New Stuff in Newly appeared questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What did the following people talk about:

  • Winnicott
  • Carl Jung
  • Melanie Klein
  • Sigmund Freud
  • Wilfred Bion
  • Karen Horney
  • Erving Goffman
  • Siegfried Foulkes
  • Barton
A

Winnicott - Good enough mother, transitional object
Carl Jung - Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus
Melanie Klein - Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting
Sigmund Freud - Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious
Wilfred Bion - Basic assumption group
Karen Horney - Womb envy
Erving Goffman - Total institution
Siegfried Foulkes - Foundation matrix
Barton - Institutional Neurosis

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2
Q

Freud introduced the topography of the mind in what publication?
What were the three areas he split the mind into, and what did each entail?

A

The interpretation of dreams.
Conscious
Preconscious
Unconscious

The conscious system: part of the mind that is aware.

The preconscious system: information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness.

The unconscious system: this area of the mind was outside conscious awareness. It operates on the primary process thinking, which means it is aimed at wish fulfilment. It is governed by the pleasure principle. It has no concept of time, and denies the existence of negatives, and is irrational as it allow the existence of contradictions.

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3
Q

What does AUDIT test for?
What does CAGE test for?
Which is the tool of choice for primary care?

A

AUDIT is used in primary care settings as it accurately detects both alcohol dependence and hazardous drinking. CAGE is good at detecting dependence only.
AUDIT is used in primary care settings.

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4
Q

Serotonin syndrome:

  • Characteristic triad?
  • Most reliable diagnostic finding?
  • Three features nearly always present?
  • Onset?
  • Most frequent drug interaction causing this?
  • Treatment?
A
  • Triad= neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus, myoclonus), altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction.
  • Most reliable finding: neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus/myoclonus)
  • Three features always present: hyper-reflexia, muscular rigidity and clonus
  • Onset usually acute/rapid
  • Treatment: can range from supporitve with benzos and IV fluids to use of 5HT-2A antagonist such as cyproheptadine
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5
Q
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Cause? (both what drug types and biochemically)
Onset? 
Treatment?
Mortality rate? 
Risk factors?
A

Caused usually by antipsychotics.
Thought to be due to dopamine blockade messing up thermo-regulatory system
Onset more gradual than SS but usually within 2 weeks of initial treatment; also with rapid dose reductions and abrupt withdrawal of anticholinergics
Mortality rate can be up to 20%
Treatment not always necessary. Involves removing antipsychotic; consider benzo, bromocriptine, dantrolene

Risk Factors: 
young
male
physical exhaustion
dehydration
previous and FH of NMS
organic mental disorder
low serum iron
rasied CK
comorbid substance misuse
high loading dose
faster rate of loading
high potency
sudden withdrawal
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6
Q
Differences between NMS and SS
Onset
Course
Neuromuscular findings 
Reflexes
Pupils
A

NMS onset is within 2 weeks of offending medication, SS has an acute onset (within 24 hours of drug administration)

SS usually rapidly resolves. NMS is a gradual

CLonus and tremor in SS
diffuse rigidty in NMS

Reflexes increased in SS, decreased in NMS

Mydriasis in SS, normal in NMS

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7
Q

Which antipsychotic is linked to pathological gambling?

A

There is evidence in the form of case reports suggesting there may be an association between aripiprazole and pathological gambling.

This makes sense since the only antipyschotic with some dopamine agonist features is Aripiprazole (D2 agonist)

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8
Q

Three medications that have been trialled in pathological gambling

A

SSRIs
Mood stabilisers
Naltrexone

Advice is to use whichever comorbid disease is present e.g. mood stabiliser if BPAD, SSRI is OCD or depressed, naltrexone if pathalogical gambling associated with other impulse-control disorders

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9
Q

What are the three key limbs of diagnosis of anorexia?

What is atypical?

