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Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

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1
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is anatomy?

A

The structure of cells, organisms, body systems and tissue.

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2
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is physiology?

A

The function of cells, organisms, body systems and tissue.

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3
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

The anterior view

A

Front side

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4
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

The posterior view

A

Back side

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5
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

The superior view

A

Top side

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6
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

The inferior view

A

Lower side

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7
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Lateral

A

Closer to the body

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8
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Medial

A

Towards the middle of the body

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9
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Proximal

A

Limbs closest to the trunk of the body

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10
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Distal

A

Limbs furthest from the trunk of the body

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11
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Superficial

A

Closer to the surface of the body

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12
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Deep

A

Further from the surface of the body

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13
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Supine position

A

Lying on back

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14
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Prone position

A

Lying on front

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15
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are body cavities lined with?

A

Serous membrane

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16
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is the function of the serous membrane?

A
  • Allows lubrication for any organs that function alongside each other
  • Protection from trauma or infection

e.g. the lungs can inflate fully without interfering with the heart

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17
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are the levels of organisation in the body?

A

Organism > Organ System> Organ> Tissue> Cell> Organelle> Micro molecule> Molecule> Atom

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18
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is an atom?

A

An atom is the smallest part of an element and cannot be chemically broken down any further

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19
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are atoms made up of?

A

-Protons (positive)
-Neutrons (neutral)
-Electrons (negative)

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20
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is an ion?

A

When an atom loses or gains an electron to become positively or negatively charged

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21
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are the main metal elements which help maintain body function?

A
  • Sodium (Na)
  • Iron (Fe)
  • Potassium (K)
  • Calcium (Ca)
  • Magnesium (Mg)
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22
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are the functions of metal elements in the body?

A

Conducting heat and electricity
(they often need to donate electrons to other atoms to become molecules)

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23
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are the main non-metal elements that help maintain body function?

A
  • Hydrogen (H)
  • Carbon (C)
  • Nitrogen (N)
  • Phosphorous (P)
  • Chlorine (Cl)
  • Iodine (I)
  • Sulphur (S)
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24
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are molecules?

A

Molecules are atoms which are bonded together to create equilibrium

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25
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What is the power of the chemical bonds in atoms referred to as?

A

Valance

(outside shells of atoms are sometimes called the valance shell)

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26
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are the types of chemical bonds between atoms?

A
  • Ionic bonds
  • Covalent bonds
  • Polar or Hydrogen bonds
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27
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are organic substances?

A

Any substances with carbon and hydrogen in it’s molecular breakdown

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28
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Give examples of organic substances within the body

A
  • Lipids
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Nucleic acids
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29
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

What are inorganic substances?

A

Any substance that doesn’t have carbon and hydrogen in the molecular breakdown (excluding carbon dioxide)

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30
Q

Key Principles to Bioscience

Give examples of inorganic substances within the body

A

oxygen, water, inorganic salts and carbon dioxide

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31
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 major parts of a cell?

A
  • Nucleus
  • Cell membrane
  • Cytoplasm
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32
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What determines how the cells function?

A

DNA in the nucleus
(Deoxyribonucleic acid)

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33
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the mRNA used for?

A
  • genetic sequencing
  • protein synthesis
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34
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What surrounds the nucleolus?

A

Chromatins- to organise long DNA strands and protein

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35
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What surrounds the nucleus?

A

The nucleus membrane which allows substances in and out

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36
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is DNA made of?

A

Nucleotides which create the double helix structure

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37
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the main functions of the cell membrane?

A
  • Maintain the structure of the cell’s cytoplasm
  • Create structures such as binding to other cells to make tissue
  • Transportation of necessary substances to maintain cell organelle functions.
    Help to form enzymes - only in some particular cells.
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38
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the two key structures of the cell membrane?

A
  • The phospholipid bilayer
  • Plasma membrane proteins (PMPs)
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39
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Describe the molecules in the phospholipid bilayer

A
  • a polar head which is hydrophilic (it mixes with water) face the outside of the cell membrane
  • non-polar fatty acid tails (which are hydrophobic so do not mix with water) face the inside of the cell membrane
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40
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which carbohydrates can you find in the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • Glycolipids (attaches to lipids/ fats)
  • Glycoprotiens (attaches to protiens)
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41
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are integral proteins? (PMP- plasma membrane proteins)

A

Proteins which may extend into both layers of the phospholipid bilayer

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42
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are peripheral proteins? (PMP- plasma membrane proteins)

A

Proteins which are on the inner or outer surface of the phospholipid bilayers but don’t reach the hydrophilic core

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43
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of cholesterol on the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Cholesterol is embedded in the hydrophobic tails of the membrane and minimises the effects of temperature and fluidity to maintain the structure of the cell

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44
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of integral PMP molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • A protein channel for ions, electrolytes and molecules
  • Forming receptors by binding to carbohydrates
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45
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of peripheral PMP molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Maintaining cell function/ life e.g. enzyme and catalysts

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46
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of channel protein molecules in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Maintains homeostasis through passive transport with the concentration gradient (inputting/ outputting into the cell)

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47
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of carrier protein molecules?

A
  • Carries substances into the phospholipid bilayer
  • active transport which can go against the concentration gradient
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48
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the purpose of a glycoprotein?

A
  • Used in signalling so that cells can recognise each other
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49
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a cytoplasm?

A

A cytoplasm is a jelly like liquid that fills the inside of the cell

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50
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How much of the cytoplasm is water?

A

70-85%

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51
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which ions do you find in the cytoplasm?

A
  • potassium
  • bicarbonate
  • magnesium
  • phosphate ions.
  • Sodium, chloride and calcium ions are also present but in smaller concentration.
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52
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Whats the role of functional and structural proteins in cytoplasm?

A
  • 10-20% of the cytoplasm
  • structural proteins maintain the cell structure
  • functional proteins speed up reactions e.g. catalyst enzymes
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53
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of lipids in the cytoplasm?

A
  • phospholipids: maintain the cell membrane to separate fluid compartments
  • cholesterol: needed for specific hormone synthesis
  • Triglycerides: the production of ATP (energy) during respiration.
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54
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of carbohydrates in the cytoplasm?

A
  • 1-6% of the cell
  • present in case cells require glucose to enter the cells for production of ATP to create energy.
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55
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

links off from the nuclear membrane, and is considered like the factory of the cells

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56
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the two parts of the Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A
  • Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
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57
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

Important for protein synthesis and it creates key protein structures

  • ribosomes on the surface (particles of the RNA)
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58
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum/ its functions?

