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New And Scary Stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bucindolol?

A

A beta-blocker

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2
Q

What is clopidogrel?

A

An anti-clotting drug

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3
Q

Is haemoglobin glycosylated or glycated?

A

Haemoglobin is glycated in diabetes (hyperglycaemia) as it is a non-enzymatic reaction.

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4
Q

Which nucleus holds the biological clock?

A

Suprachiasmatic

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5
Q

Which nucleus produces oxytocin?

A

Supra optic

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6
Q

Which nucleus produces ADH?

A

Paraventricular

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7
Q

What charge do Gla residues have and why is this relevant?

A

Gla residues have a strong, negative charge. This means they are very attracted to the calcium ions at the site of damage therefore clotting factors are attracted to the site of damage.

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8
Q

What 2 molecules can activate plasminogen?

A 
TPA = tissue plasminogen activator (endogenous)
Streptokinase = exogenous addition to stop clotting
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9
Q

What is recombination frequency?

A

How often crossing-over occurs which is smaller if the genes are linked.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of a Lexis diagram?

A

They control for time period as people may move into different groups as they age. This stops time period being a confounder.

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11
Q

What is the P value for a heterogeneity test and why?

A

The heterogeneity test is a weak test so we use p

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12
Q

What are the 3 most important words in regards to systematic reviews?

A

Explicit, transparent and reproducible.

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13
Q

What is amiodarone?

A

An antiarrhythmic drug that affects the thyroid function.

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14
Q

What do we look for in DNA profiling?

A

Small tandem repeats in non-coding DNA

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15
Q

What do we look for in DNA fingerprinting?

A

Mini or microsatellites that are repeated in the non-coding DNA.

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16
Q

Which way through the Golgi are things processed?

A

Cis to Trans

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17
Q

Name 2 molecules secreted continuously

A

Albumin and collagen

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18
Q

Name 2 molecules with regulated secretion

A

Insulin and glucagon

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19
Q

Which is more acidic, the ER or the Golgi?

A

The Golgi is more acidic

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20
Q

Which enzyme requires vitamin C?

A

Prolyl hydroxylase

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21
Q

What are the roles of the vitamin free radical scavengers?

A

Vitamin E gets oxidised by ROS to prevent the oxidation of lipids as this would cause a chain reaction. Vitamin C reduces vitamin E so it can carry on protecting against oxidative damage.

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22
Q

What is the role of SOD?

A

Catalase the reaction of superoxide to hydrogen peroxide (or molecular oxygen)

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23
Q

What is the role of catalase?

A

To catalyse the reaction hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

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24
Q

What is lysyl oxidase needed for?

A

The formation of covalent cross-links to form collagen fibrils.

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25
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

47,XXY

Only affects males - testicular atrophy and sterility

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26
Q

Where is the epimere?

A

Dorsal portion of myotome

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27
Q

Where is the hypomere?

A

Ventral portion of myotome

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28
Q

What does the epimere go on to form?

A

Skeletal muscle

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29
Q

What does the hypomere go on to form?

A

Muscles in the walls of body cavities

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30
Q

What does UV radiation cause in DNA and how is this fixed?

A

Thymine Dimer formation

Fixed by nucleotide excision repair

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31
Q

Which chemicals can intercalates between DNA bases?

A

IQ and Ethidium bromide

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32
Q

What are the 3 types of single strand repair?

A

Nucleotide excision repair, base excision repair and mismatch repair.

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33
Q

What are the 3 types of double strand repair?

A

Homologous recombination, NHEJ and MMEJ.

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34
Q

How do oestrogens affect the thyroid?

A

Increase the production of TBG therefore overall increase the amount of thyroid hormone in the blood.

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35
Q

What are eicosanoids?

A

Signalling molecules derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids.

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36
Q

What is required for the hydrolysis of TAG in the small intestine?

A

Pancreatic lipase, bile salts and colipase.

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37
Q

What is the role of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A

It converts acetyl-coA into malonyl-coA at the start of fatty acid synthesis.

38
Q

What is glycine needed to make?

A

Purines, glutathione, porphyrins and creatine.

39
Q

What are the genetic markers for Type 1 diabetes?

A

HLA DR3 and HLA DR4

40
Q

How do sulphonylureas work?

A

Increase insulin release from the remaining beta cells and reduce insulin resistance.

41
Q

How does metformin work?

A

It reduces gluconeogenesis.

42
Q

Which enzyme is usually deficient in homocystinuria?

A

Cystathionine synthase

43
Q

How many pairs of autonomic ganglia are there?

A

25

44
Q

How many pairs of sensory ganglia are there?

A

31 pairs

45
Q

What region does the sympathetic NS define?

A

Thoracic-lumbar division

T1-T12 and L1-L2

46
Q

What region does the parasympathetic NS define?

A

Cranio-sacral division
Cranial nerves = III, VII, IX and X
S2-S4

47
Q

What is the secondary role of statins?

A

Increase the expression of lipoprotein lipase

48
Q

What is PTHrp?