A
  • Energy restriction leading to low body weight
  • Fear of gaining weight
  • Disturbed body image

Atypical describes presentation not quite meeting full criteria e.g. a lady who is very thin, starving herself but recognises that she is thin

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10
Q

What is the DSM-V guide to diagnosis of anorexia, with further subdivision

A

Similar to three key limbs:

  • Energy intake restriction relative to requirement, leading to significant reduced body weight (BMI <18.5 is a guide)
  • Disturbed body image or persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of the current low body weight
  • Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat

Further divided into:

  • Restricting type (weight loss attained through diet, fasting and exercise alone, within previous 3 months)
  • Binge eating/purging type (in previous 3 months, purging or binge-eating)
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11
Q

Severity criteria for anorexia

A

Mild = BMI > 17
Moderate = BMI 16-16.99
Severe - BMI 15 - 15.99
Extreme = BMI <15

Remember normal BMI
Underweight is < 18.5
Normal 18.5-25
Overweight 25-30
Obese over 30
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12
Q

Relationship to person and schizophrenia

A
Relationship to person with schizophrenia	
Risk of developing schizophrenia (lifetime risk)
General population	1%
First cousin	2%
Uncle/aunt	2%
Nephew/niece	4%
Grandchildren	5%
Parents	6%
Half sibling	6%
Full Sibling	9%
Children	13%
Fraternal twins	17%
Offspring of duel matings (both parents had schizophrenia)	46%
Identical twins	48%
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13
Q

When do the initial signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal become apparent?

Symptoms?
When do they diminish?

How many people progress to DTs? What is it? When occur?
Risk factors

Treatment of all the above; how does this relate to alcohols effect on GABA

A

The initial signs and symptoms of withdrawal begin from 6 to 48 hrs after drinking stops. They usually peak between 10-30 hours (McIntosh 2004).

Initial symptoms include: - sweating, agitation, nausea, tremor, irritability, and in a small number of cases transient hallucinations. These initial symptoms usually diminish by 48hrs.

5% progress to DTs.
More serious: severe agitation, tremor, hallucinations. occurs 2-4 days following alcohol cessation. mortality 1-5%.
risk factors : abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use

Alcohol enhances the effect of GABA on GABA-A, resulting in decreased overall brain excitability. Chronic exposure to alcohol results in a compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. As a result when people stop drinking their brains become very excitable. For this reason benzodiazepines are the main stay of treatment.

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14
Q

NICE guidelines for:

  • Short term insomnia
  • Long term insomnia
A

SHORT TERM (<4 weeks)
Short-acting benzodiazepines temazepam, loprazolam, lormetazepam.
Non-benzodiazepines (the ‘z-drugs’) zopiclone, zolpidem, and zaleplon (all are short acting).
Diazepam is not generally recommended, but it can be useful if insomnia is associated with daytime anxiety

LONG TERM
Refer to psychological services for a cognitive or behavioural intervention.

Pharmacological therapy is generally not recommended for the long-term management of insomnia but may be considered for immediate relief of symptoms.

If prescribing medication, use the lowest effective dose for the shortest period possible. The exact duration will depend on the underlying cause but should not continue for longer than 2 weeks. Up to 4 weeks’ use may occasionally be required, but continued use should always be re-assessed after 2 weeks.

For people over 55 years of age with persistent insomnia, consider treatment with a modified-release melatonin. The recommended initial duration of treatment is 3 weeks. If there is a response to treatment, it can be continued for a further 10 weeks.

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15
Q

Tremor in lithium
Toxicity?
Long term lithium use?

A

Lithium toxicity = Coarse, intention tremor

Long term lithium use = Fine, physiological tremor

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16
Q

Night terrors:

  • What age do they occur?
  • Boys vs girls?
  • How long does an episode last?
  • when does it begin?
  • what happens?
  • how are they different to nightmares?
A
  • in children age 3-12 and most often when a child is 3-4
  • equal between boys and girls
  • 1 to 15 minutes
  • 1 to 3 hors after sleep has begun
  • intesne crying and distress, unresponsive to external stimuli
  • nightmares occur during REM, night terrors during stage 3-4 NREM, there is no recall in night terrors, the onset in sleep of night terror is early (vs late), and the associated autonomic arousal is far greater in night terrors
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17
Q
What is the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test?
Ages used?
Four index scores? 
Two scores gained?
Average score?
A

Most commonly used intelligence test in clinical practice.
Between 16 and 90

Verbal Comprehension Index
Perceptual Reasoning Index
Working Memory Index
Processing Speed Index

Full scale IQ
General ability Index

Average score is 100, meaning you are on 50th centile (50% of people score above and 50% score below)

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18
Q

PTSD:

  • What are cortisol levels doing?
  • Two structures implicated?
A
  • Lower than normal; attributed to chronic adrenal exhaustion
  • Amygdala and hippocampus
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19
Q

How does the ICD-10 differentiate mania from hypomania?

DSM?

A

In the ICD-10 hypomania is differentiated from mania by duration and symptoms. Hypomania is an elevated mood for a minimum of 4 days. Mania requires a minimum of 7 days.

