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Principals of Nursing > New A&P > Flashcards

New A&P Flashcards

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1
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are body cavities lined with?

A

Serous membrane

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2
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is the function of the serous membrane?

A
  • Allows lubrication for any organs that function alongside each other
  • Protection from trauma or infection

e.g. the lungs can inflate fully without interfering with the heart

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3
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is an ion?

A

When an atom loses or gains an electron to become positively or negatively charged

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4
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 major parts of a cell?

A
  • Nucleus
  • Cell membrane
  • Cytoplasm
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5
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What determines how the cells function?

A

DNA in the nucleus
(Deoxyribonucleic acid)

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6
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the mRNA used for?

A
  • genetic sequencing
  • protein synthesis
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7
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What surrounds the nucleolus?

A

Chromatins- to organise long DNA strands and protein

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8
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What surrounds the nucleus?

A

The nucleus membrane which allows substances in and out

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9
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is DNA made of?

A

Nucleotides which create the double helix structure

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10
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the main functions of the cell membrane?

A
  • Maintain and create the structure of the cell’s cytoplasm
  • Transportation of necessary substances to maintain cell organelle functions.
  • Help to form enzymes - only in some particular cells
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11
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the main functions of the cell membrane?

A
  • Maintain and create the structure of the cell’s cytoplasm
  • Transportation of necessary substances to maintain cell organelle functions.
  • Help to form enzymes - only in some particular cells
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12
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the two key structures of the cell membrane?

A
  • The phospholipid bilayer
  • Plasma membrane proteins (PMPs)
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13
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Describe the molecules in the phospholipid bilayer

A
  • a polar head which is hydrophilic (it mixes with water) face the outside of the cell membrane
  • non-polar fatty acid tails (which are hydrophobic so do not mix with water) face the inside of the cell membrane
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14
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which carbohydrates can you find in the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • Glycolipids (attaches to lipids/ fats)
  • Glycoprotiens (attaches to protiens)
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15
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are integral proteins? (PMP- plasma membrane proteins)

A

Proteins which may extend into both layers of the phospholipid bilayer

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16
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are peripheral proteins? (PMP- plasma membrane proteins)

A

Proteins which are on the inner or outer surface of the phospholipid bilayers but don’t reach the hydrophilic core

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17
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of cholesterol on the phospholipid bilayer?

A

minimises the effects of temperature and fluidity to maintain the structure of the cell

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18
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of integral PMP molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • A protein channel for ions, electrolytes and molecules
  • Forming receptors by binding to carbohydrates
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19
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of peripheral PMP molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Maintaining cell function/ life e.g. enzyme and catalysts

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20
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of channel protein molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

allows passive transport with the concentration gradient

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21
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of a glycoprotein?

A

Used in signalling so that cells can recognise each other

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22
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a cytoplasm?

A

A cytoplasm is a jelly like liquid that fills the inside of the cell

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23
Q

What is the role of lipids in the cytoplasm?

A
  • phospholipids: **maintain the cell membrane **to separate fluid compartments
  • cholesterol: needed for specific hormone synthesis
  • Triglycerides: **the production of ATP (energy) **during respiration.
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24
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of carbohydrates in the cytoplasm?

A

present in case cells require glucose to enter the cells for production of ATP to create energy.

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25
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

links off from the nuclear membrane, and is considered like the factory of the cells

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26
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A
  • Important for protein synthesis and it creates key protein structures

ribosomes on the surface (particles of the RNA)

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27
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum/ its functions?

A
  • metabolism of carbohydrates
  • detoxication of toxins (including drugs)
  • regulation of calcium concentration
  • synthesis of lipids e.g. phospholipids and steroids.
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28
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Golgi Apparatus?

A
  • Helps to concentrate and package substances produced within/ outside the cell
  • surround lysosome enzymes with vesicle and release into the cytoplasm
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29
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the mitochondria?

A

Provide cells with energy to function

  • the powerhouse of the cell
  • involved in the cell cycle / cell growth
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30
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Justify the structure of the mitochondria cell

A
  • Has a unique folding structure to increase the surface area
  • Allows more chemical reactions which produce energy
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31
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Lysosomes?

A
  • Break down large organic molecules within the cell and substances or bacteria that enter cells
  • removal of faulty RNA sequences
  • removing the flaps between a foetus’s fingers and toes before birth.
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32
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Why do lysosomes need to be in vesicles?

A

Can cause cellular destruction

lySOSomes need help !!!

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33
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Peroxisomes?

A
  • responsible for detoxification (specifically hydrogen peroxide)
  • signals the immune system of infection
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34
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Centrosomes?

A

Primarily there to help with cell division
- the centrosomes duplicate and move to each side of a cell during mitosis

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35
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 2 main fluid conmpartments?

A
  • Intracellular fulid (ICF) 40% of body
    fluid inside of the cell, contributing to jelly like substance
  • Extrcelluar fluid (ECT) 20% of body
    fluid outside of the cell
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36
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the functions of bodily fluid?

A
  • Thermoregulation e.g. sweat
  • Lubricating joints/ eyes
  • Transporting oxygen, minerals and micronutrients
  • Removing waste products from the body
  • Shock protection thorugh cerebrospinal fluid
  • Substance production e.g. saliva, tears, amniotic fluid
  • Helps with digestion
  • Haemodynamics: circulating blood
  • Immunity
  • Perfusion: distributing red blood cells
  • Excretion
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37
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 types of extracellular fluid?

A
  • Plasma: circulates around the body and found in intravascular spaces (in blood vessels)
  • Interstitial fluid: fluid around the cells, does not circulate through the body
  • Transcellular fluid: fluid outside of the cell within structures e.g. gastrointestinal fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
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38
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the movement of fluid through fluid compartments called?

A

Fluid shift

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39
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which 3 pressures influence fluid shift?

A
  • Hydrostatic pressure gradients
  • Osmotic pressure gradients
  • Oncotic (Plasma Colloid) pressure gradients
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40
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

the force of fluid that is exerted by either gravity or external force

Imagine a hosepipe, the tap is the external force, and hydrostatic pressure is the force of water pressing against the inside of the hose walls. This gives the water momentum to travel

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41
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is osmotic pressure?

A
  • pressure that is exerted by the fluid itself
  • the force of fluid passing through a semi-permeable membrane can be encouraged by the difference in concentration gradients
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42
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What impact can hypertension have on fluid compartments?

A
  • can impact how fluid shifts in and out of intravascular spaces and interstitial space
  • hypertension can cause increased hydrostatic pressure and lack of proteins can reduce osmotic pressure
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43
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the build up of water in interstitial spaces called?

A

Oedema

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44
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What conditions does simple diffusion depenend on?

A
  • The concentration gradient
  • The size of the surface area of the cell membrane
  • The substance being diffused
  • The size of the molecules
  • The solubility of the molecules being transported
  • The temperature
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45
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is facillitated diffusion?

A

large molecules needs assistance from large proteins to transport them across the selectively permeable membrane
via:
- protein channels that allow small lipid insoluble molecules through
- binding to proteins that activate specific protein carriers in the cell membrane

e.g. glucose with insulin

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46
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does diffusion impact people with diabetes

A
  • Can cause hyperglycaemia:
  • The mitochondria within cells need glucose to produce energy to maintain cell function. If glucose cannot enter the cells, it will increase glucose levels in the blood
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47
Q

Cells & Homeostais

How do solutes impact osmosis?

A

Salt can manipulate the concentration gradient because it will reduce the amount of water in that area

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48
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is haemolysis?

A

the cell swells and ruptures the cell membrane

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49
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How can osmosis cause haemolysis?

A

If a cell is placed in a solution with a low concentration of solute (hypotonic solution), water will be drawn into the cell

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50
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a crenulated cell?

A

when a cell becomes all shrivelled

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51
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is filtration?

A
  • moving solutes from an area of high pressure through a semi-permeable membrane to an area with low pressure.
  • Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by fluid as a result of gravity
  • Occurs in nephrons and medium sized molecules
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52
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is active transpot reliant on?

A

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) splitting into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate (energy)

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53
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is active transpot reliant on?

A

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) splitting into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate (energy)

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54
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are examples of active transport?

A
  • The sodium-potassium pump
  • The calcium pump
  • Sodium-glucose linked cotransporter
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55
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is body tissue?

A

a group of cells that bind together and function as a single unit

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56
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 4 types of body tissue?

A
  • Connective tissue
  • Epithelial tissue
  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
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57
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of nervous tissue?

A

communication
made up of neurons (brain, brain stem, spinal cord & nerves)

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58
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of muscular tissue?

A

Movement
- Allow contration and relaxation to move product through
- Cardiac muscles, skeletal muscles and hollow organ lining

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59
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of epithelial tissue?

A

creating boundries
seperates different enviornemnts e.g. in kindey & lungs

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60
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of connective tissue?

A

Supports, protects, binds
e.g. bones, tendons, fat cells, blood

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61
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is Homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis is a constant process of equilibrium managed by multiple mechanisms in the body

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62
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • a response working to reverse the action & bring the normal parameters back.
  • needs to be stimulated by something that has gone beyond the normal parameters to trigger a response
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63
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 main components of a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • The sensor/ receptor: monitors a specific physiological value
  • The control centre: compares the receptor’s stimulus with the normal parameters. it will trigger an effector if it’s abnormal
  • The effector: the response to reverse the initial stimulus
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64
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a positive feedback mechanism?

A

it will increase and intensify the stimuli

e.g. when someone has a penetrating wound the effector will allow blood loss to reduce cardiac output. The injured vessel wall will trigger factor and inflammatory mediators to intensify the clotting cascade

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65
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is cellular respiration?

A
  • Mitochondria in every living cell uses glucose and oxygen to make ATP, resulting in energy

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
(glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water).

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66
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How is adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced?

A
  • Glycolysis
  • Krebs Cycle
  • The Electron Transport Chain
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66
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How is adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced?