A
  • no ribosomes on the surface

The functions are:
- metabolism of carbohydrates
- detoxication of toxins (including drugs)
- regulation of calcium concentration
- synthesis of lipids e.g. phospholipids and steroids.

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59
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the Golgi Apparatus?

A

Helps to concentrate and package substances produced within/ outside the cell

  • the packaging unit of a cell
  • concentrate lysosome enzymes from the ribosomes, surround it with vesicle and release into the cytoplasm
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60
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the mitochondria?

A

Provide cells with energy to function

  • the powerhouse of the cell
  • involved in the cell cycle / cell growth
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61
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Justify the structure of the mitochondria cell

A
  • Has a unique folding structure to increase the surface area
  • Allows more chemical reactions which produce energy
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62
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Lysosomes?

A

Break down large organic molecules within the cell and substances or bacteria that enter cells

  • packets of hydrolytic enzymes
  • removal of faulty RNA sequences that could affect protein production
  • the construction of hormones and breaking down cellular components - like removing the flaps between a foetus’s fingers and toes before birth.
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63
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Why do lysosomes need to be in vesicles?

A

Can cause cellular destruction

lySOSomes need help !!!

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64
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Peroxisomes?

A

Small organelles that are responsible for detoxification specifically hydrogen peroxide

  • signals the immune system of infection
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65
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are Centrosomes?

A

Primarily there to help with cell division

  • the centrosomes duplicate and move to each side of a cell during mitosis
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66
Q

The Respiratory System

How much of the air in the atmosphere has oxygen?

A

There is a 21% atmospheric concentration of oxygen

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67
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the Upper Respiratory Tract made up of?

A
  • Nasal Cavity
  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
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68
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the Lower Respiratory Tract made up of?

A
  • Trachea
  • Primary Bronchi
  • Lungs
  • Diaphram
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69
Q

The Respiratory System

What does the nose detect?

A

Olfactory stimuli (smells)

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70
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the nose?

A
  • To warm, filter and humidify air that passes through
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71
Q

The Respiratory System

What material is the nose made of?

A

Hyaline cartilage- the most rigid in the body

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72
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the nasal cavity lined with?

A

Cilia lines mucous membrane- these filter particles and produces nares membranes

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73
Q

The Respiratory System

Why is the nose likely to have nose bleeds?

A

The septum has lots of small blood vessels which are vulnerable to damage

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74
Q

The Respiratory System

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

Hollow spaces in the head which lightens the head to help balance

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75
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the purpose of paranasal sinuses?

A

Warms and humidifies the air breathes, so that the airways don’t get dried out

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76
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the three parts of the pharynx?

A
  • Oropharynx
  • Nasopharynx
  • Lasryngopharynx
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77
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Laryngopharynx?

A

Opens the oesophagus and the layrnx

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78
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Oropharynx?

A
  • Responsible for getting air to the larynx
  • Responsible for not letting food to the oesophagus
  • The tonsils in the oropharynx fight infection
  • Also contains the palatine and lingual tonsils
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79
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the functions of the palatine and lingual tonsils?

A
  • Fighting infection
    (get covered in white, pus filled spots if there’s tonsilitis)
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80
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the Nasopharynx?

A
  • Moving trapped particles from mucous (through coughing)
  • Exchanging air to keep the pharynx and middle ear pressure equal ( for balance)
  • Adenoids- pharyngeal tonsils which become inflamed when infected
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81
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How much of the human body is made up of water?

A
  • 60% body water
  • 40% non water strcutures e.g. organs and vessels
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82
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the functions of bodily fluid?

A
  • Thermoregulation e.g. sweat
  • Lubricating joints/ eyes
  • Transporting oxygen, minerals and micronutrients
  • Removing waste products from the body
  • Shock protection thorugh cerebrospinal fluid
  • Substance production e.g. saliva, tears, amniotic fluid
  • Helps with digestion
  • Haemodynamics: circulating blood
  • Immunity
  • Perfusion: distributing red blood cells
  • Excretion
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83
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 2 main fluid conmpartments?

A
  • Intracellular fulid (ICF) 40% of body
    fluid inside of the cell, contributing to jelly like substance
  • Extrcelluar fluid (ECT) 20% of body
    fluis outside of the cell
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84
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 types of extracellular fluid?

A
  • Plasma: circulates around the body and found in intravascular spaces (in blood vessels)
  • Interstitial fluid: fluid around the cells, does not circulate through the body
  • Transcellular fluid: fluid outside of the cell within structures e.g. gastrointestinal fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
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85
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the movement of fluid through fluid compartments called?

A

Fluid shift

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86
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which 3 pressures influence fluid shift?

A
  • Hydrostatic pressure gradients
  • Osmotic pressure gradients
  • Oncotic (Plasma Colloid) pressure gradients
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87
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

the force of fluid that is exerted by either gravity or external force

Imagine a hosepipe, the tap is the external force, and hydrostatic pressure is the force of water pressing against the inside of the hose walls. This gives the water momentum to travel

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88
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is osmotic pressure?

A

pressure that is exerted by the fluid itself

the force of fluid passing through a semi-permeable membrane can be encouraged by the difference in concentration gradients

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89
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is oncotic pressure?

A

If there are plasma proteins, the concentration of solutes will have an impact on how forceful water passes through a semi-permeable membrane

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90
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What impact can hypertension have on fluid compartments?

A

can impact how fluid shifts in and out of intravascular spaces and interstitial space

hypertension can cause increased hydrostatic pressure and lack of proteins can reduce osmotic pressure

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91
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the build up of water in interstitial spaces called?

A

Oedema

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92
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Who has a higher bodily fluid concentration? Adults or newborns

A

Newborns

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93
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Who has a higher bodily fluid concentration? Adults or newborns

A

Newborns

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94
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is passive transport?
Give examples

A

Passive transport requires no energy and works using a concentration gradient

e.g. diffusion, osmosis and filtration

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95
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is passive transport?
give examples

A

Passive transport requires no energy and works using a concentration gradient

e.g. diffusion, osmosis and filtration

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96
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is diffusion?

A

when ions or molecules pass through a selectively permeable membrane from a higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

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97
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What conditions does simple diffusion depenend on?

A
  • The concentration gradient
  • The size of the surface area of the cell membrane
  • The substance being diffused
  • The size of the molecules
  • The solubility of the molecules being transported
  • The temperature
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98
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is facillitated diffusion?

A

large molecules needs assistance from large proteins to transport them across the selectively permeable membrane
via:
- protein channels that allow small lipid insoluble molecules through
- binding to proteins that activate specific protein carriers in the cell membrane

e.g. glucose with insulin

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99
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does diffusion impact people with diabetes

A

Can cause hyperglycaemia:

The mitochondria within cells need glucose to produce energy to maintain cell function. If glucose cannot enter the cells, it will increase glucose levels in the blood

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100
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is osmosis?