The DSM-IV differentiates between mania and hypomania by stipulating that hypomania occurs without any marked social or occupational interference.

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20
Q

What three features would suggest mania rather than hypomania?

A

Flight of ideas
Psychotic symptoms
Loss of social inhibitions

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21
Q

Go through the B vitamins

A
Vitamin B1 = thiamine
Vitamin B2 = riboflavin
Vitamin B3 = niacin
Vitamin B5 = pantothenic acid
Vitamin B6 = pyridoxine
Vitamin B7 = biotin
Vitamin B9 = folic acid
Vitamin B12 = cyanocobalamin
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22
Q

What are the features of vitamin B3 deficiency? Who gets it?

A

Vitamin B3 is Niacin.
Deficiency leads to Pellagra.
Pellagra = 3ds; dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia.
Alcoholics get it, but much less commonly than B1 deficiency (i.e. wernickes/korsakoff syndrome)

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23
Q

Describe the DSM-IV clusters of personality disorders.

What is the big difference between this and ICD-10.

A

Cluster A (MAD)

Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal

Cluster B (BAD)

Narcissistic
Borderline
Antisocial
Histrionic

Cluster C (SAD)

Obsessive compulsive
Dependent
Avoidant

. One important exception is that in the ICD-10, schizotypal personality disorder is not grouped with the personality disorders. Instead it is grouped with schizophrenia and referred to as Schizotypal disorder.

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24
Q

Drugs and pregnancy/breastfeeding?

Antidepressants
Psychotics
Mood stabiliers
Sedatives

A

Drug class Suggested in pregnancy Suggested in breastfeeding

Antidepressants:
PREGNANCY
Fluoxetine, sertraline, amitriptyline, imipramine, (avoid paroxetine, clomipramine, and all MAOI)	
BREASTFEEDING
Sertraline
Antipsychotics
PREGNANCY
Olanzapine, quetiapine, haloperidol, clozapine, chlorpromazine
BREASTFEEDING
Olanzapine

Mood stabilisers
PREGNANCY
Avoid if at all possible, antipsychotic with mood stabilising properties is preferred
BREASTFEEDING
Avoid if possible and use antipsychotics instead. Valproate is recommended if essential

Sedatives
PREGNANCY Promethazine (widely used but little data)
Benzodiazepines (probably not teratogenic but avoid in late pregnancy due to floppy baby syndrome)
BREASTFEEDING
For anxiety - Lorazepam
For insomnia - Zolpidem

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25
Q

ICD10 and DSM-IV criteria for dependence are similar. What are they?

Whose criteria are they based on historically? What was the big difference?

A
Compulsion
Loss of control
Physiological withdrawal
Tolerance
Neglect of rest of life
Persistence despite clear evidence of harmful consequence

Edward and Goss Criteria.
Rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.

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26
Q

Neo-Fruedian Theories

Adler
Jung
Erickson
Sullivan
Bion
Bowlby
Anna Freud
Kernberg
Mahler
Winnicot
A

Adler: Believed that the main driving force in personality is a striving for superiority.

Jung:
Introduced the concept of the persona (mask) which is the part of the ego presented to other people. The other (more hidden) part of the self is the ‘shadow’.
Differentiated between the personal unconscious (which contains an individual’s personal memories) and collective unconscious (a set of memories and ideas that is shared amongst all of humanity).
Talked of archetypes (symbolic images in the collective unconscious). Important archetypes are anima (female principle), animus (male principle), the shadow, and the self.

Wilfred Bion; all about group dynamics and BASIC ASSUMPTIONS.
Saw each group as having a work group and a basic assumption group
Three basic assumptions, fight or flight, dependency, and pairing

Sullivan: interpersonal therapy

Anna Freud: Defense mechanisms

Kernberg: Transference Focused Psychotherapy useful for people with borderline personality disorder

Mahler: theories on child development. Three main phases: austic, symbiotic, separation-individuatin

Winnicot: Introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother

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27
Q

Fragile X.
Physical features?
What kind of inheritance?
What trinucleotide repeat?

A

Large testicles, long face, large protruding ears, mental retardation.
Shy, avoid eye contact.
X-linked dominant.
CGG

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28
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

Three forms and frequency?

Most common psychiatric condition seen in MS?

Diagnostic indicators?