A
  • Glycolysis
  • Krebs Cycle
  • The Electron Transport Chain
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67
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What should core temperature be?

A

36 - 37.4 C

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68
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which receptor detects temperature change?

A

The hypothalamus
- The anterior hypothalamus is stimulated by increases in body temperature.
- The posterior hypothalamus is stimulated by decreases in body temperature.

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69
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 4 methods of heat loss?

A
  • Radiation – loss of heat from surfaces in the form of infra red rays.
  • Conduction – transfer of heat by direct contact with a colder surface.
  • Convection – transfer of heat to the surrounding air (aided by cold air movement).
  • Evaporation – heat loss due to the evaporation of water from the lungs, mouth mucosa, and skin (insensible heat loss)
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70
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 4 methods of heat loss?

A
  • Radiation – loss of heat from surfaces in the form of infra red rays.
  • Conduction – transfer of heat by direct contact with a colder surface.
  • Convection – transfer of heat to the surrounding air (aided by cold air movement).
  • Evaporation – heat loss due to the evaporation of water from the lungs, mouth mucosa, and skin (insensible heat loss)
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71
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the anterior hypothalamus increase heat loss?

A
  • Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels - vasodilation means that the endothelial walls of the blood vessels stretch, making them thinner.
  • Enhanced sweating - allows heat to be lost by evaporation.
  • Behavioural response (lighter clothes) - reduces the layers covering the skin.
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72
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the anterior hypothalamus decrease heat production?

A
  • Decrease metabolic rate - caused by decreasing thyroxine release.
  • Decreased adrenaline secretion - reduces any vasodilation occurring.
  • Decrease muscle tone - reduces the likeliness of shivering.
  • Decrease food appetite - to reduce the amount of glucose consumed to reduce energy production
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73
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus decrease heat loss?

A
  • Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels - reduces surface area and tightens blood vessels to prevent heat escaping.
  • Behavioural response (warm clothes) - to increase layers over the skin to prevent heat loss via convection and radiation.
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74
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus increase heat production?

A
  • Increased metabolic rate - caused by enhanced thyroxine release to encourage cells to produce more energy to generate heat.
  • Increased adrenaline secretion - to trigger vasoconstriction to help maintain core temperature to protect organ function.
  • Increased muscle tone - triggers shivering that helps produce energy.
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75
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is pyrexia?

A
  • the body triggers an increase in temperature to help the immune system to fight off pathogens causing the illness.
  • suppress pathogen growth, making it easier for white blood cells to destroy the pathogens.
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76
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

why are infants more vulnerable to heat loss than older children and adults?

A
  • they have a higher surface area compared to volume
  • have very little insulating fat
  • reduced shivering capabilities
  • immature hypothalamuses
  • higher cardiac output
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77
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the benefits for newborns drinking breastmilk?

A
  • increased concentration of fats to provide energy and brain development
  • low protein concentration to benefit immature kidney function
  • contains a high whey-to-casein ratio allowing easier digestion
  • contains high amounts of mammary amylase to assist digestion of lactose due to lack of amylase in infants
  • contains lactoferrin which allows easier absorption of iron
  • contains a variety of enzymes, growth factors and hormones to aid development and growth
  • contains antibodies to help boost an infant’s immune system
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78
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the benefits for newborns drinking breastmilk?

A
  • increased concentration of fats to provide energy and brain development
  • low protein concentration to benefit immature kidney function
  • contains a high whey-to-casein ratio allowing easier digestion
  • contains high amounts of mammary amylase to assist digestion of lactose due to lack of amylase in infants
  • contains lactoferrin which allows easier absorption of iron
  • contains a variety of enzymes, growth factors and hormones to aid development and growth
  • contains antibodies to help boost an infant’s immune system
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79
Q

Blood

What is Blood?

A

Blood is a viscous substance that provides oxygen and nutrients to the cells, tissue organs and the body systems.

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80
Q

Blood

What are the functions of blood?

A
  • helps eliminate waste product
  • provide oxygen and nutrients to cells, tissue organs and body systems
  • maintain body temperature and blood pH
  • Provide protection against infection
  • Transportation of enzymes and hormones
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81
Q

Blood?

What makes up Blood?

A
  • Plasma
  • Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)
  • Leucocytes (White Blood Cells)
  • Thrombocytes (Platelets)
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82
Q

Blood

What is Plasma?

A
  • 90% water with 10% being solutes.
  • Plasma helps to maintain of body fluids and electrolytes balance
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83
Q

Blood

What inorganic salts can be found in plasma?

A

Inorganic salts:
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Calcium
- Phosphates
- chloride
- Hydrogen Carbonate

This is a solute

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84
Q

Blood

Which protiens can be found in plasma?

A

Proteins:
- Albumin
- Gamma Globulin G

this is a solute

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85
Q

Blood

Which organic substances can be found in plasma?

A

Organic substances:
- Glucose
- Amino Acid
- Fat
- Uric acids
- Urea

this is a solute

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86
Q

Blood

What is albumin?

A
  • 70% of plasma proteins.
  • synthesised in the liver
  • acts as a carrier protein for substances such as lipids and hormone
  • maintain plasma osmotic pressure- pass through blood capillaries from the intravascular spaces to the interstitial spaces.
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87
Q

Blood

What are Globulins?

A
  • There are 3 types, Alpha, Beta and Gamma.
  • Alpha and Beta help transport lipids and fats soluble vitamins around the body, and gamma helps with immunity.
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88
Q

Blood

What is the role of Fibrinogen?

A

Important for blood clotting.

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89
Q

Blood

Where are blood cells formed?

A
  • Blood cells are formed in bone marrow through a process called hemopoiesis.
  • Myeloid tissue is the mixture of fat and blood forming cells is created from a single stem cell.
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90
Q

Blood

What are stem cells?

A
  • Stem cells are unappreciated cells that can form into any type of blood cell.
  • When stem cells are in bone marrow they can mature into either
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91
Q

Blood

What are the functions of stem cells?

A
  • myeloid stem cells help with the production of red blood cells, platelets and majority of white blood cells.
  • lymphoid stem cells, which helps with development of lymphocytes and plasma cells.
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92
Q

Blood

Describe the structure of a red blood cell

A
  • biconcave disc shapes
  • most abundant blood cell
  • no nucleus
    (when red blood cells are immature, they do have a nucleus, and will start to lose the nucleus as they develop)
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93
Q

Blood

What is the function of haemoglobin?

A
  • turns into oxyhaemoglobin to help transport oxygen to the rest of the body
  • forms into carbaminohaemoglobin to carry carbon dioxide.
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94
Q

Blood

What is haemolysis?

A
  • The red blood cell becomed dysfunctional
  • macrophages (White blood cells) remove these cells
  • the red blood cells get broken down in the spleen and the liver
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95
Q

Blood

What are the end products of haemolysis?

A
  • Globin - this protein is then broken down into amino acids for protein synthesis.
  • Iron - stored in muscles and the liver which can then be reused to make more red blood cells in bone marrow.
  • Haem - converted into bilirubin, a toxic substance that is then conjugated by the liver and secreted in bile.
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96
Q

Blood

What is Bilirubin?

A
  • a toxic substance
  • binds to protien to be transported to the liver
  • enzymes in the liver makes it water-soluable (conjugated)
  • Can safely be transported and excreted through the blood stream
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97
Q

Blood

What is Bilirubin?

A
  • a toxic substance
  • binds to protien to be transported to the liver
  • enzymes in the liver makes it water-soluable (conjugated)
  • Can safely be transported and excreted through the blood stream
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98
Q

Blood

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis is the production of red blood cells in response to a negative feedback (tissue needs more oxygen)

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99
Q

Blood

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis is the production of red blood cells in response to a negative feedback (tissue needs more oxygen)

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100
Q

Blood

What is the function of thrombocytes/ platelts?

A
  • form plugs that help repair damaged tissue or blood vessels
  • Start blood clotting (coagulation)
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101
Q

Blood

What is the function of thrombocytes/ platelts?

A
  • form plugs that help repair damaged tissue or blood vessels
  • Start blood clotting (coagulation)
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102
Q

Blood

What is Haemostasis

A

To stop bleeding (haemorhaging)

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103
Q

Blood

What is bruising caused by?

A
  • small blood vessel being damaged
  • Frequent/ hard to heal bruising can be a sign of low platelet
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104
Q

Blood

How do bruises form?

A
  • small blood vessel gets damaged
  • smooth muscle around the blood vessel wall will contract (vasoconstriction)
  • triggered by our sympathetic nervous system
  • prevents blood flow to the injured site and stops further bleeding
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105
Q

Blood

What is Platelet aggregation?

A

a bundle of platelets forming a tight clump to prevent blood loss

The chemicals which ensure that they clump together:
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
Thromboxane
Prostaglandin
Serotonin enzymes
Calcium ions.

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106
Q

Blood

What are fibrin threads?

A
  • proteins that are specialised in the activation of fibrous threads to plug the platelets together to create a clot.

used when the bleeding is too much for platelets

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107
Q

The Reproductive System

Why do boys have an increase in testosterone during puberty?

A

triggered by luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary gland that triggers interstitial cells in the testes to produce testosterone

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108
Q

The Reproducitve System

What does testosterone produciton trigger

A
  • Sperm cell production (Spermatogenesis) - this can lead to seminal discharge (wet dreams), development of seminal vesicles which help produce semen.
  • Testicular and penis growth
  • Axilla and Pubic hair growth
  • Skeletal and Muscle growth - particularly in the shoulders and in height.
  • Changes in Sweat and Sebaceous glands - this makes sweat more odorous, increases risk of developing acne on the skin due to block sebaceous glands.
  • Change in libido - increasing testosterone levels increase sexual though
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109
Q

The Reproductive System

Hormones during female puberty

A
  • the hypothalamus starts releasing luteinizing hormones and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • triggers increasing production of oestrogen, progesterone and androgens.
  • FSH causes maturation of the ovum while luteinizing hormones trigger the cells to produce androgens.
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110
Q

The Reproductive System

What does ‘sexual hormones’ trigger in girls?

