that appear solitary on the lower back and buttocks of newborns but may occur as multiple over the legs and shoulders

60
Q

erythema toxicum

A

newborn rash; is benign, idiopathic, generalized, transient rash that occurs in up to 70% of all newborns during the 1st week of life

61
Q

harlequin

A

refers to the dilation of blood vessels on only one side of the body, results from immature auto-regulation of blood flow and is commonly seen in low birth weight newborns where there is a positional change – lasts as long as 20 minutes

62
Q

nevus flammeus

A

commonly appears on the newborns face or body; capillary angioma located directly below the dermis – flat with sharp demarcations and is purple-red; made up of mature capillaries that are congested and dilated – is permanent and will not fade; majority are on head and neck areas

63
Q

nevus vasculosus

A

also called a strawberry mark or strawberry hemangioma – benign capillary hemangioma in the dermal and subdermal layers – raised, rough, dark red and sharply demarcated

64
Q

newborns head should

A
  • be symmetric and round
  • 2 fontanels at juncture of cranial bones
  • skull should feel somewhat smooth and fused except for areas over fontanels, sutures, and moulding areas
65
Q

anterior fontanel is _______ shaped and closes by ______ months

A

diamond shaped and closes by 18-24 months

66
Q

anterior fontanel typically measures ______ cm at largest diameter

A

4-6cm

67
Q

posterior fontanel is ______ shaped and closes by ______ weeks

A

triangular shaped and closes by 6-12 weeks

68
Q

posterior fontanel typically measures

A

one fingertip or 0.5 - 1 cm

69
Q

fontanelles should feel

A

soft and flat

70
Q

caput succedaneum

A

localized edema on scalp that occurs from pressure of birth process

71
Q

caput sucadaneum is commonly seen after

A

prolonged birth

72
Q

microcephaly

A

head circumference more than 2 standard deviations below average or less than 10% of normal parameters for gestational afe

73
Q

microcephaly is caused by

A

inadequate brain development
- reduced production of neurons leading to a reduction of brain volume and as a consequence of that a reduced skull size

74
Q

macrocephaly

A

head circumference more than 90% of normal

75
Q

macrocephaly is typically related to

A

hydrocephalus

76
Q

a large anterior fontanel is considered _____ cm
a large posterior fontanel is considered ____ cm

A

anterior more 6 cm diameter
posterior more than 1 cm diameter

77
Q

large fontanels can be associated with

A
  • malnutrition
  • hydrocephaly
  • congenital hypothyroidism
  • various bone disorders