A

Primary Progressive 5-10%
Relapsing remitting 20-30%
Secondary progressive 60%

Depression- seen in 25-50%

Pervasive mood change
Diurnal mood variation
Suicidal ideation
Functional change not related to or out of proportion to physical disability
Pessimistic or negative patterns of thinking

29
Q

Who made the AUDIT questionnaire?

How many questions does it have?

A

WHO made it.
10 questions.
Tests both hazardous drinking and dependence (CAGE only does dependence).

30
Q

Medications to use in alcohol dependence

A

DISULFIRAM:

  • blocks aldehyde dehyrdogenase
  • if take lots of alcohol with it, can lead to cardiac arrhtymias and collapse

ACAMPROSATE:

  • agonist at GABA receptors
  • also acts on gluatamate receptors
  • good safety profile
  • GI disturbance e.g. diarrhoea is themost complained of side effect

NALTREXONE
- long acting opiod antagonist
reduces rewarding effects of alcohol and craving for it
- no issues with adverse events

31
Q

What does SPECT show:

  • in Alzheimers?
  • in vascular?
  • in LBW?

When is perfusion SPECT used?
When is DATSCAN aka FPCIT SPECT used?

A
  • SPECT demonstrates temporoparietal hypoperfusion in AD
  • in vascular SPECT shows multi-focal pattern of hypo-perfusion
  • in lewy body it shows posterior defecits and reduced D2 receptor density
  • in FTD it shows anterior perfusion defecits

perfusion SPECT theoretically can be used to differentiate alzheimers dementia, vascular dementia and FTD

FPCIT SPECT can be used in those with suspected lewy body dementia

32
Q

Pregnancy Defects

  • Valproate/carbamazapine
  • Lithium
  • Benzos
A
  • Valproate and carbamazepine both associated with neural tube defects (Valproate worse)
  • Lithium has a 1:1000 risk ebsteins anomaly (relative risk 10-20 times more likely)
  • Benzodiazepines; associated with oral clefts in newborns and floppy baby syndrome
33
Q

What is:
Active placebo?
Nocebo?

A

Active placebo e.g. using atropine in controlled drug trial of antidepressants.
Nocebo: prominent side effects

34
Q

Give facts about placebo:

  • better in mild or severe illness?
  • how does it affect ability to power studies?
  • how does regression to the mean play a role?
  • effects over time?
  • short lived or long lived?
A
  • better in mild illness
  • the bigger the placebo response rate, the harder it is to power studies
  • people enter RCTs when acutely unwell, therefore when enter study, regression to the mean means they are likely to improve irrespective of the intervention
  • placebo rate increasing over time
  • placebo response tends to be short lived
35
Q

What two types of attachment disorder do you know? When do they occur? What are the features? what are they associated with?

A

Reactive/inhibited attachment disorder. Develops due to abnormal relationships with caregivers before the age of 5. Kids tend to be inhibited and show ambivalence towards caregivers.

Disinhibited: again occurs in the first 5 years. In first 2 years, clinging. At 4 years, clinging replaced by attention seeking and indiscriminately friendly behaviour. In most cases: marked inconsistencty in early care givers/multiple changes.

Attachment disorder associated with: 
Failure to thrive
Developmental delay
Feeding disorder of infancy
Pica
Rumination disorder
36
Q

Kleine-Levin Syndrome.

What is it?

A
  • Very bizarre condition
  • Adolescent boys
  • Increased need for sleep + tendency to eat any food in sight
  • symptoms often appear abruptly, and go abruptly
  • no cause know n
37
Q

Certain conditions are associated with specific defence mechanisms:

  • phobias
  • OCD
  • BPD
  • Narcissistic PD
  • Agoraphobia
A

Phobias Repression and displacement

Obsessive compulsive disorder Isolation (you isolate the obsessive thoughts to remove the emotiaonl element), undoing, and reaction formation (believing the opposite)

Borderline personality disorder Projection (you hate someone; to solve the problem you think they hate you) and splitting

Narcissistic personality disorder Projection and splitting

Agoraphobia Displacement (displacement; negative feelings transferred from original source to a less threatening object)

38
Q

Go through the subtypes of bipolar

A

DSM and ICD only recognise:

  • Bipolar I (mania and depression)
  • Bipolar II (hypomania and depression)

Gerald Klerman proposed additional subtypes:

  • Bipolar III (cyclothymic disorder)
  • Bipolar IV (hypomania or mania precioitated by antidepressant drugs)
  • Bipolar V (depressed patients with FH of Bipolar)
  • VI (unipolar mania)
39
Q

Clinical Trials; what are the phases?