A
  • Production of egg cells (Oogenesis)
  • Enlargement of the breasts, vagina and uterus.
  • Triggers the onset of menarche - the first period, will then turn into the menstrual cycle.
  • Skeletal growth and widening of the pelvis - caused by androgens from the adrenal glands.
  • Axilla and pubic hair growth
  • Changes in Sweat and Sebaceous glands - this makes sweat more odorous, increases risk of developing acne on the skin due to block sebaceous glands.
  • Change in libido - increasing levels of hormones which increase sexual thoughts and desire
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111
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the primary responsibilites of the male reproductive system?

A
  • The production and maintenance of sperm.
  • Production of the transport fluid called semen to transport sperm.
  • The discharge of sperm during sexual intercourse.
  • Production and secretion of male specific reproductive hormones.
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112
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the male reproductive system include?

A
  • The Testes and Scrotum
  • The Male Duct System
  • The Prostate Gland
  • The Penis
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113
Q

The Reproductive System

What is an acrosome?

A

a pocket of enzymes used to help with penetration of the egg cell

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114
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the sperm head contain?

A

the cell’s nucleus which has chromosomes essential for the creation of a foetus

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115
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the sperm head contain?

A

the cell’s nucleus which has chromosomes essential for the creation of a foetus

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116
Q

The Reproductive System

Why does the neck of the sperm cell contain a high number of mitochondria?

A

provides the sperm cell with energy whilst trying to locate an egg cell after ejaculation from the penis

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117
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Spermatogenesis?

A
  • The production of sperm
  • a healthy individual can produce around 100 million sperm a day
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118
Q

The Reproductive System

Talk through the process of spermatogenisis

A
  • starts with a sperm stem cell going through mitosis to form** primary spermatocytes**.
  • Primary spermatocytes at this point will have 46 chromosomes.
  • cell division then continues through meoisis, to create secondary spermatocytes.
  • The genetic material will not be identical in each secondary spermatocytes, and will contain 23 chromosomes, increasing the variability of what genes are passed on to an offspring.
  • Further **meiosis **will then produce spermatids, which will also contain 23 chromosomes.
  • Within the seminiferous tubules in the testes, a **spermatid will mature into a sperm cell **over 65-75 days.
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119
Q

The Reproductive System

Which system is the penis part of?

A
  • the genitourinary tract
  • encompasses the male reproductive system and urinary system, as both sperm and urine pass out of the male urethra.
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120
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the glans penis?

A
  • an attached root that connects the shaft and tip of the penis
  • covered with a layer of skin called foreskin which provides protection to the sensitive glans penis whilst the penis is flaccid
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121
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Inside the penis shaft?

A

a spongy network of connective tissue and blood vessels, called erectile tissue

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122
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens when the penis is sexually excited by parasympathetic neural stimuli?

A
  • encouraged by hormonal changes, the blood vessels fill with blood which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.
  • This provides sperm more opportunity to be ejaculated nearer to the female ova.
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123
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Erectile dysfunction?

A
  • a condition where where either someone cannot maintain an erection that is deemed sufficient for satisfactory sexual intercourse, or they struggle to get hard enough for sexual intercourse
  • the penis is a highly vascular structure, meaning that even small changes can make a big difference to circulation to the penis
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124
Q

The Reproductive System

What are The testes?

A

the place where sperm is produced, here is often a pair of testes contained within a scrotal sac

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125
Q

The Reproductive System

Why do the testes hang outside the body?

A
  • the sperm need to be maintained at 3C (lower than the core body temperature)
  • This increases the life and production of sperm.
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126
Q

The Reproductive System

Describe the structure of the testes

A
  • split into about 250 wedge-shaped lobules that consist of four tightly coiled seminiferous tubules.
  • Within these tubules is where you will find spermatogenic cells.
  • Leydig cells sit within the spaces between the tubules and produce testosterone.
  • Each lobule connect to a straight tubule called the rete testis, which connects to the efferent tubules and epididymis.
  • The epididymis connects to the vas deferens which will then run upwards out of the testes towards the seminal vesicle and prostate.
  • Layers of smooth muscle contract to help squeeze sperm and fluids through the tubules and out of the testes.
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127
Q

The Reprodctive System

What is the cremasteric reflex?

A

The scrotal sac has the ability to either pull the testes closer to the pelvic floor in response to cold environments, or become loose in response to warm environments.

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128
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the epididymis?

A
  • a comma shaped duct that is coiled
  • it is made up of cilia, epithelial tissue and smooth muscle
  • the sperm can sit within ithe epididymis to further mature and become ready for fertalisation
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129
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the male duct system?

A

A system which starts from the epididymis to the urethra where semen with sperm is ejactulated

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130
Q

The Reproductive System

How are sperm cells transported to the ejaculatory ducts?

A
  • Smooth muscle contractions generate peristalic action which moves sperm from the epididymis inot the vas deferens
  • once they reach the ejactulatory ducts they enter the prostate gland before being discharged into the urethra
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131
Q

The Reproductive System

How are sperm cells transported to the ejaculatory ducts?

A
  • Smooth muscle contractions generate peristalic action which moves sperm from the epididymis inot the vas deferens
  • once they reach the ejactulatory ducts they enter the prostate gland before being discharged into the urethra
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132
Q

The Reproductive System

How are sperm cells transported to the ejaculatory ducts?

A
  • Smooth muscle contractions generate peristalic action which moves sperm from the epididymis inot the vas deferens
  • once they reach the ejactulatory ducts they enter the prostate gland before being discharged into the urethra
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133
Q

The Reproductive System

Where is the prostate gland located/ responsible for?

A
  • located inferior to the bladder
  • responsible for secreting prostatic fluid into the prastatic urethra to produce semen
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134
Q

The Reproductive System

Where is semen produced?

A
  • Semen is produced by the seminal vesicle which sits near the prostate
  • it is designed to maintain and activate sperm during ejaculation
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135
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the function prostatic fluid?

A
  • makes semen slightly alkaline to combat the acidity of the vaginal tract to help maintain the life of sperm.
  • neutralises the urethra in the penis which would have been exposed to acidic urine.
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136
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the female reproductive system is made up of?

A
  • The Ovaries
  • Fallopian tubes
  • The Uterus
  • The Vagina
  • The External Genitalia
  • The Breasts
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137
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the primary responsibilities of the female reproduction system?

A
  • The production, development of a foetus after impregnation via sexual intercourse or artificial insemination.
  • Production of milk to nourish a newly born baby.
  • Maintaining a monthly cycle to prepare the uterus to receive a fertilised egg - the menstrual cycle.
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138
Q

The Reporductive System

Define Oocytes

A

the female gamete germ cells

basically immature egg cells

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139
Q

The Reproductive System

Define Follicles

A

protective structure formed in the ovaries that allow oocytes to develop and mature

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140
Q

The Reproductive System

Define Follicles

A

protective structure formed in the ovaries that allow oocytes to develop and mature

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141
Q

The Reproductive System

Define Follicles

A

protective structure formed in the ovaries that allow oocytes to develop and mature

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142
Q

The Reproductive System

How do oogonia multiply?

A
  • mitosis: and can reach up to 2 to 4 million oogonia.
  • A certain amount of oogonia will then form into primary oocytes
  • as a result of starting meiosis phase 1.
  • Any oogonia that has not started meiosis will degenerate.
  • These primary oocytes then develop primary follicles to develop in.
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143
Q

The Reporductive System

What are Primary follicles are made up of?

A

a single layer of granulosa cells

single layer cause it one granule

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144
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

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145
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

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146
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

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147
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

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148
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

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149
Q

The Reproductive System

What triggers the start of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • LH (leutenising hormones)
  • FSH (follicile stimulating hormones)
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150
Q

The Reproductive System

What triggers the start of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • LH (leutenising hormones)
  • FSH (follicile stimulating hormones)
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151
Q

The Reproductive System

What triggers the start of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • LH (leutenising hormones)
  • FSH (follicile stimulating hormones)
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152
Q

The Reproductive System

How do primary follicles develop into secondary follicles?

A

more layers of granulosa cells form

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153
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A
  • the production and secretion of oestrogen and progesterone
  • allowing follicles to develop ready for ovulation.
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154
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during ovulation?

A
  • an immature egg cell is released,
  • the remaining follicle becomes a** corpus luteum. **
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155
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the corpus luteum?

A
  • the maintenance of the uterus lining during the menstrual cycle- it secretes oestrogen and progesterone.
  • If the egg cell is not fertilised, the corpus luteum shrinks and oestrogen and progesterone levels reduce, resulting in the endometrium breaking down, resulting in a period.
  • If fertilisation occurs, then the corpus luteum is maintained.
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156
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the fallopian tube?

A
  • contains layers smooth muscle, ciliated and non-ciliated cells and thick mucosa.
  • allows the egg cell to be nourished in mucous secretions produced by non-ciliated cells
  • allow the egg cell to travel down the fallopian tube assisted by the ciliated cells and smooth muscle peristaltic action towards the uterus.
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157
Q

The Reproductive System

How are ovarian cyts formed?

A

when the corpus luteum can continue to persist despite normal ovulation

158
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the cervix?

A
  • provide a pathway for sperm to reach the unfertilised egg
  • the production of cervical mucous the consistency varies during the menstrual cycle:
    1. It is thin and serous to allow sperm through during the most fertile period of the menstrual cycle.
    2. At other times the mucous will thicken to prevent sperm from entering the uterus.
  • acts as a protective barrier against pathogens entering the uterus during a developing pregnancy
  • forms a tight seal know as a cervical mucous plug to prevent amniotic fluid from leaking out of the uterus.
159
Q

The Reproductive System

How do oral contraceptive pills work?

A
  • thickens the cervical mucous which prevents sperm from entering the uterus
  • inhibiting hormones to prevent ovulation to occur
160
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the different layers of the uterus?