A

the movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane through selective integral proteins

generating osmotic pressure from the concentration gradient

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101
Q

Cells & Homeostais

How do solutes impact osmosis?

A

Salt can manipulate the concentration gradient because it will reduce the amount of water in that area

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102
Q

Cells & Homeostais

How do solutes impact osmosis?

A

Salt can manipulate the concentration gradient because it will reduce the amount of water in that area

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103
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is haemolysis?

A

the cell swells and ruptures the cell membrane

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104
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How can osmosis cause haemolysis?

A

If a cell is placed in a solution with a low concentration of solute (hypotonic solution), water will be drawn into the cell

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105
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a crenulated cell?

A

when a cell becomes all shrivelled

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106
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How can osmosis cause a crenulated cell?

A

If a cell is placed in a solution with a high concentration of solute (hypertonic), then it will cause the cell to be crenulated

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107
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

0.45% saline
77 mmol/L Sodium & Chloride ions

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108
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is an isotonic solution?

A

0.9% saline
154mmol/L Sodium & Chloride ions

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109
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

> 154mmol/L Sodium & Chloride ions

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110
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is filtration?

A

moving solutes from an area of high pressure through a semi-permeable membrane to an area with low pressure.

Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by fluid as a result of gravity

Occurs in nephrons and medium sized molecules

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111
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is active transpot reliant on?

A

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) splitting into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate (energy)

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112
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are examples of active transport?

A
  • The sodium-potassium pump
  • The calcium pump
  • Sodium-glucose linked cotransporter
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113
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are examples of active transport?

A
  • The sodium-potassium pump
  • The calcium pump (muscles contract)
  • Sodium-glucose linked cotransporter (get glucose into cell)
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114
Q

How does the Sodium-glucose linked cotransporter work

A

glucose transporters are found in the intestinal mucosa and the proximal tubule of nephrons
energy gets released and propells glucose into the cell

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115
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is body tissue?

A

a group of cells that bind together and function as a single unit

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116
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 4 types of body tissue?

A
  • Connective tissue
  • Epithelial tissue
  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
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117
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of nervous tissue?

A
  • communication
    made up of neurons (brain, brain stem, spinal cord & nerves)
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118
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of muscular tissue?

A

Movement
Allow contration and relaxation to move product through
Cardiac muscles, skeletal muscles and hollow organ lining

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119
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of epithelial tissue?

A

creating boundries
seperates different enviornemnts e.g. in kindey & lungs

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120
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of connective tissue?

A

Supports, protects, binds
e.g. bones, tendons, fat cells, blood

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121
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of connective tissue?

A

Supports, protects, binds
e.g. bones, tendons, fat cells, blood

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122
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is Homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis is a constant process of equilibrium managed by multiple mechanisms in the body

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123
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is Homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis is a constant process of equilibrium managed by multiple mechanisms in the body

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124
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is the role of a feedback mechanism?

A

Feedback mechanisms ensure that normal parameters are constantly maintained within a tight area

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125
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • a response working to reverse the action & bring the normal parameters back.
  • needs to be stimulated by something that has gone beyond the normal parameters to trigger a response
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126
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • a response working to reverse the action & bring the normal parameters back.
  • needs to be stimulated by something that has gone beyond the normal parameters to trigger a response
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127
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 main components of a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • The sensor/ receptor: monitors a specific physiological value
  • The control centre: compares the receptor’s stimulus with the normal parameters. it will trigger an effector if it’s abnormal
  • The effector: the response to reverse the initial stimulus
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128
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 3 main components of a negative feedback mechanism?

A
  • The sensor/ receptor: monitors a specific physiological value
  • The control centre: compares the receptor’s stimulus with the normal parameters. it will trigger an effector if it’s abnormal
  • The effector: the response to reverse the initial stimulus
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129
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a positive feedback mechanism?

A

it will increase and intensify the stimuli

e.g. when someone has a penetrating wound the effector will allow blood loss to reduce cardiac output. The injured vessel wall will trigger factor and inflammatory mediators to intensify the clotting cascade

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130
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is a positive feedback mechanism?

A

it will increase and intensify the stimuli

e.g. when someone has a penetrating wound the effector will allow blood loss to reduce cardiac output. The injured vessel wall will trigger factor and inflammatory mediators to intensify the clotting cascade

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131
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is cellular respiration?

A

Mitochondria in every living cell uses glucose and oxygen to make ATP, resulting in energy

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
(glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water).

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132
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How is adenosine triphosphate (ATP produced?

A
  • Glycolysis: Glucose gets converted into 8 ATP molecules and pyruvic acid
  • Krebs Cycle: Pyruvic acid is converted into Acetyl Coenzyme A. Goes through aerobic reactions in mitochondria and generaates 30 ATP molecules
  • The Electron Transport Chain: Energy in the form of electrons are transferred by two coenzymes called Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD+) and Flavine Adenine Dinucleotide (FAD)
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133
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Why is effective thermoregulartion so important?

A

When ATP is produced, it gives off energy, and this energy is felt as heat.
without effective thermoregulation, our bodies would not function adequately.

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134
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What should core temperature be?

A

36 - 37.4 C

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135
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which receptor detects temperature change?

A

The hypothalamus
- The anterior hypothalamus is stimulated by increases in body temperature.
- The posterior hypothalamus is stimulated by decreases in body temperature.

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136
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which receptor detects temperature change?

A

The hypothalamus
- The anterior hypothalamus is stimulated by increases in body temperature.
- The posterior hypothalamus is stimulated by decreases in body temperature.

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137
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

Which receptor detects temperature change?

A

The hypothalamus
- The anterior hypothalamus is stimulated by increases in body temperature.
- The posterior hypothalamus is stimulated by decreases in body temperature.

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138
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the 4 methods of heat loss?

A
  • Radiation – loss of heat from surfaces in the form of infra red rays.
  • Conduction – transfer of heat by direct contact with a colder surface.
  • Convection – transfer of heat to the surrounding air (aided by cold air movement).
  • Evaporation – heat loss due to the evaporation of water from the lungs, mouth mucosa, and skin (insensible heat loss)
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139
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the anterior hypothalamus increase heat loss?

A
  • Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels - vasodilation means that the endothelial walls of the blood vessels stretch, making them thinner.
  • Enhanced sweating - allows heat to be lost by evaporation.
  • Behavioural response (lighter clothes) - reduces the layers covering the skin.
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140
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the anterior hypothalamus decrease heat production?