A

Phase I clinical trials involve only a small number of healthy people (possibly as few as 15-20). The focus is to evaluate the drugs safety, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects.

In Phase II clinical trials the drug or treatment is given to a larger group of people (100-300) to see if it is effective and to further evaluate its safety.

In phase III trials the drug or treatment is given to large groups of people (1,000-3,000) to confirm its effectiveness, monitor side effects, compare it to commonly used treatments (or placebos), and collect information that will allow the experimental drug or treatment to be used safely.

Phase IV trials (aka Post Marketing trials) are done after the drug has been granted a license. They gather further information on the drug in areas not addressed in the previous trials (e.g. Safety in pregnancy) and also to find other potential uses for the drug.

40
Q

How does antidepressants and antipsychotics cause low sodium?
Risk factors?
Treatment?

A

SIAD

Being elderly
Being female
Being a smoker
Having medical co-morbidity
Polypharmacy
Low body weight
Low baseline sodium concentration
Reduced renal function
Warm weather

Treatment usually consists of fluid restriction. In some cases demeclocycline is used. (if vital to continue treatment)

41
Q

What did Bion theorise about?

A

Group Dynamics.
Working group - one that works well.
Basic assumption group - one that acts out primitive fantasies and prevents things getting done.
Types of basic assumption group:
- Dependency; depend on a leader
- fight-flight; acts as if there is an enemy who must be attacked
- pairing- acts as if answer lies in the pairing of two members (friendly or hostile)

42
Q

Grief.

What is the Bowlby model?

A
  1. Shock and protest. Few days.
  2. Preoccupation. Few weeks.
  3. Disorganisation. Despiar and acceptance of loss. Months.
  4. Resolution. 1-2 years.
43
Q

What is the Kubler Ross grief model?

A

Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

44
Q

What abnormal types of grief do you know?

A

Inhibited: absence of expected grief symptom at any stage.
Delayed: avoidance of painful symptoms within 2 weeks of loss.
Chronic/prolonged: continued significant grief related symptoms 6 months after loss.

45
Q

Features to distinguish between normal grief and major depression.

A

Generalised guilt (rather than guilt specifically related to actions taken around the time of death.
Thoughts of death (except in relation to the deceased)
Feeling worthless
Psychomotor retardation
Prolonged functional impairment
Hallucinations (except in relation to the deceased)

46
Q

What genes are associated with dyslexia?

Which chromosome are they on?

A

DCDC2
DYX1C1
KIAA0319
Located on chromosome 6

47
Q

Frontotemporal dementia

  • What are the three types?
  • Common features?
A
  • Picks disease/frontotemporal dementia
  • Semantic dementia
  • Progressive non fluent aphasia or chronic progressive aphasia/CPA

All of them have insidious onset, usually before 65, personality change, relatively preserved memory

Picks disease: knife-blade appearance; gyral atrophy. Most common type. Big personality change and impaired social conduct.

Progressive non fluent aphasia/chronic progressive aphasia (CPA); characterised by non fluent speech.

Semantic dementia: fluent progressive aphasia.

48
Q

Where are balloon cells seen?

A

Found in picks disease

49
Q

Genetics of alcohol:

if someone is alcoholic what is the probability of having a first degree relatives with alcoholsiM?

A

90%

50
Q

Pathology of schizophrena.

5 macroscopic findings

A
  • Ventricular enlargement
  • Reduced brain volume (up to 5%)
  • Reduced left planum temporale gray matter, reduced asymmetry
  • reduction of the size of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus.
51
Q

Modafinil:

  • What is it?
  • What is it similar to?
  • Licensed for?
A
  • Stimulant that enhances wakefulness, attention, vigilance
  • Similar to amphetamines but lacks euphoric effects. Does not precipitate psychosis.
  • Licensed for narcolepsy, OHSA, chronic shift work, adjunct in depression
52
Q

Thiamine.
What does it do?
What does deficiency do?

A
  • required for enzymes that metabolise sugars
  • involved in: synthesis of neurotransmitters, production of fatty acids/steroids, involved in response to oxidative stress

Deficiency leads to cell damage through cell necrosis, cellular apoptosis, oxidative stress

53
Q

Standard drugs in a urinalysis drug screen are?

A
Cannabis
Amphetamine
Cocaine
Methadone
Benzodiazepines
Opiates
54
Q

How long do drugs stay in urine?