A
  • The outer layer is the perimetrium which lines alongside the peritoneum.
  • The middle layer is called the myometrium which is the muscular wall of the uterus- allows contractions to happen during menstruation and childbirth.
  • The inner lining is the endometrium which is a specialist epithelial layer that adapts during the menstrual cycle.
161
Q

The Reproductive System

What is endometriosis?

A

Tissue similar to the endometrium can sometimes grow in other places such as the fallopian tubes and ovaries.
Symptoms include:
Period pain that would stop you performing day to day tasks
Pain when passing urine or opening bowels.
Having difficulty getting pregnant.
Lower tummy or back pain.
Heavier periods
Pain during or after sexual intercourse.

162
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the vagina?

A
  • a thin-walled fibromuscular structure
  • acts as the passageway for the delivery of a baby during labour
  • acts as a canal for menstrual flow.
163
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the three layers of the vagina?

A
  • A** smooth muscle muscularis** that provides structure and support of the vagina.
  • An** outer fibroelastic adventitia layer **that acts as connective tissue layer for further support and slightly elasticity.
  • The** inner mucosa layer **which consist of transverse ridges that help stimulate the penis during intercourse to encourage ejaculation.
164
Q

The Reproductive System

Why is semen slighly alkaline?

A
  • Increase the chances of fertilising the ovulated egg
  • The vagina environment is normally acidic to help protect it from pathogens, but it can also be effective against sperm.
165
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the key structures of the vulva?

A
  • **The Mons Pubis **- a fatty area that is covered with pubic hair that develops from puberty.
  • **The Labia Majora and Labia Minora **- these are two skin folds that protect the opening of the urethra and vagina. The Labia Majora is the outer layer which can also be covered with pubic hair.
  • **The Clitoris **- Located anterior of the labia minora, this highly vascular and sensory area can become swollen and sensitive when stimulated during sexual activity. It is protected by inner folds of the vulva that form a hood of skin called the clitoral hood.
166
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the breasts (mammary glands)?

A

providing nourishment for a newborn baby in the form of milk

167
Q

The Reproductive System

How is milk is produced in the lobes of the breast?

A
  • one breast can contain 15-25 lobes.
  • Within each lobe are lobules that contain alveoli that help produce milk.
  • Prolactin is the hormone that controls the production of milk in the breasts.
  • Milk travels from the alveoli into the nipples via ducts called laciferous ducts.
168
Q

The Reproductive System

How are the mammary glands (breasts) protected?

A
  • adipose tissue and connective tissue that attaches to the muscle facia to provide the breasts with structure and support during daily living.
  • the areola which is a ring-shaped pigmented skin covering that contains glands (around the nipple) produce sebum to prevent the skin around the nipples drying and cracking.
169
Q

The Reproductive System

What are all the stages of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • The Menstrual Phase (day 1-5)
  • The Follicular Phase (day 1-13)
  • The Ovulation phase (day 14)
  • The Luteal phase (day 15-28)
170
Q

The Reproductive System

What hapens during The Menstrual Phase (day 1-5)?

A
  • the inner lining of the uterus sheds which contains soft tissue and blood vessels in the form of menstrual fluid
  • Blood loss and abdominal cramps occur due to contraction of the uterine and abdominal muscles to excrete the menstrual fluid.
171
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Follicular Phase (day 1-13)?

A
  • Starts on the first day of the menstrual cycle
  • starts with the pituitary gland secreting follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in response to low levels of oestrogen and progesterone.
  • This stimulate egg cells to grow in the ovaries and the uterus to develop a lining of blood vessels and soft tissue called the endometrium.
  • An egg cell will then mature into a follicle which can take up to 13 days.
172
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Ovulation phase (day 14)?

A
  • Release of luteinizing hormones in response to a peak level of oestrogen
  • stimulates the release of the most mature egg cell, or in some cases egg cells, from the ovary.
  • The egg cell is helped along by cilia of the fimbriae found in the fallopian tubes.
173
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Luteal phase (day 15-28)?

A
  • the egg cell stays in the fallopian tube for 24 hours waiting for sperm cells to impregnate it.
  • If sperm cells do not impregnate the egg cells within the 24 hours, the egg cell will disintegrate.
  • The egg cell will leave behind it’s shell called the corpus luteum, which triggers progesterone release.
  • Progesterone will maintain the endometrium until it runs out, which will subsequently coincide with a drop in oestrogen levels.
174
Q

The Endocrine System

What are endocrine glands?

A
  • glands that are stimulated by neural pathways, and release hormones when needed for a particular body function.
  • can also be triggered by other hormones and chemical receptors in the blood.
175
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the endocrine system responsible for?

A
  • Growth and development
  • Stress responses
  • Sexual development and arousal
  • Glucose and mineral regulation
  • Control of weight
  • Emotional regulation
  • Responding to changes in environmental factors, e.g. temperature changes, dehydration etc.
176
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the endocrine system responsible for?

A
  • Growth and development
  • Stress responses
  • Sexual development and arousal
  • Glucose and mineral regulation
  • Control of weight
  • Emotional regulation
  • Responding to changes in environmental factors, e.g. temperature changes, dehydration etc.
177
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the two types of hormones?

A

water-soluble and lipid-soluble hormones

178
Q

The Endocrine System

What are water-soluble hormones?

A
  • soluble in water
  • can be easily transported in the bloodstream without the need of a plasma protein.
  • require receptors on cell membrane to trigger reactions within the cytoplasm, mostly enzyme related reactions.
  • can either change the permeability of the cell membrane or trigger the activation of other molecules within the cell.
179
Q

The Endocrine System

What are lipid-soluble hormones?

A
  • able to pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane and bind to receptors inside the cell nucleus.
  • Examples include thyroid and steroid hormones which can directly control the function of the cells to produce more proteins via transcription.
  • helps with growth and maintaining body function.
  • require transportation from plasma proteins
180
Q

The Endocrine System

What conditions cause hormones to be stimulated?

A
  • Environmental factors such as stress, temperature changes and physical activity
  • The presence of stimulating (tropic) hormones-often released to trigger further release of another hormone from another gland.
  • Changes in internal factors in the body, such as electrolyte levels, blood pressure, blood glucose etc.
  • Positive-feedback homeostatic mechanisms which require further hormonal regulation - such as contractions during childbirth.
181
Q

The Endocrine System

What conditions cause hormones to be inhibited?

A
  • When environmental factors changes
  • The presence of inhibitory hormones that can either interfere with receptors or trigger over glands
  • When internal homeostasis is stabilising back to normal range.
  • Negative-feedback homeostatic mechanisms which identifies a high level of hormones being produced
182
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the hypothalamus and pituitary glands responsible for?

A

functions such as:
* growth
* control of hunger and thirst
* thermoregulation
* sexual development
* regulation of stress defences.

183
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the hypothalamus and pituitary glands responsible for?

A

functions such as:
* growth
* control of hunger and thirst
* thermoregulation
* sexual development
* regulation of stress defences.

184
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the hypothalamus and pituitary glands responsible for?

A

functions such as:
* growth
* control of hunger and thirst
* thermoregulation
* sexual development
* regulation of stress defences.

185
Q

The Endocrine System

Where does the hypothalamus send hormones?

A
  • the anterior pituitary gland (releases hormones depending on stimulation from the hypothalamus)
  • the prosterior pituitary gland (store and release hormones depending on the body’s needs)
186
Q

The Endocrine System

Where does the hypothalamus send hormones?

A
  • the anterior pituitary gland (releases hormones depending on stimulation from the hypothalamus)
  • the prosterior pituitary gland (store and release hormones depending on the body’s needs)
187
Q

The Endocrine System

Where does the hypothalamus send hormones?

A
  • the anterior pituitary gland (releases hormones depending on stimulation from the hypothalamus)
  • the prosterior pituitary gland (store and release hormones depending on the body’s needs)
188
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A
  • produce the hormone melatonin
  • regulation and control of circadian rhythms and inducement of drowsiness
189
Q

The Endocrine System

How do photoreceptors impact the pieneal gland?

A
  • Photoreceptors in the retina when stimulated by sunlight inhibit the production of melatonin
  • The pineal gland is active during low-light and darkness, which is why we get drowsy and feel tired during evenings
190
Q

The Endocrine System

Which hormones are produced by the thyroid gland?

A
  • **Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3) **- these regulate metabolism, stimulates body oxygen and energy consumption, influences the activity of the nervous system and promotes protein synthesis. Produces metabolic rates and energy usage in the body.
  • Calcitonin - this is released in response to increasing calcium ions in the bloodstream. It promotes reabsorption of calcium into the matrix of the bones.
191
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the thymus responisible for?

A

responsible for the differentiation of primitive leukocytes and maturation of T-cells as part of the immune system.

192
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the 2 structures in the adrenal galnd?

A
  • The adrenal cortex is the outer layer and this part produces cortical hormones - glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens.
  • **The adrenal medulla **produces the hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline if stimulated by sympathetic neural channels of the autonomic nervous system
193
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of the adrenaline and noradrenaline hormones?

A
  • the fight or flight response
  • boosting oxygen and glucose supply to the brain and muscles by increasing heart rate and stroke volume
  • Reduces blood flow to organs and structures not needed in emergencies
194
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the functions of Gonadocorticoids?

A

Masculinization in both male and females

195
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the functions of the Glucocorticoid hormones?

A
  • Stimulates gluconeogenesis and fat breakdown in adipose tissue,
  • increasing glucose availability in the blood.
  • It also promotes metabolism and inhibits inflammation and immunological responses to protect the body against stress.
  • Inhibits protein synthesis and glucose uptake in muscles and adipose tissue.
196
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of Mineralocorticoids hormones?

A
  • Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the kidneys which helps increase sodium and water levels in the blood
  • Stimulates secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions
197
Q

The Endocrine System

What are Alpha Cells responsible for in the pancreas?