A
  • Decrease metabolic rate - caused by decreasing thyroxine release.
  • Decreased adrenaline secretion - reduces any vasodilation occurring.
  • Decrease muscle tone - reduces the likeliness of shivering.
  • Decrease food appetite - to reduce the amount of glucose consumed to reduce energy production
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141
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus decrease heat loss?

A
  • Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels - reduces surface area and tightens blood vessels to prevent heat escaping.
  • Behavioural response (warm clothes) - to increase layers over the skin to prevent heat loss via convection and radiation.
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142
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus decrease heat loss?

A
  • Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels - reduces surface area and tightens blood vessels to prevent heat escaping.
  • Behavioural response (warm clothes) - to increase layers over the skin to prevent heat loss via convection and radiation.
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143
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus decrease heat loss?

A
  • Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels - reduces surface area and tightens blood vessels to prevent heat escaping.
  • Behavioural response (warm clothes) - to increase layers over the skin to prevent heat loss via convection and radiation.
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144
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus increase heat production?

A
  • Increased metabolic rate - caused by enhanced thyroxine release to encourage cells to produce more energy to generate heat.
  • Increased adrenaline secretion - to trigger vasoconstriction to help maintain core temperature to protect organ function.
  • Increased muscle tone - triggers shivering that helps produce energy.
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145
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

How does the prosterior hypothalamus increase heat production?

A
  • Increased metabolic rate - caused by enhanced thyroxine release to encourage cells to produce more energy to generate heat.
  • Increased adrenaline secretion - to trigger vasoconstriction to help maintain core temperature to protect organ function.
  • Increased muscle tone - triggers shivering that helps produce energy.
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146
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What is pyrexia?

A

When it comes to responding to infections, the body triggers an increase in temperature to help the immune system to fight off pathogens causing the illness.
Having a higher core temperature will suppress pathogen growth, making it easier for white blood cells to destroy the pathogens.

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147
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

why are infants more vulnerable to heat loss than older children and adults:

A
  • they have a higher surface area compared to volume
  • have very little insulating fat
  • reduced shivering capabilities
  • immature hypothalamuses
  • higher cardiac output
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148
Q

Cells & Homeostasis

What are the benefits for newborns drinking breastmilk?

A
  • increased concentration of fats to provide energy and brain development
  • low protein concentration to benefit immature kidney function
  • contains a high whey-to-casein ratio allowing easier digestion
  • contains high amounts of mammary amylase to assist digestion of lactose due to lack of amylase in infants
  • contains lactoferrin which allows easier absorption of iron
  • contains a variety of enzymes, growth factors and hormones to aid development and growth
  • contains antibodies to help boost an infant’s immune system
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149
Q

Blood

What is Blood?

A

Blood is a viscous substance that provides oxygen and nutrients to the cells, tissue organs and the body systems. Blood makes up around 8% of an adult total body weight

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150
Q

Blood

What are the functions of blood?

A
  • helps eliminate waste product
  • provide oxygen and nutrients to cells, tissue organs and body systems
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151
Q

The Respiratory System

Why do infants up to the age of 2 months to 6 months primarily breath through their noses?

A

The oral cavity is dedicated to feeding

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152
Q

Blood

What does blood help?

A
  • Maintain body temperature, and maintenance of transport of heat across the body.
  • Maintenance of blood pH.
  • Provide protection against infection
  • Transportation of enzymes and hormones
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153
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses called?

A
  • the frontal sinus
  • the maxillary sinus
  • the ethmoid sinus
  • the sphenoid sinuses.
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154
Q

Blood

Which cells make up blood?

A
  • Plasma
  • Erythrocytes
  • Leucocytes
  • Thrombocytes
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155
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the pharynx?

A

a muscular structure that connects the mouth to both the oesophagus to aid digestion, and the larynx to aid respiration
(the throat)

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156
Q

Blood

What is regular blood composition?

A

Blood Plasma = 55%
Formed Elementa = 45%

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157
Q

Blood

What is Plasma?

A
  • Plasma is made up of about 90% water with 10% being solutes.
  • Plasma helps to maintain of body fluids and electrolytes balance
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158
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the layrnx made up of?

A
  • The epiglottis
  • the thyroid cartilage
  • the cricoid cartilage
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159
Q

Blood

What inorganic salts can be found in plasma?

A

Inorganic salts:
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Calcium
- Phosphates
- chloride
- Hydrogen Carbonate

This is a solute

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160
Q

Blood

Which protients can be found in plasma?

A

Proteins:
- Albumin
- Gamma Globulin G

this is a solute

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161
Q

Blood

Which organic substances can be found in plasma?

A

Organic substances:
- Glucose
- Amino Acid
- Fat
- Uric acids
- Urea

this is a solute

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162
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the layrnx?

A
  • protect the trachea and lungs from inhalation of food and drink when swallowing
  • our vocal ability
  • helping us with airway clearance through coughing and sneezing.
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163
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the epiglottis ?

A

a cartilage flap that is found behind the tongue, and in front of the larynx

164
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the epliglottis?

A

to protect the trachea from inhaling food and drink

  • to swallow our food, the pharynx widens and the larynx rises in an upward direction so the epigglottis shuts over the layrnx
165
Q

The Respiratory System

What is aspiration?

A

when fluid or food is accidently inhaled into the trachea

chilren have softer and horeshoe shaped epliglottis which makes them more vulnerable to aspiration

166
Q

Blood

What is albumin?

A

The most abundant, making up 70% of plasma proteins.
It is synthesised in the liver and acts as a carrier protein for substances such as lipids and hormones.

167
Q

Blood

What is the role of albumin?

A

maintain plasma osmotic pressure. It can pass through blood capillaries from the intravascular spaces to the interstitial spaces.

168
Q

Blood

What are Globulins?

A

There are 3 types, Alpha, Beta and Gamma. Alpha and Beta help transport lipids and fats soluble vitamins around the body, and gamma helps with immunity.

169
Q

Blood

What is the role of Fibrinogen?

A

Important for blood clotting.

170
Q

Blood

Where are blood cells formed?

A

Blood cells are formed in bone marrow through a process called hemopoiesis. Myeloid tissue is the mixture of fat and blood forming cells is created from a single stem cell.

171
Q

Blood

What are stem cells?

A

Stem cells are unappreciated cells that can form into any type of blood cell.

When stem cells are in bone marrow they can mature into either

172
Q

Blood

What are the functions of stem cells?