A

Parathyroid hormone related peptide that is released from ectopic tumours. It has all the effects of PTH except it does not stimulate activation of vitamin D.

49
Q

Where is calcium reabsorbed?

A

Ascending limb and DCT

50
Q

What is the likely change to the trachea of a smoker?

A

Tar from the cigarette smoke paralyses the cilia and so they get smokers cough. Metaplasia occurs and the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium becomes stratified squamous.

51
Q

A gram positive bacteria is causing a chest infection. What is the most likely culprit?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

52
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

A genetic predisposition for an allergic reaction to anaesthetic. Their heart rate and temperature increase rapidly and all the calcium ions are released from the reticulum causing muscular contraction.

53
Q

How do we treat rigid muscles?

A

With dantrolene. This prevents calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to stop the muscle contraction so acts as a muscle relaxant.

54
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by penicillin?

A

Transpeptidase

55
Q

How do anti-pyretic NSAIDs work?

A

They inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzymes which decreases the level of signalling molecules. (Prostaglandins)

56
Q

How long can the formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus take?

A

3-4 weeks

57
Q

How long does it take for a bony callus to form?

A

3-4 months

58
Q

What is a keloid?

A

Excessive scarring on the skin caused by abnormal amounts of collagen. Usually occurs at sites of surgical incision or trauma.

59
Q

What happens to keratinocytes in the granular layer?

A

They undergo apoptosis and lose their nuclei.

60
Q

In collagen synthesis, what enzyme catalyses disulfide bond formation?

A

Disulfide isomerase

61
Q

What happens to haemoglobin when oxygen binds?

A

The R state is stabilised due to a conformational change of the movement of Fe into the ring. This promotes cooperative binding of oxygen in the haemoglobin molecule.

62
Q

What is the pathophysiology of sickle cell?

A

When in the deoxygenated state, HbS forms sticky hydrophobic pockets and polymerises causing the cell the sickle. This predisposes the cell to destruction by haemolysis and therefore causes anaemia. The repeated cycles of oxygenation and deoxygenation means the RBC loses elasticity and remains in the sickle shape. It is unable to pass through narrow capillaries and causes ischaemia downstream of the blockage.

63
Q

Why does being ill make sickle cell worse?

A

The number of WBCs increases and hence the blood viscosity increases. This makes it more difficult for the RBCs to pass through capillaries and therefore more likely to causes blockage and ischaemia.

64
Q

Define sickle cell crisis

A

The lack of perfusion to an area of tissue causing ischaemic injury and pain.

65
Q

Define hypovolemia

A

Decrease blood volume

66
Q

What are the roles of apolipoproteins?

A

Allow the lipoprotein to be transported in an aqueous environment and interact with enzymes and exceptions so that lipids can be taken up by cells.

67
Q

Which of the pituitary cells are basophils and which are acidophils?

A 
Basophils = gonadotrophs, corticotrophs and thyrotrophs 
Acidophils = somatotrophs and lactotrophs
68
Q

What occurs from chronic acid reflux?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus - columnar metaplasia and possibly oesophageal adenocarcinoma

69
Q

When do keratinocytes become corneocytes?

A

They lose their plasma membrane in the granular layer and terminally differentiate into corneocytes.

70
Q

Classify the mammary glands

A

Compound acinar

71
Q

Classify the glands of the small intestine

A

Simple tubular

72
Q

Classify the salivary glands

A

Compound tubuloalveolar

73
Q

Classify the eccrine sweat glands

A

Simple coiled tubular

74
Q

What kind of secretion occurs in salivary glands?

A

Merocrine

75
Q

What do alpha granules of platelets contain?

A

Platelet factors, fibrinogen, thromboglobulin and Von Willebrand factor

76
Q

What do the dense/delta granules of platelets contain?

A

Calcium and ADP

77
Q

What are plicae circulares?

A

Circular folds of mucosa and submucosa that project into the jejunum lumen to increase the surface area for reabsorption.

78
Q

What protein makes up mictotubules?

A

Tubulin

79
Q

What are the 3 ways bacteria can grow?

A

Broth turbidity, colonies and biofilms

80
Q

How do bacteria divide?

A

Binary fission

81
Q

Name some gram positive bacteria

A

Staphylococcus, streptococcus and clostridium

82
Q

Name some gram negative bacteria

A

Neisseria, salmonella, helicobacter, pseudomonas, legionella

83
Q

Where does HIV bind?

A

The CD4 receptor on T lymphocytes

84
Q

What type of virus is a cold?

A

Non-enveloped RNA

85
Q

What type of virus is HIV?

A

Enveloped RNA

86
Q

What happens at an inclusion body?

A

Active viral synthesis

87
Q

At the point of the morula, all cells are…

A

Totipotent

88
Q

In embryology, what is PGD?

A

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis: a cell can be safely removed from the morula and tested for serious heritable conditions.

89
Q

After compaction, the cells are…

A

Pluripotent

90
Q

What is another name for an intention-to-treat analysis?

A

Pragmatic

91
Q

What is another name for as-treated analysis?

A

Explanatory

New Bits (2 decks)

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