A
  • responsible for the release of the hormone glycogon in response to falling blood glucose levels.
  • It triggers liver and muscle cells to breakdown glycogen into glucose and release this into the bloodstream.
  • This increases the blood glucose levels.
198
Q

The Endocrine System

What are Beta cells responsible for in the pancreas?

A
  • Beta cells - these cells are responsible for the release of insulin in response to higher blood glucose levels.
  • Insulin encourages cells to absorb free glucose from the blood where it can be stored or used for respiration.
  • This reduces the blood glucose levels.
199
Q

The Endocrine System

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

results from the body’s failure to produce insulin in response to high blood glucose levels.

200
Q

The Endocrine System

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

results from the body’s failure to produce insulin in response to high blood glucose levels.

201
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the integumentary system?

A

provides protection from trauma, pathogens, radiation, heat, chemicals etc.

202
Q

The Integumentary System

What does the integumentary system include?

A
  • The Skin
  • Our Hair
  • Our Nails
  • Sweat glands
  • Oil glands (Sebaceous glands)
203
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the functions of the skin?

A
  • A potective barrier- shield you from environmental factors, such as excessive sunlight, infections, abrasions
  • **Sense- **has structures called receptors (cutaneous sensory receptors), they receive stimuli from the outside environment and send messages to brains.
  • **Storage of blood - **about 5% of your entire blood volume is retained in your skin at any given time
  • Regulation of body temperature
  • Vitamin D- The skin cells contain molecule that coverts to vitamin D when it comes into contact UV light. Vitamin D is vital for the production of bone cells.
  • Excretion of waste – a small amount of waste is eliminated via sweat.
204
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the different layers of the skin?

A
  • The Epidermis
  • The Dermis
  • The Hypodermis
205
Q

The Integumentary System

What is melanin produced from and what is it’s functions?

A
  • melanocytes
  • to protect the skin from sun exposure
206
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should a Intramuscular injection be?

A

90 Degrees

207
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should a subcutaneous injection be?

A

45 Degrees

208
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should an Intravenous injection be?

A

25 Degrees

209
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should an Intradermal injection be?

A

10-15 Degrees

210
Q

The Integumentary System

How does the skin function as a physical barrier?

A
  • a continual barrier against the environment is paramount to protect the internal structures of the body.
  • maintain a waterproof and strong surface that can reduce harm
  • designed to let substances in, for example it will allow oxygen, carbon dioxide, fat-soluble vitamins and steroids
211
Q

The Integumentary System

How does the skin function as a chemical barrier?

A
  • maintain a pH of 5.5 thanks to flora such as bacteria and fungi that live on the skin.
  • pH is a result of pathogens metabolising fatty acids and sebum on the surface of the skin.
212
Q

The Integumentary System

How does the skin function as a biological barrier?

A
  • immune protection from pathogens that could enter the skin.
  • The epidermis contains dendritic cells whilst the dermis contains macrophages that act as a second line of defence against pathogens that have managed to get through the epidermis.
213
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the epidermis made up of?

A
  • dead cells
  • constantly regenerate to ensure that it is providing the best barrier against external factors
214
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Keratinocytes cells in the epidermis?

A
  • occupies about 95% of the epidermis
  • produce a fibrous protein called keratin which is used to maintain the protective integrity of the skin
  • undergo mitosis to help regenerate
215
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Langerhan (dendritic) cells in the epidermis?

A
  • form part of the immune system
  • responds to external antigens that affect the skin
  • regulate production of antibodies that trigger macrophages to move in and destroy foreign pathogens.
  • UV light can damage these cells
216
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Melanocytes cells in the epidermis?

A
  • produces melanin which is a brown pigment
  • designed to protect the skin from sun exposure
  • When melanin is produced, it is transferred to the keratinocytes.
217
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Merkel cells in the epidermis?

A
  • in contact with sensory neurones
  • act as mechanoreceptors to help with the sensation of touch.
218
Q

The Integumentary System

How does The Stratum Corneum impact the epidermis?

A
  • contains 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes
  • also contains keratin that provides a waterproof layer for the skin
219
Q

The Integumentary System

What causes sunburn?

A
  • UVB rays penetrate the epidermis
  • Long term or multiple exposure can cause skin cancer to develop
220
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Lucidum cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • A thin layer of 2-3 rows of dead flat keratinocytes
  • reduce any fluid loss through the skin.
  • only found in areas that require particular protection e.g. the soles of the feet / the palms of the hands
221
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Granulosum cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • contains keratinocytes that are very close to dying due to losing their nuclei
  • start to flatten and as they disintegrate, they release granules that provide a water resistant lipid called lamellar granules
  • it is particularly important to slow down water loss across the epidermis and prevent entry of pathogens.
222
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Spinosum (prickle) cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • they develop spines on the surface which encourages the cells to pack together tightly.
  • responsible for providing integrity, flexibility and strength to the skin.
223
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Basale cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • the deepest layer of the epidermis
  • where new keratinocytes are regenerated through mitosis
  • produce daughter cells which push cells above it upwards which causes this constant regeneration of the epidermis
  • a basement membrane which has high amounts of collagen that provides structural support for the epidermis
  • regulates the entry of cells and nutrients from the dermis to the epidermis.
224
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the dermis?

A
  • provide support and nutrients to the epidermis.
  • collagen, elastin and fibrous protein, holding within it major structures that contribute to maintaining skin health
225
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the 2 layers of the dermis?

A
  • the papillary dermis (layer)
  • the reticular dermis (layer)
226
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the papillary dermis?

A
  • The split between the epidermis and dermis
  • can be seen by a wave like connective tissue layer.
  • made up of a combination of collagen (to provide strength) and elastic fibres (to provide stretch and recoil ability).
  • White blood cells such as phagocytes can also be found in high numbers within small blood vessels to provide additional protection against pathogens.
    *
227
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the reticular dermis layer?

A
  • accounts to about 80% of the dermis.
  • contains thick bundles of collagen which help provide the skin the strength
  • protects us from external damage
  • elastic fibres within the reticular layer that helps provide the skin with it’s recoil ability, the ability to regain it’s shape after stretching.
  • age and UV radiation exposure from the sun can degenerate the elastin fibres.
228
Q

The Integumentary System

What are your nails made of?

A

a tough polymer structure called alpha-keratin.

229
Q

The Integumentary System

What do the appendages include?

A
  • the glands
  • nails
  • hair follicles
  • hair
230
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of nails?

A
  • provide protection to the fingertips,
  • assist with picking up objects or manipulating objects to make them easier to open
231
Q

The Integumentary System

Which part of the nail produces new nail cells?

A

the lunula

We can see the nail matrix as the white patch near the bottom of the nail

232
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the seal that protects the nail called?

A
  • the eponychiam and cuticle
  • the paronychium (the sides of the nails)
233
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the nail plate covered in?

A

nerve tissue

234
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the layer underneath the free edge of your nails called?

A

the hyponychium, which forms a seal to protect the nail bed from external factors

235
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of hair?

A

hair is designed to protect us from heat loss

236
Q

The Integumentary System

What is hair made up of?

A
  • columns of dead keratinized epithelial cells
  • bound together by extracellular protein.
  • A single hair consists of the hair follicle
237
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the papilla?

A
  • The bulb which protects the hair
  • contains capillaries that nourish cells in the hair follicle with oxygen and nutrients.
  • surrounded by hair matrix which generates keratin to pushes forward older keratin cells (hair growth)
238
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the arrector pili muscle?

A

Muscle that causes the hair shaft (the part of the hair follicle that protrudes through the skin) to become erect when triggered by sympathetic neural stimul

239
Q

The Integumentary System

How do the sebaceous glands impact hair?

A
  • Releases sebum that prevents the hair shaft from drying out and becoming brittle
  • reduces the amount of water lost via evaporation, to help with heat loss management.
240
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the three stages of hair growth?

A

The Anagen phase
- where the most active growing of hair happens. The hair matrix divides which leads to the growth of the hair
- allows the hair to grow 0.5-1cm every 28 days depending on the type of hair follicles we have genetically inherited.
- can last up to 4-8 years.
- plucking or waxing hair can impact growth of hair.
**
The Catagen phase**
- hair has a regression phase, signalling the end of active growth of hair.
- turns into club hair and this phase can last up to 3 weeks.
- A bulb of keratin forms at the bulb of the hair which cuts off blood supply from the cells that produce new hair to the hair shaft.
- Simultaneously, new hair will start to grow underneath.

**The Telogen phase **
- often referred to as the resting phase.
- where hair falls out or shreds, allowing for new hair to grow in its place.
- Factors such as stress, poor diet and lack of nutrients can trigger a delayed telogen phase which causes more hair to fall out.

241
Q

The Integumentary System

Where do you not find Eccrine (sweat glands)?

A

the ear canals, nail beds and labia

242
Q

The Integumentary System

Where are Apocrine glands found?

A

under the arm pits (axilla), groin, ear canal, eye lids and around the nipples on breasts.

243
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the functions of apocrine glands?

A
  • sweat glands that lie deeper in the skin than eccrine glands.
  • produce an odourless lipid substance that when in contact with bacteria will omit an odour (body odour-the body’s cue to wash the skin and maintain hygiene)
244
Q

The Integumentary System

What are Ceruminous glands?

A
  • modified apocrine glands that are found in the lining of the external ear
  • produce cerumen (or ear wax) that provides a protective but sticky layer to prevent any pathogens entering the ear canal
245
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the 2 two blood vessel networks in th subcutaneous layer?

A
  • The Superficial Vascular Plexus
  • The Deep Vascular Plexus
246
Q

The Integumentary System

What is The superficial vascular plexus?

A
  • a network of interconnecting arterioles and venules that can split off to capillary loops within the dermal ridges.
  • help supply oxygen and nutrients to the epidermis and dermis.
247
Q

The Integumentary System

What is The deep vascular plexus?

A

a network of interconnecting arterioles and venules that splits off to capillaries around the subcutaneous tissue layer, and other key structures within the dermis such as the glands and hair follicles

248
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the subcutaneous layer made of?