A
  • myeloid stem cells help with the production of red blood cells, platelets and majority of white blood cells.
  • lymphoid stem cells, which helps with development of lymphocytes and plasma cells.
173
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the glottis?

A

The glottis sits underneath the epiglottis and is made of a pair of mucous membranes called vocal folds

174
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

detect for foreign particles such as dust, or liquid and triggers a cough to prevent them entering the trachea.
a second line of defence for the trachea.

175
Q

The Respiratory System

How does the glottis signal to the brain stem that it’s found foreign particles?

A

afferent neurones.

The brain stem then interprets this and sends impulses to the diaphragm and muscles around the lungs to triggers the three phases of a cough

176
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the three stages of a cough?

A
  • The inspiration phase: where the diaphragm and muscles around the lungs force inhalation of air.
  • The compressive phase: where the glottis shuts suddenly before the air is exhaled out of the lungs. This causes a forced expiratory effort against the closed glottis, increasing thoracic pressure.
  • The expulsive phase: where the glottis suddenly opens and air rapidly escapes from the lungs and through the mouth.
177
Q

The Respiratory System

What type of cartilidge covers the layrnx?

A

hyaline cartilage

178
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of hyaline cartilidge?

A

provide movement and cushioning between joints and other structures

179
Q

The Rsspiratory System

What is the thyroid cartilage

A

a large structure of hyaline cartilage that covers the front of the larynx.

180
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of hyaline cartilidge?

A
  • Support other cartilage structures and muscles attached to the larynx and neck.
  • Support and protect the vocal cords, as well as provide modulation control of your voice.
181
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of hyaline cartilidge?

A
  • Support other cartilage structures and muscles attached to the larynx and neck.
  • Support and protect the vocal cords, as well as provide modulation control of your voice.
182
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the cricoid cartilage

A
  • a ring of hyaline cartilage that is attached to the trachea at the inferior end of the larynx.
  • It is attached from the thyroid cartilage by cricothyroid ligaments
  • also attaches to the trachea via cricotracheal ligaments
183
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the cricoid cartilage

A
  • a ring of hyaline cartilage that is attached to the trachea at the inferior end of the larynx.
  • It is attached from the thyroid cartilage by cricothyroid ligaments
  • also attaches to the trachea via cricotracheal ligaments
184
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the cricoid cartilage

A
  • a ring of hyaline cartilage that is attached to the trachea at the inferior end of the larynx.
185
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the function of the cricoid cartilage?

A
  • to support vocal ability and also plays a role in supporting the epiglottis
186
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the arytenoid cartilage and it’s function?

A
  • These triangular shaped hyaline cartilages are attached to the vocal chords, and help to form vocal sounds
  • lies near the top of the cricoid cartilage
187
Q

The Respiratory System

What specialist care doe people with a trachesotomy require?

A
  • secretion management
  • tape changes
  • speech and language input
  • humidity considerations.
188
Q

The Respiratory System

How are the lobes in the lungs distributed?

A
  • The right lung has three lobes
  • The left lobe only has two lobes.
  • The left side has to compensate for where the heart lies (has cardiac notch)
189
Q

The Respiratory System

What seperates each lobe in the lung?

A

Pulomanry Fissures

190
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the lungs lined with?

A

a costal surface, which is deliberately rounded to compensate for the structure of the rib

191
Q

The Respiratory System

Where are the lungs located?

A

sit within pleura, connected by connective tissues

192
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the hilum?

A
  • where the bronchus, pulmonary vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels enter each lung.
  • the hilum sits in the the superior mediastinum.
193
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the hilum?

A
  • where the bronchus, pulmonary vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels enter each lung.
  • the hilum sits in the the superior mediastinum.
194
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the hilum?

A
  • where the bronchus, pulmonary vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels enter each lung.
  • the hilum sits in the the superior mediastinum.
195
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the airway structure made up of?

A

layers of:
- mucosa
- submucosa
- hyaline cartilage
- areolar connective tissue (adventitia).

supported by:
- smooth muscle fibres
- elastic connective tissue (to prevent airways from collapsing inwards)

196
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the airway structure made up of?

A

layers of:
- mucosa
- submucosa
- hyaline cartilage
- areolar connective tissue (adventitia).

supported by:
- smooth muscle fibres
- elastic connective tissue (to prevent airways from collapsing inwards)

197
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the airway structure made up of?

A

layers of:
- mucosa
- submucosa
- hyaline cartilage
- areolar connective tissue (adventitia).

supported by:
- smooth muscle fibres
- elastic connective tissue (to prevent airways from collapsing inwards)

198
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the airway structure made up of?

A

layers of:
- mucosa
- submucosa
- hyaline cartilage
- areolar connective tissue (adventitia).

supported by:
- smooth muscle fibres
- elastic connective tissue (to prevent airways from collapsing inwards)

199
Q

The Respiratory System

why are infants and children more vulnerable to airway occlusion?

A

The trachea is made from softer cartilidge in children so they are more at risk when they turn their head

200
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the mucosa?

A
  • mucosa is responsible for maintaining the warm and moist environment.
  • maintained by epithelial and connective tissue
201
Q

The Respiratory System

What type of epithilial cells do the trachea and broncus have?

A
  • Pseudostratified columnar epithelium because of different types of cells within the epithelium.
  • Supported by Lamina propria and a basement membrane
202
Q

The Respiratory System

What type of cells do the trachea and broncus have?

A
  • Ciliated columnar epithelial cells
  • Goblet cells
203
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of ciliated columnar epithelial cells?

A
  • move mucus towards the pharynx in preparation for airway clearance via a cough or sneeze
  • muscociliary escalator
204
Q

The Respiratory System

What are Goblet cells?

A
  • specialist cells that synthesise specialist protein called mucin
  • can be found through-out the trachea, bronchus and bronchioles
  • help to maintain the mucous membrane to provide protection from infections and damage to the airway linings
205
Q

The Respiratory System

What are Goblet cells?

A
  • specialist cells that synthesise specialist protein called mucin
  • can be found through-out the trachea, bronchus and bronchioles
  • help to maintain the mucous membrane to provide protection from infections and damage to the airway linings
206
Q

The Respiratory System

What are Goblet cells?

A
  • specialist cells that synthesise specialist protein called mucin
  • can be found through-out the trachea, bronchus and bronchioles
  • help to maintain the mucous membrane to provide protection from infections and damage to the airway linings
207
Q

The Respiratory System

Where is mucin released?

A

on to the surface of the airway via merocrine secretion

Mucin then reacts with water vapour and inorganic salts such as sodium chloride. This in turn forms a sticky substance called mucous, that can trap particles or foreign bodies such as bacteria and then be moved towards the pharynx via the muscociliary escalator.