A
Drug of abuse	Length of time detectable in urine
Cannabis (heavy use)	14-28 days
Cannabis (single use)	3 days
Phencyclidine	8 days
Methadone	3 days
Morphine	3 days
Benzodiazepine	3 days
Heroin	3 days
Cocaine	1-3 days
Amphetamine	1-3 days
LSD	1-3 days
Codeine	2 days
Alcohol	12 hours
55
Q

What subtypes of schizophrenia do you know? Include their features.

A

Paranoid schizophrenia is characterised by the preoccupation of delusions or hallucinations (typically persecutory or grandiose ones).

Disorganised schizophrenia (aka hebephrenic) is characterised by a regression to a primitive, unorganized form of behaviour. Incongruous behaviour such as grinning is common.

Catatonic schizophrenia is characterised by marked disturbances in motor function such as stupor, posturing, and rigidity.

Residual schizophrenia refers to patients who lack active psychotic symptoms but still have milder symptoms such as emotional blunting, and mild loosening of association.

Simple schizophrenia is characterised by predominately negative symptoms of schizophrenia in the absence of overtly psychotic experiences.

Bouffee delirante refers to a brief shorted lived psychosis that lasts less than 3 months.

56
Q

What important interaction is important with chlorpromaizine?

A

Chlorpromazine can increase valproate levels

57
Q

Most things are low in anorexia. What is raised?

A

Hypercortisolism
Hypercarotenemia
Hypercholesterolemia

58
Q

What are the components of the SCOFF questionnaire?

A

Do you ever make yourself SICK because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you ever worry that you have lost CONTROL over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than ONE stone in a three month period?
Do you believe yourself to be FAT when others say you are too thin?
Would you say FOOD dominates you life?

59
Q

Who came up with the terms
Dementia praecox and manic depression -

Schizophrenia -

Hebephrenia -

Catatonia -

Demence precoce -

Schizoaffective -

Neurasthenia -

Unipolar and bipolar -

Hypnosis -

Group dynamics -

Group psychotherapy -

Psychopathic inferiority -

Psychiatry -

Institutional Neurosis -

A
Dementia praecox and manic depression - Kraepelin
Schizophrenia - Bleuler
Hebephrenia - Hecker
Catatonia - Kahlbaum
Demence precoce - Morel
Schizoaffective - Kasanin
Neurasthenia - Beard
Unipolar and bipolar - Kleist
Hypnosis - Braid
Group dynamics - Lewin
Group psychotherapy - Moreno
Psychopathic inferiority - Koch
Psychiatry - Reil
Institutional Neurosis - Barton
60
Q

Freud structural theory

A

Three areas:

  • Id
  • Ego
  • Super ego

Id: instinctive desires. Operates under primary process thinking, acts according to pleasure principle.

Ego: modify drives from the id with external reality. operates on reality principle. aspects are consious, preconsious, uncsious.

Super Ego: constantly observes person and acts as critical agency. develops from interanalised values of a childs main carers. This is the CONSCIENCE.

61
Q

Obsessional neurosis

A

A term coined by Freud and was his description of what now is known as OCD
Usually start in adult life
Intellignece is usually average or above
Insight usually present

62
Q

What are the main cortical dementias?
Subcortical?
Features of each?

A

Cortical: Alzheimers, Picks, CJD.
Subcortical: includes dementia with Parkinsons, huntingdons, wilsons, PSP

Features of cortical: 
Impaired memory
Impaired visuospatial ability
Impaired executive function
Impaired language
Subcortical: 
Generalised slowing of mental processes
Personality change
Mood disorders
Presence of abnormal movements
63
Q

What is suboxone?

Subutex?

A

Suboxone: four parts buprenorphine (partial agonist opiod receptor) to one part naloxone (opiod antagonist). Prevents addicts from injecting the tablets; this was common when given pure buprenorphine tablets.

Subutex is just buprenorphine

64
Q

What is the tetrad of narcolepsy?

A

Excessive sleepiness
Cataplexy
Hypnagogic hallucinations
Sleep paralysis

65
Q

what drugs cause priapism

A

Trazodone
Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine

66
Q

which antipsychotic has antidepressant effects at low dose

A

Flupentixol

67
Q

The reduction in anxiety experienced in flooding therapy is referred to as?

A

Habituation

68
Q

What type of drug is associated with persistent pulmonary HTN in newborn during late pregnancy?

A

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn is association with SSRI use during late pregnancy (Chambers 2006).