A
  • adipose (a loose connective tissue)
  • It contains cells called adipocytes that help to store triglycerides.
249
Q

Genetics

What are genes?

A

Genes are sections of DNA that are carried within chromosomes.

250
Q

Genetics

What is DNA made up of?

A

DNA is made up of macro-molecules called nucleotides

251
Q

Genetics

Describe the structure of nucleotides

A

structures that contain deoxyribose (a sugar molecule), phosphate and base

252
Q

Genetics

What are the bases that determine the genetic code?

A

A - Adenine
T - Thymine
G - Guanine
C - Cytosine

253
Q

Genetics

How is the sugar phosphate backbone formed?

A
  • The deoxyribose and phosphate part of a nucleotide, bind to other deoxyribose and phosphate parts
  • the bases join via hydrogen bonds to create a ladder like structure
254
Q

Genetics

How many chromosomes are in each cell?

A

every cell that contains a nucleus will have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

255
Q

Genetics

How are chromatin formed?

A
  • DNA strands join together to create the double helix- creating nucleic acid
  • This combines with special proteins called histones- creating chromatin
  • The chromatin fibre folds in on each other, as well as loop around each other to try and save as much space as it can
256
Q

Genetics

What are the functions of the chromosomes?

A
  • 22 of the chromosomes are called autosomes- help determine physical/body characteristics
  • the 23rd pair determines gender.
    *
257
Q

Genetics

Which chromosomes determine the gender?

A

If the 23rd pair is:
XX- Female (homogenous)
XY- Male (heterogenous)

258
Q

Genetics

What are genomes?

A

All 23 pairs of chromosomes- the entire genetic material

259
Q

Genetics

What is a locus?

A

The location of specific genes within chromosomes

260
Q

Genetics

What is a phenotype?

A

The presentation of characteristics based on the genetic structure of DNA

261
Q

Genetics

What are the 2 types of cell division?

A

Mitosis: the reproduction of individual cells to create identical copies with exactly the same genetic material

Meiosis: centred around the creation of whole organisms, so the development of a foetus for example.

262
Q

Genetics

What are the 6 stages of Mitosis?

A
  1. Interphase (DNA becomes visible)
  2. Prophase (Spindle Fibres appear)
  3. Metaphase (Moves into middle)
  4. Anaphase (moves Away into poles)
  5. Telophase (Nuclear envelopes form)
  6. Cytokinesis (the litteral split)

(I Pee Myself After Tequila)

263
Q

Genetics

Summarise Mendel’s law of inheritance

A

an offspring has a 3 out of 4 chancing of inheriting a dominant genotype

264
Q

Genetics

What is Autosomal dominant inheritance?

A

conditions that will present themselves if a child carries a dominant gene.

e.g. Huntington’s disease

265
Q

Genetics

What is Autosomal recessive inheritance?

A
  • occurs if an offspring carries two recessive mutant genes.
  • If only one parent carries the defected gene, then the child will not get the condition, but could be a carrier of the gene.

e.g. cystic fibrosis

266
Q

Genetics

What is an allele?

A

When the paternally (father) inherited chromosome has the same loci sequence as the maternally (mother) inherited chromosome.

267
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the Upper Respiratory Tract made up of?

A
  • Nasal Cavity
  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
268
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the Lower Respiratory Tract made up of?

A
  • Trachea
  • Primary Bronchi
  • Lungs
  • Diaphram
269
Q

The Respiratory System

What does the nose detect?

A

Olfactory stimuli (smells)

270
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the nose?

A

To warm, filter and humidify air that passes through

271
Q

The Respiratory System

What material is the nose made of?

A

Hyaline cartilage- the most rigid in the body

Lined with Cilia lines mucous membrane- these filter particles and produces nares membranes

272
Q

The Respiratory System

Why is the nose likely to have nose bleeds?

A

The septum has lots of small blood vessels which are vulnerable to damage

273
Q

The Respiratory System

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

Hollow spaces in the head which lightens the head to help balance

274
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the purpose of paranasal sinuses?

A

Warms and humidifies the air breathes, so that the airways don’t get dried out

275
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the three parts of the pharynx?

A
  • Oropharynx
  • Nasopharynx
  • Lasryngopharynx
276
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Laryngopharynx?

A

Opens the oesophagus and the layrnx

277
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Oropharynx?

A
  • Responsible for getting air to the larynx
  • Responsible for not letting food to the oesophagus
  • The tonsils in the oropharynx fight infection
  • Also contains the palatine and lingual tonsils
278
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Nasopharynx?

A
  • Moving trapped particles from mucous (through coughing)
  • Keep the pharynx and middle ear pressure equal ( for balance)
  • Adenoids- pharyngeal tonsils which become inflamed when infected
279
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the pharynx?

A

a muscular structure that connects the mouth to both the oesophagus to aid digestion, and the larynx to aid respiration
(the throat)

280
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the layrnx made up of?

A
  • The epiglottis
  • the thyroid cartilage
  • the cricoid cartilage
281
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the layrnx?

A
  • our vocal ability
  • helping us with airway clearance through coughing and sneezing.
282
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the epiglottis ?

A
  • a cartilage flap that is found behind the tongue, and in front of the larynx
  • to protect the trachea from inhaling food and drink
283
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the glottis?

A
  • a pair of mucous membranes called vocal folds
  • detect for foreign particles and triggers a cough
284
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the three stages of a cough?

A
  • *afferent neurones *triggers the three phases of a cough
  • The inspiration phase: diaphragm and muscles around the lungs force inhalation of air.
  • *The compressive phase: *the glottis shuts suddenly before the air is exhaled out of the lungs, increasing thoracic pressure.
  • The expulsive phase: where the glottis suddenly opens and air rapidly escapes from the lungs and through the mouth.
285
Q

The Respiratory System

What type of cartilidge covers the layrnx?

A
  • hyaline cartilage
  • provide movement and cushioning between joints and other structures
286
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the thyroid cartilage

A
  • a large structure of hyaline cartilage that covers the front of the larynx.
  • Support other cartilage structures and muscles
  • Support and protect the vocal cords, as well as provide modulation control of your voice.
287
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the cricoid cartilage

A
  • a ring of hyaline cartilage that is attached to the trachea at the inferior end of the larynx.
  • to support vocal ability and also plays a role in supporting the epiglottis
288
Q

The Respiratory System

How are the lobes in the lungs distributed?

A
  • The right lung has three lobes
  • The left lobe only has two lobes.
  • The left side has to compensate for where the heart lies (has cardiac notch)
289
Q

The Respiratory System

What seperates each lobe in the lung?

A
  • Pulomonary Fissures
  • lined with a costal surface, which is deliberately rounded to compensate for the structure of the ribs
290
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the hilum?

A
  • where the bronchus, pulmonary vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels enter each lung.
  • the hilum sits in the superior mediastinum.
291
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the airway structure made up of?

A

layers of:
- mucosa
- submucosa
- hyaline cartilage
- areolar connective tissue (adventitia).

supported by:
- smooth muscle fibres
- elastic connective tissue (to prevent airways from collapsing inwards)

292
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the mucosa?

A
  • mucosa is responsible for maintaining the warm and moist environment.
  • maintained by epithelial and connective tissue
293
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of ciliated columnar epithelial cells?

A
  • move mucus towards the pharynx in preparation for airway clearance via a cough or sneeze
  • muscociliary escalator
294
Q

The Respiratory System

What are Goblet cells?

A
  • specialist cells that synthesise specialist protein called mucin
  • can be found through-out the trachea, bronchus and bronchioles
  • help to maintain the mucous membrane to provide protection from infections and damage to the airway linings
295
Q

The Respiratory System

Where is mucin released?

A

on to the surface of the airway via merocrine secretion

Mucin then reacts with water vapour and inorganic salts such as sodium chloride. This in turn forms a sticky substance called mucous, that can trap particles or foreign bodies such as bacteria and then be moved towards the pharynx via the muscociliary escalator.

296
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the submucosa?

A
  • connective tissue layer that helps connect the mucosa with the hyaline cartilage layer that helps provide the airways with their structure,
  • the bronchioles which do not contain cartilage
297
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the trachybronchial tree?

A

the network of airways that spreads across our lungs and provide air to our alveoli

298
Q

The Respiratory System

what is the role of the vagus nerve?

A

helps regulate heart rate, digestion

It is why you need to be careful when you suction a patient, as stimulation of the carina caused by a suction catheter can cause sudden bradycardia (low heart rate).

299
Q

The Respiratory System

Desceribe the differences in the structure of the primary bronchus?

A
  • the primary bronchus on the right side is more vertical, wider and shorter than the left primary bronchus.
  • the right primary bronchus needs to separate into three, whilst the left lung only needs to separate into two
300
Q

The Respiratory System

how many tertiary bronchi are there?

A

10 in each lung

301
Q

The Respiratory System

What does the bronchopulmonary segments include?

A
  • lobules, smaller compartments that contain an arteriole, venule, lymphatic vessel and a branch from a terminal bronchiole
  • which then split further into respiratory bronchioles, which then divide into the alveoli.
302
Q

The Respiratory System

Why do alveoli have a sponge like structure

A

To allow the lungs to inflate/ expand

303
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the structure/ linings of the alveoli?

A
  • The alveoli are lined with simple squamous epithelium
  • lined with supportive elastic membrane
304
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the roles of the types of alveoli cells?

A
  • Type 1 alveolar cells (the most abundant): the major site of where gas exchange occurs.
  • Type 2 alveolar cells: are specialist cells that secrete alveolar fluid, which contains a substance called surfactant- helps to reduce surface tension which makes the expansion of the alveoli easier and prevents alveoli from collapsing.
305
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the fibroblasts in the alveoli?

A

specialist cells that help produce proteins to main body tissue integrity

306
Q

The Nervous System

What does The Central Nervous System comprise of?