208
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the layer underneath the epithelium?

A
  • the Lamina Propria layer: a connective tissue that binds the epithelium with the smooth muscle lining.
  • It also contains blood vessels, nerves and structural proteins that provides a good blood supply and structure
209
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
210
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
211
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
212
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
213
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
214
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
215
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the specialised receptors on the smooth muscle of the trachea and bronchus?

A
  • beta 2 adrenergic receptors: gets triggered by the sympathetic nervous pathway if the airways need to increase the diameter of the airways
  • muscarinic receptors: gets triggered by the parasympathetic nervous system when we are rest to reduce the diameter of the airway.
216
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the submucosa?

A
  • connective tissue layer that helps connect the mucosa with the hyaline cartilage layer that helps provide the airways with their structure,
  • the bronchioles which do not contain cartilage
217
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the submucosa?

A
  • connective tissue layer that helps connect the mucosa with the hyaline cartilage layer that helps provide the airways with their structure,
  • the bronchioles which do not contain cartilage
218
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the submucosa?

A
  • connective tissue layer that helps connect the mucosa with the hyaline cartilage layer that helps provide the airways with their structure,
  • the bronchioles which do not contain cartilage
219
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the submucosa?

A
  • connective tissue layer that helps connect the mucosa with the hyaline cartilage layer that helps provide the airways with their structure,
  • the bronchioles which do not contain cartilage
220
Q

The Respiratory System

What structure on the goblet cells help to increase the surface to aid secretion of mucin?

A

Microvilli

221
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the trachybronchial tree?

A

the network of airways that spreads across our lungs and provide air to our alveoli

222
Q

The Respiratory System

what is the role of the vagus nerve?

A

helps regulate heart rate, digestion

It is why you need to be careful when you suction a patient, as stimulation of the carina caused by a suction catheter can cause sudden bradycardia (low heart rate).

223
Q

The Respiratory System

what is the role of the vagus nerve?

A

helps regulate heart rate, digestion

It is why you need to be careful when you suction a patient, as stimulation of the carina caused by a suction catheter can cause sudden bradycardia (low heart rate).

224
Q

The Respiratory System

Desceribe the differences in the structure of the primary bronchus?

A
  • the primary bronchus on the right side is more vertical, wider and shorter than the left primary bronchus.
  • the right primary bronchus needs to separate into three, whilst the left lung only needs to separate into two
225
Q

The Respiratory System

how many tertiary bronchi are there?

A

10 in each lung

226
Q

The Respiratory System

how many tertiary bronchi are there?

A

10 in each lung

227
Q

The Respiratory System

What does the bronchopulmonary segments include?

A
  • lobules, smaller compartments that contain an arteriole, venule, lymphatic vessel and a branch from a terminal bronchiole
  • which then split further into respiratory bronchioles, which then divide into the alveoli.
228
Q

The Respiratory System

Why do alveoli have a sponge like structure

A

To allow the lungs to inflate/ expand

229
Q

The Respiratory System

Why do alveoli have a sponge like structure

A

To allow the lungs to inflate/ expand

230
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the structure/ linings of the alveoli?

A
  • The alveoli are lined with simple squamous epithelium
  • lined with supportive elastic membrane
231
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the roles of the types of alveoli cells?

A
  • Type 1 alveolar cells (the most abundant): the major site of where gas exchange occurs.
  • Type 2 alveolar cells: are specialist cells that secrete alveolar fluid, which contains a substance called surfactant- helps to reduce surface tension which makes the expansion of the alveoli easier and prevents alveoli from collapsing.
232
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the roles of the types of alveoli cells?

A
  • Type 1 alveolar cells (the most abundant): the major site of where gas exchange occurs.
  • Type 2 alveolar cells: are specialist cells that secrete alveolar fluid, which contains a substance called surfactant- helps to reduce surface tension which makes the expansion of the alveoli easier and prevents alveoli from collapsing.
233
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the macrophages in the alveoli?

A

provide protection against pathogens that may enter the alveoli spaces

234
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the fibroblasts in the alveoli?

A

specialist cells that help produce proteins to main body tissue integrity

235
Q

The Reproductive System

What are male and female gamete cells?

A

Sperm and egg cells

236
Q

The Reproductive System

Why do boys have an increase in testosterone during puberty?

A

triggered by luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary gland that triggers interstitial cells in the testes to produce testosterone

237
Q

The Reproductive System

Why do boys have growth spurts during puberty?

A
  • a result of increasing testosterone production in the testes
  • combines with other hormones such as thyroxine and cortisol to stimulate muscle and bone growth
238
Q

The Reproducitve System

What does testosterone produciton trigger

A
  • Sperm cell production (Spermatogenesis) - this can lead to seminal discharge (wet dreams) due to the development of seminal vesicles which help produce semen.
  • Testicular and penis growth - outward signs of changes or recognition of sexual organs
  • Axilla and Pubic hair growth
  • Skeletal and Muscle growth - particularly in the shoulders and in height.
  • Changes in Sweat and Sebaceous glands - this makes sweat more odorous, increases risk of developing acne on the skin due to block sebaceous glands.
  • Change in libido - increasing testosterone levels increase sexual thoughts and desires.
239
Q

The Reproductive System

What is puberty in girls?

A

The ovaries produce hormones oestrogen, progesterone and androgens that help trigger the changes during puberty.

240
Q

The Reproductive System

Hormones during female puberty

A
  • the hypothalamus starts releasing luteinizing hormones and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • triggers increasing production of oestrogen, progesterone and androgens.
  • FSH causes maturation of the ovum while luteinizing hormones trigger theca cells to produce androgens.
241
Q

The Reproductive System

What does sexual hormone changes trigger in girls?

A
  • Production of egg cells (Oogenesis)
  • Enlargement of the breasts, vagina and uterus.
  • Triggers the onset of menarche - the first period, will then turn into the menstrual cycle.
  • Skeletal growth and widening of the pelvis - caused by androgens from the adrenal glands.
  • Axilla and pubic hair growth
  • Changes in Sweat and Sebaceous glands - this makes sweat more odorous, increases risk of developing acne on the skin due to block sebaceous glands.
  • Change in libido - increasing levels of hormones which increase sexual thoughts and desire
242
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the primary responsibilites of the male reproductive system?

A
  • The production and maintenance of sperm.
  • Production of the transport fluid called semen to transport sperm.
  • The discharge of sperm during sexual intercourse.
  • Production and secretion of male specific reproductive hormones.
243
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the male reproductive system include?