A
  • The Brain
  • The Spinal Cord
307
Q

The Nervous System

What does The Peripheral Nervous System comprise of?

A
  • Cranial Nerves
  • Sensory (afferent) nerves
  • Motor (efferent) nerves
  • Spinal nerves
  • The Somatic Nervous System
  • The Autonomic Nervous System
308
Q

The Nervous System

What is the primary function of neurons?

A

to transmit electrical impulses to major structures through-out the body.

309
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Cell body in the neuron?

A

contains the cell’s nucleus and all major organelles to maintain the function of the neurone

310
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Dendrites in the neuron?

A

these structures protrude out of the cell body and collect electrical impulses from other neurones

311
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Axon in the neuron?

A
  • carries electrical impulses down to the axon terminal where synapse junctions are located
  • The axon is covered in myelin sheath
312
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Myelin Sheath in the neuron?

A
  • acts as a protective layer for the axon.
  • helps to speed up electrical impulses down the axon.
  • neurons that are involved in rapid transmission throughout the nervous system will have more myelin surrounding their axons.
313
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of The Nodes of Ranvier in the neuron?

A
  • gaps in the myelin layers
  • contain ion channels which allow sodium, potassium and calcium ions in and out of the axon to support the transmission of electrical signals.
314
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Axon Terminals in the neuron?

A
  • contain the synapse junctions which are the end point for electrical impulses to travel.
  • trigger neurotransmitters to cross the synapse junctions to another neurone or body tissue/structure.
315
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of neuroglia cells?

A
  • Providing protection and structural support for nerve cells.
  • removing dead nerve cells during brain development.
  • They maintain myelin sheath
  • The line the blood brain barrier, a protective layer that selectively allows certain components in or out of the brain matter.
316
Q

The Nervous System

What is grey matter in the brain?

A

cell bodies of neurones grouped together, on the outside of the brain

317
Q

The Nervous System

What is white matter in the brain?

A

myelinated axons, on the inside of the brain

318
Q

The Nervous System

What are the three different types of neurons?

A
  • Sensory - these have long dendrites and short axons.
  • Motor - these have short dendrites and long axons.
  • Relay - these have short dendrites and can have either short or long axons.
319
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of sensory (afferent) neurones?

A
  • help to transmit sensory information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system
  • The brain can translate impulses to sensations such as hearing, taste, touch and vision
  • can be either physical – through sound, heat, touch, and light, or it can be chemical – through taste or smell.
320
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of motor (efferent) neurones?

A
  • carrying impulses from the central nervous system to muscles
  • releasing neurotransmitters to trigger muscle movement.
321
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of relay (interneurons) neurones?

A
  • allow sensory and motor neurons to communicate with each other.
  • connect various neurons within the brain and spinal cord, and are easy to recognize, due to their short axons
322
Q

The Nervous System

What are the 2 types of motor neurones?

A
  • Lower motor neurons – these are neurons which travel from the spinal cord to the muscles of the body.
  • Upper motor neurons – these are neurons which travel between the brain and the spinal cord.
323
Q

The Nervous System

What is a synapse?

A

the gap between either two nerve cells, or a nerve cell and body tissue

324
Q

The Nervous System

What happens when an electrical impulse arrives at the axon terminal?

A
  • calcium voltage-gated channels will open, and calcium enters the axon terminal.
  • Axon terminals also contains vesicles, which in turn contain specific neurotransmitters depending on the function/purpose of the neuron.
325
Q

The Nervous System

What are neurotransmitters contained in?

A

Vesicles

326
Q

The Nervous System

What are the two types of neurotransmitters?

A
  • excitatory neurotransmitters- trigger a further action potential in another neuron
  • inhibitory neurotransmitters- which can either slow-down or stop an electrical transmission.
327
Q

The Nervous System

How do neurotransmitters release into the synapse junction?

A

The vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane of the synapse

328
Q

The Nervous System

What are the four subdivisions of the brain?

A
  • The Cerebrum
  • The Diencephalon
  • The Cerebellum
  • The Brainstem
329
Q

The Nervous System

What does the Cerebrum include?

A
  • The hemispheres
  • Lobes
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Basal ganglia
330
Q

The Nervous System

What is the cerebral cortex?

A
  • Gryi and fissures (folds that protrude out of the exterior)
  • The outside of the cortex is where white matter is found
  • The inside of the cortex is where grey matter is found
331
Q

The Nervous System

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

logical thinking, voluntary motor movement, problem solving, speech and sight.

332
Q

The Nervous System

What are the four structures that the frontal lobe is split into?

A
  • Prefrontal Lobe
  • Premotor Area
  • Primary Motor Area
  • Broca’s area
333
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the prefrontal lobe?

A

involved in voluntary behaviours, social behaviour and cognitive functions, such as intelligence, thinking, problem solving, attention and planning.

334
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the premotor area?

A

involved in the planning and execution of motor movements, by using selective sensory information from other parts of the brain to determine the correct motor response.

335
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the primary motor area?

A

the primary area for voluntary motor movement, which contains dedicated areas for specific body parts. This is important as some body parts will have larger areas of the primary motor area occupied than others.

the motor coordination of your hands will require a larger area because of how vast the range of movements are in our hands. This would differ to the motor coordination in your foot, as the range of movement is not as complex as the hands.

336
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of Broca’s area?

A

focused on speech ability and motor movement of the facial muscles to produce verbal and nonverbal communication.

337
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the Parietal Lobe?

A
  • responsible for the majority of our sensory perception and spatial awareness.
  • Using ventral and dorsal visual pathway
  • is why we are able to coordinate our movements depending on objects that are found within an environment,
  • contains the somatosensory association area which interprets sensory information from the body like pain, touch, temperature and pressure
338
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the occipital lobe?

A

responsible for visual interpretation that comes from our eyes.

339
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the temporal lobe?

A
  • responsible for our memory formation capability as well as our hearing (auditory) capability.
  • helps with speech, language, smell, recounting personal information and learning.
340
Q

The Nervous System

What are the three major structures of the diencephalon?

A
  • The Pineal gland
  • The Thalamus
  • The Hypothalamus
341
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the pineal gland?

A

responsible for the secretion of melatonin, playing a key role in sleep cycles, alertness and awareness

342
Q

What is the role of the thalamus?

A
  • acts as a sensory and motor relay station
  • helps to relay sensory information from the brainstem and distribute the information to the appropriate lobes in the brain,
  • relaying motor information from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem.
  • a key part in movement, perception, timing and attention.
343
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the hypothalamus?

A
  • connects to the autonomic nervous system and limbic system
  • plays a role in managing thirst, hunger, emotions, body temperature regulation and circadian rhythms.
  • stimulated by either hormonal or neural stimulation.
  • connects to the pituitary gland, responsible for the synthesis and release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), oxytocin and adrenaline.
344
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the limbic system?

A

involved in olfaction (sense of smell), emotional regulation and memory formation.

345
Q

The Nervous System

What are the main structures of the limbic system?

A
  • The Olfactory Bulb - the major structure that interprets smell and relays this information to the cerebrum.
  • The Amygdala - this almond shaped structure is responsible for emotional responses. It also interacts with the hippocampus to help with memories that have strong emotional connection to them.
  • The Hippocampus - the hippocampus is split into two hippocampi - each one located in each hemisphere. Neurogenesis occurs here, the process of where new nerve cells are made from stem cells. Apart from it’s major role in memory formation, the hippocampus also plays a role in learning and spatial navigation.
346
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the cerebellum?

A

acts as a motor calibration unit, ensuring that motor neural impulses are more precise and coordinated to where they need to go.

347
Q

The Nervous System

What are the three structures of the brainstem?

A
  • The Midbrain - helps with controlling eye movement
  • The Pons - eleven of the 12 cranial nerves enter the pons, where it helps to coordinate facial movement, as well as sensory information from the head and neck. Finetunes motor control, balance and posture. Auditory information primarily enters through the pons, and it also helps to regulate breathing patterns.
  • The Medulla - also called the medulla oblongata, it contains homeostasis mechanisms such as the respiratory centre, where it controls the autonomic/reflex control of our breathing. It has centres for cardiovascular control, and it even contains a vomiting centre.
348
Q

The Nervous System

What is the reticular formation?

A
  • A bundle of neurones directly connects the spinal cord to the diencephalon, through the brainstem
  • The microprocessor of the brain, organising motor and sensory information to their desired locations
  • Has autonomic functions such as sleep, pain modulation, arousal, alertness and cardiovascular control
  • the reticular activating system (RAS), which disposes repetitive and non-purposeful stimuli, this process is called habituation.
349
Q

The Nervous System

What are The meninges?

A

The outer layer of the brain which provides further protection

350
Q

The Nervous System

What are the three layers of the meninges?

A
  • the dura: sits below the skull and it has two fused layers made up of elastic tissue.
  • arachnoid: the spider web like structure made up of fibrous tissue. The subdural layer has many venous blood vessels that connect the dura layer to the arachnoid layer.
  • pia mater: a very thin membrane that is exposed to the surface of the brain. Capillaries penetrate the pia mater in order to allow oxygen and nutrients to nourish brain tissue and get rid of waste products such as carbon dioxide.
351
Q

The Nervous System

What is the spinal cord?

A
  • a long tubular structure consisting of nervous tissue that helps connect the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system
  • essential for relaying sensory information to the brain for interpretation, wherever this is pain, touch, temperature etc.
  • essential for transmission of efferent motor information from the brain to muscles to help coordinate movement.
352
Q

The Nervous System

What are the layers of the spinal column?

A
  • Dura mater - found on the outside of the spinal column which lies underneath the vertebrae of the spinal plates. Unlike the brain, this dura mater contains adipose tissue and blood vessels.
  • Arachnoid mater - this is the middle protective layer and this layer is similar to the brain’s arachnoid space. It contains the subarachnoid space which is where you find cerebral spinal fluid passing through.
  • Pia mater - forms the final protective layer and faces the spinal.
353
Q

The Nervous System

What is the peripheral Nervous System?