A
  • The Testes and Scrotum
  • The Male Duct System
  • The Prostate Gland
  • The Penis
244
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the male reproductive system include?

A
  • The Testes and Scrotum
  • The Male Duct System
  • The Prostate Gland
  • The Penis
245
Q

The Reproductive System

What is an acrosome?

A

a pocket of enzymes used to help with penetration of the egg cell

246
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the sperm head contain?

A

the cell’s nucleus which has chromosomes essential for the creation of a foetus

247
Q

The Reproductive System

What does the sperm head contain?

A

the cell’s nucleus which has chromosomes essential for the creation of a foetus

248
Q

The Reproductive System

Why does the neck of the sperm cell contain a high number of mitochondria?

A

provides the sperm cell with energy whilst trying to locate an egg cell after ejaculation from the penis

249
Q

The Reproductive System

Why does the neck of the sperm cell contain a high number of mitochondria?

A

provides the sperm cell with energy whilst trying to locate an egg cell after ejaculation from the penis

250
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Spermatogenesis?

A
  • The production of sperm
  • a healthy individual can produce around 100 million sperm a day
251
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Spermatogenesis?

A
  • The production of sperm
  • a healthy individual can produce around 100 million sperm a day
252
Q

The Reproductive System

Talk through the process of spermatogenisis

A
  • starts with a sperm stem cell going through mitosis to form** primary spermatocytes**.
  • Primary spermatocytes at this point will have 46 chromosomes.
  • cell division then continues through meiosis, to create secondary spermatocytes.
  • The genetic material will not be identical in each secondary spermatocytes, and will contain 23 chromosomes, increasing the variability of what genes are passed on to an offspring.
  • Further meiosis will then produce spermatids, which will also contain 23 chromosomes.
  • Within the seminiferous tubules in the testes, a spermatid will mature into a sperm cell over 65-75 days.
253
Q

The Reproductive System

Which systme is the penis part of?

A
  • the genitourinary tract
  • encompasses the male reproductive system and urinary system, as both sperm and urine pass out of the male urethra.
254
Q

The Reproductive System

Which system is the penis part of?

A
  • the genitourinary tract
  • encompasses the male reproductive system and urinary system, as both sperm and urine pass out of the male urethra.
255
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the glans penis?

A
  • an attached root that connects the shaft and tip of the penis
  • covered with a layer of skin called foreskin which provides protection to the sensitive glans penis whilst the penis is flaccid
256
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Inside the penis shaft?

A
  • a spongy network of connective tissue and blood vessels, called erectile tissue
257
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Inside the penis shaft?

A
  • a spongy network of connective tissue and blood vessels, called erectile tissue
258
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens when the penis is sexually excited by parasympathetic neural stimuli?

A
  • encouraged by hormonal changes, the blood vessels fill with blood which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.
  • This provides sperm more opportunity to be ejaculated nearer to the female ova.
259
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens when the penis is sexually excited by parasympathetic neural stimuli?

A
  • encouraged by hormonal changes, the blood vessels fill with blood which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.
  • This provides sperm more opportunity to be ejaculated nearer to the female ova.
260
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens when the penis is sexually excited by parasympathetic neural stimuli?

A
  • encouraged by hormonal changes, the blood vessels fill with blood which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.
  • This provides sperm more opportunity to be ejaculated nearer to the female ova.
261
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Erectile dysfunction?

A
  • a condition where where either someone cannot maintain an erection that is deemed sufficient for satisfactory sexual intercourse, or they struggle to get hard enough for sexual intercourse
  • the penis is a highly vascular structure, meaning that even small changes can make a big difference to circulation to the penis
262
Q

The Reproductive System

What is Erectile dysfunction?

A
  • a condition where where either someone cannot maintain an erection that is deemed sufficient for satisfactory sexual intercourse, or they struggle to get hard enough for sexual intercourse
  • the penis is a highly vascular structure, meaning that even small changes can make a big difference to circulation to the penis
263
Q

The Reproductive System

What are The testes?

A
  • the place where sperm is produced, here is often a pair of testes contained within a scrotal sac
264
Q

The Reproductive System

Why do he testes hang outside the body?

A
  • the sperm need to be maintained at 3C (lower than the core body temperature)
  • This increases the life and production of sperm.
265
Q

The Reproductive System

Describe the structure of the testes

A
  • split into about 250 wedge-shaped lobules that consist of four tightly coiled seminiferous tubules.
  • Within these tubules is where you will find spermatogenic cells.
  • Leydig cells sit within the spaces between the tubules and produce testosterone.
  • Each lobule connect to a straight tubule called the rete testis, which connects to the efferent tubules and epididymis.
  • The epididymis connects to the vas deferens which will then run upwards out of the testes towards the seminal vesicle and prostate.
  • Layers of smooth muscle contract to help squeeze sperm and fluids through the tubules and out of the testes.
266
Q

The Reprodctive System

What is the cremasteric reflex?

A

The scrotal sac has the ability to either pull the testes closer to the pelvic floor in response to cold environments, or become loose in response to warm environments.

267
Q

The Reprodctive System

What is the cremasteric reflex?

A

The scrotal sac has the ability to either pull the testes closer to the pelvic floor in response to cold environments, or become loose in response to warm environments.

268
Q

The Reprodctive System

What is the cremasteric reflex?

A
  • The scrotal sac has the ability to either pull the testes closer to the pelvic floor in response to cold environments, or become loose in response to warm environments.
  • control by the cremaster muscles which is part of the spermatic cord.
269
Q

The reproductive system

What is the epididymis?

A
  • a comma shaped duct that is coiled
  • it is made up of cilia, epithelial tissue and smooth muscle
  • the sperm can sit within ithe epididymis to further mature and become ready for fertalisation
270
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the male duct system?

A

A system which starts from the epididymis to the urethra where semen with sperm is ejactulated

271
Q

The Reproductive System

How are sperm cells transported to the ejaculatory ducts?

A
  • Smooth muscle contractions generate peristalic action which moves sperm from the epididymis inot the vas deferens
  • once they reach the ejactulatory ducts they enter the prostate gland before being discharged into the urethra
272
Q

The Reproductive System

Where is the prostate gland located/ responsible for?

A
  • located inferior to the bladder
  • responsible for secreting prostatic fluid into the prastatic urethra to produce semen
273
Q

The Reproductive System

Where is semen produced?

A
  • Semen is produced by the seminal vesicle which sits near the prostate
  • it is designed to maintain and activate sperm during ejaculation
274
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the function prostatic fluid?

A
  • makes semen slightly alkaline to combat the acidity of the vaginal tract to help maintain the life of sperm.
  • neutralises the urethra in the penis which would have been exposed to acidic urine.
275
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the female reproductive system is made up of?