A
  • a network of afferent and efferent neurons that transmit sensory and motor responses.
  • Afferent neurones often transmit sensory impulses to the central nervous system
  • Efferent neurones send impulses from the central nervous system to glands, muscles and organs.
354
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the somatic nervous system?

A

helps to coordinate voluntary control of muscle groups, triggered by the primary motor cortex which sends signals to the peripheral motor neurons to trigger voluntary movement.

355
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • coordinates autonomic functions such as homeostatic mechanisms to maintain body function.
  • The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
356
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  • the ‘fight or flight response,’
  • responsible for triggering motor responses that react to emotional stress or physical activity.
  • The release of hormones such as nor-adrenaline and adrenaline trigger a release of glucose from energy stores to increase metabolism for cells. This results in increased blood flow to skeletal muscle as well as increased cardiac output due to a higher heart rate and contraction.
  • This is why we feel our heart rate increasing and pumping harder when we are nervous or anxious, pupils dilate, breathing becomes faster and we feel ‘butterflies’ in our stomach as a result of increased digestion. The amygdala also activates more to increase emotional responses and alertness.
357
Q

The Nervous System

What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A
  • It is triggered when the body is at rest or sleeping and is triggered by the release of acetylcholine.
  • This means that body is at rest and can reduce metabolism to save energy stores or restore body functions in preparation for further activity.
358
Q

The Renal System

What is the function of the renal system?

A
  • the creation, storage and excretion of waste products.
  • the human body extracts all the necessary nutrients it needs from digested food to help maintain functionality and waste products are left behind in the bowel and the blood
359
Q

The Renal System

Which systems does the renal system include?

A
  • The Kidneys
  • The Ureters
  • The Bladder
  • The Urethra
360
Q

The Renal System

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A
  • Filtration of the blood to remove toxic waste products
  • Excretion of waste products e.g. as urea and creatine in urine.
  • regulation of blood pressure, electrolytes, acid-base balance and fluid volume in the blood.
  • Release of erythropoietin to trigger red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
  • Aids the production of vitamin D.
361
Q

The Renal System

Describe the outer layers of the kidney

A
  • the renal fascia: is made up of connective tissue designed to anchor the kidneys and adrenal gland to the surrounding structures.
  • perirenal fat capsule: a layer of adipose tissue that provides the kidney protection from trauma and jolts.
  • the renal capsule which is another connective tissue layer that prevents infections from spreading through-out the kidneys, as well as acting as an additional protective layer from trauma.
362
Q

The Renal System

Describe the main structures inside of the kidney

A
  • The renal cortex: renal columns separate the renal pyramids within the renal medulla
  • The renal medulla: inward structures that hold together bundles of conical shaped structures called renal pyramids.
  • The renal pelvis: minor calyxes and major calyxes. A minor calyx connects the lower part of a renal medulla to the renal pelvis, and it allows drained urine from the collecting ducts to enter the major calyx
363
Q

The Renal System

What are the major components of the nephron?

A
  • The Bowman’s Capsule: contains the glomerulus, a capillary bundle that starts the process of urine formation.
    enters the bowman’s capsule via the afferent arteriole, passes through the glomerulus and exits through the efferent arteriole
  • The Proximal converted tubule: the connection between the bowman’s capsule and the loop of Henle. Designed to enhance reabsorption of small molecules such as glucose and salts.
  • The Loop of Henle: the connection between the two tubules, and it consists of an ascending and descending limb. The loop of Henle is involved in the secretion of salts and reabsorption of water.
  • The Distal Converted tubule: the connection between the loop of Henle and the collecting ducts, has more secretion roles as well as reabsorption of water and ions
364
Q

The Renal System

What is the role of a nephron?

A

will be connected to collecting ducts, that catch urine from the nephrons and drains it into the renal pelvis.

365
Q

The Renal System

What are the two types of nephrons?

A
  • Cortical nephrons: shorter loop of Henle, found in the renal cortex. Perform majority of reabsorption and secretion
  • Juxtamedullary nephrons: longer loop of Henle, found in renal medulla. Responsible got concentrating urine
366
Q

The Digestive System

What is the digestive system?

A
  • how the human body gains all it’s nutrients and energy from ingested food.
  • Waste products are then eliminated as faeces.
367
Q

The Digestive System

What are macronutrients?

A

Large molecular nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins and fats as macronutrients

368
Q

The Digestive System

What are micronutrients?

A

Smaller nutrients such as vitamins and minerals are referred to as micronutrients

369
Q

The Digestive System

What are carbohydrates?

A

a molecule that contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.

370
Q

The Digestive System

What are Monosaccharides?

A
  • the simplest form of carbohydrates and as such can be easily absorbed by the body for energy and calorie use.
  • Glucose, fructose and galactose (milk sugar) are examples of monosaccharides.
371
Q

The Digestive System

What are Disaccharides?

A
  • when two simple sugars link up together
  • found in all forms of animal based milk including breastmilk.
  • Maltose is when two glucose link together. Simple sugars link together via glycosidic bonds.
372
Q

The Digestive System

What are complex carbohydrates?

A
  • when a chain of carbohydrates is formed.
  • They can either be chained in rows or they can be in chains with branches of them which are called polysaccharides, such as starch.
373
Q

The Digestive System

How does Amylase work?

A
  • Amylase breaks the glycosydic bonds through the act of hydrolysis,
  • the bond turns into water which in turn separates polysaccharides into monosaccharides.
  • This means then the body can absorb the monosaccharides for energy.
374
Q

The Digestive System

What are proteins?

A
  • building blocks for most of the structures in our bodies.
  • made up of amino acids that are bound together by peptide bonds.
  • found in either animal based food such as meat, fish, dairy and eggs, or plant based food such as tofu, soya, lentils, legumes, beans etc.
375
Q

The Digestive System

Which complex structures can proteins form?

A
  • enzymes, hormones or carrier proteins
  • The human body only needs 20 amino acids to maintain body function
376
Q

The Digestive System

What are the three groups of proteins?

A
  • Non-essential - can be gained from food or made by ourselves.
  • Conditionally essential - can be made when we are well nourished, but they cannot be made when the body is starved.
  • Essential - can only be got from food
377
Q

The Digestive System

What are dietary fibres?

A
  • Complex fibres that cannot be broken down into small carbohydrates by enzymes
  • Passes through the small intestines and slows down digestion.
  • Increases weight of faeces which can prevent constipation
378
Q

The Digestive System

What are fats?

A

chains of fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone

379
Q

The Digestive System

What are the types of fatty acids?

A
  • Monoglyceride: When a glycerol backbone meets one fatty acid,
  • Diglyceride: If two fatty acids join a glycerol backbone
  • Triglyceride: three fatty acids joined to the glycerol backbone
380
Q

The Digestive System

What are saturated fats?

A
  • Fats that are saturated with hydrogen molecules and contain only single bonds between carbon molecules
  • long and straight, thus easier to pack together.
381
Q

The Digestive System

What are unsaturated fats?

A
  • fatty acid in which the hydrocarbon molecules have two carbons that share double or triple bond(s) and are therefore not completely saturated with hydrogen atoms.
  • These don’t pack as well so are liquid at room temp
382
Q

Nursing and Midwifery Council

What are the 4 major themes of the NMC Code?

A
  • Prioritise people
  • Practise effectively
  • Preserve safety
  • Promote professionalism and trust
383
Q

The Renal System

What are the stages of urine formation?

A
  • Glomerular filtration
  • Selective Reabsorption
  • Selective Secretion
384
Q

The Renal System

How does Blood enter the glomerulus?

A
  • hydrostatic pressure, being influenced by the squeezing through the afferent arterioles.
  • small particles/molecules will pass through the selective-permeable membrane of the glomerulus lining and into the capsular space.
385
Q

The Renal System

What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A
  • The amount of blood that passes through the glomerulus at a given time
  • Shows how well the kidneys can filter the blood
  • If the GFR was to reduce as a result of less blood flow through the glomerulus, the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is activated (see the Cardiovascular Learning Resource to remind yourself). Renin can trigger the afferent arterioles to constrict to encourage more hydrostatic pressure.
386
Q

The Cardiovascular System

Which valves are present in the heart?

A
  • Tricuspid Valve
  • Bicuspid/ Mitral Valve
  • Semilunar Valves (The Aortic Valve and the Pulmonary Valve)
387
Q

The Cardiovascular System

How do the valves open and close?

A
  • Depending on pressure changes of the blood.
  • When the ventricles contract, they eject blood through the major vessels, forcing the valves to open.
  • When the ventricles relax, blood in the major vessels start to go backwards, which fills the moon shaped structures which causes them to close.
388
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What are the heart muscle layers?

A
  • Endocardium: Provides protection to the heart chambers and valves
  • Myocardium: Contracts and relaxes the heart
  • Epicardium: Provides protection and support for the heart
  • Pericardial Cavity: Reduces force from external pressure
389
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What is the right side of the heart dedicated too?

A

Deoxygenated blood returning to the heart- pulmonary circulation

390
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What are the 3 stages of the cardiac conduction pathway?

A
  • Sinoatrial Node Depolarisation (Atrial contraction)- generated action potential and triggers both atriums to contract and eject blood into the ventricles.
  • The Atrioventricular Node Depolarisation (ventricular contraction)- Action potential from the SA nodes travel tough the VA node and through the Bundle of His. The Bundle of His has fibres called Purkinje Fibres causing the ventricles to contract and eject blood through arteries.
  • Repolarisation (relaxation)- resets the action potential to the SA nodes
391
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What is the diastolic blood pressure?

A

This represents the heart ejecting the blood out of the aorta into the systemic circulation pathway

392
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What is the systolic blood pressure?

A

This represents the heart re-filling with blood. The systemic circulation pathway

393
Q

The Cardiovascular System

What can influence the blood pressure?

A

Cardiac Output

Principals of Nursing (3 decks)

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