A
  • The Ovaries
  • Fallopian tubes
  • The Uterus
  • The Vagina
  • The External Genitalia
  • The Breasts
276
Q

The Reporductive System

What are the primary responsibilities of the female reproduction system?

A
  • The production, development of a foetus after impregnation via sexual intercourse or artificial insemination.
  • Production of milk to nourish a newly born baby.
  • Maintaining a monthly cycle to prepare the uterus to receive a fertilised egg - the menstrual cycle.
277
Q

The Reporductive System

Define Oocytes

A

the female gamete germ cells

basically immature egg cells

278
Q

The Reporductive System

Define Follicles

A

protective structure formed in the ovaries that allow oocytes to develop and mature

279
Q

The Reporductive System

How do oogonia multiply?

A
  • mitosis: and can reach up to 2 to 4 million oogonia.
  • A certain amount of oogonia will then form into primary oocytes
  • as a result of starting meiosis phase 1.
  • Any oogonia that has not started meiosis will degenerate.
  • These primary oocytes then develop primary follicles to develop in.
280
Q

The Reporductive System

A
281
Q

The Reporductive System

What are Primary follicles are made up of?

A

a single layer of granulosa cells

single layer cause it one granule

282
Q

The Reporductive System

What happens to primary follicles once a girl is born?

A

These follicles will then lie dormant until stimulated during puberty, with the oocytes being paused at meiosis prophase I

283
Q

The Reporductive System

What triggers the start of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • LH (leutenising hormones)
  • FSH (follicile stimulating hormones)
284
Q

The Reporductive System

How do primary follicles develop into secondary follicles?

A

more layers of granulosa cells form

285
Q

The Reporductive System

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A
  • the production and secretion of oestrogen and progesterone
  • allowing follicles to develop ready for ovulation.
286
Q

The Reporductive System

What happens during ovulation?

A
  • an immature egg cell is released,
  • the remaining follicle becomes a** corpus luteum. **
287
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the role of the corpus luteum?

A
  • the maintenance of the uterus lining during the menstrual cycle- it secretes oestrogen and progesterone.
  • If the egg cell is not fertilised, the corpus luteum shrinks and oestrogen and progesterone levels reduce, resulting in the endometrium breaking down, resulting in a period.
  • If fertilisation occurs, then the corpus luteum is maintained.
288
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the role of the fallopian tube?

A
  • contains layers smooth muscle, ciliated and non-ciliated cells and thick mucosa.
  • allows the egg cell to be nourished in mucous secretions produced by non-ciliated cells
  • allow the egg cell to travel down the fallopian tube assisted by the ciliated cells and smooth muscle peristaltic action towards the uterus.
289
Q

The Reporductive System

How are ovarian cyts formed?

A
  • when the corpus luteum can continue to persist despite normal ovulation
290
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the role of the cervix?

A
  • provide a pathway for sperm to reach the unfertilised egg
  • the production of cervical mucous the consistency varies during the menstrual cycle:
    1. It is thin and serous to allow sperm through during the most fertile period of the menstrual cycle.
    2. At other times the mucous will thicken to prevent sperm from entering the uterus.
  • acts as a protective barrier against pathogens entering the uterus during a developing pregnancy
  • forms a tight seal know as a cervical mucous plug to prevent amniotic fluid from leaking out of the uterus.
291
Q

The Reporductive System

How do oral contraceptive pills work?

A
  • thickens the cervical mucous which prevents sperm from entering the uterus
  • inhibiting hormones to prevent ovulation to occur
292
Q

The Reporductive System

What are the different layers of the uterus?

A
  • The outer layer is the perimetrium which lines alongside the peritoneum.
  • The middle layer is called the myometrium which is the muscular wall of the uterus- allows contractions to happen during menstruation and childbirth.
  • The inner lining is the endometrium which is a specialist epithelial layer that adapts during the menstrual cycle.
293
Q

The Reporductive System

What is endometriosis?

A
  • Tissue similar to the endometrium can sometimes grow in other places such as the fallopian tubes and ovaries.
    Symptoms include:
    Period pain that would stop you performing day to day tasks
    Pain when passing urine or opening bowels.
    Having difficulty getting pregnant.
    Lower tummy or back pain.
    Heavier periods
    Pain during or after sexual intercourse.
294
Q

The Reporductive System

What is the role of the vagina?

A
  • a thin-walled fibromuscular structure
  • acts as the passageway for the delivery of a baby during labour
  • acts as a canal for menstrual flow.
295
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the three layers of the vagina?

A
  • A** smooth muscle muscularis** that provides structure and support of the vagina.
  • An** outer fibroelastic adventitia layer **that acts as connective tissue layer for further support and slightly elasticity.
  • The** inner mucosa layer **which consist of transverse ridges that help stimulate the penis during intercourse to encourage ejaculation.
296
Q

The Reproductive System

Why is semen slighly alkaline?

A
  • Increase the chances of fertilising the ovulated egg
  • The vagina environment is normally acidic to help protect it from pathogens, but it can also be effective against sperm.
297
Q

The Reproductive System

What are the key structures of the vulva?

A
  • **The Mons Pubis **- a fatty area that is covered with pubic hair that develops from puberty.
  • **The Labia Majora and Labia Minora **- these are two skin folds that protect the opening of the urethra and vagina. The Labia Majora is the outer layer which can also be covered with pubic hair.
  • **The Clitoris **- Located anterior of the labia minora, this highly vascular and sensory area can become swollen and sensitive when stimulated during sexual activity. It is protected by inner folds of the vulva that form a hood of skin called the clitoral hood.
298
Q

The Reproductive System

What is the role of the breasts (mammary glands)?

A

providing nourishment for a newborn baby in the form of milk

299
Q

The Reproductive System

How is milk is produced in the lobes of the breast?

A
  • one breast can contain 15-25 lobes.
  • Within each lobe are lobules that contain alveoli that help produce milk.
  • Prolactin is the hormone that controls the production of milk in the breasts.
  • Milk travels from the alveoli into the nipples via ducts called laciferous ducts.
300
Q

The Reproductive System

How are the mammary glands (breasts) protected?

A
  • adipose tissue and connective tissue that attaches to the muscle facia to provide the breasts with structure and support during daily living.
  • the areola which is a ring-shaped pigmented skin covering that contains glands (around the nipple) produce sebum to prevent the skin around the nipples drying and cracking.
301
Q

The Reproductive System

What are all the stages of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • The Menstrual Phase (day 1-5)
  • The Follicular Phase (day 1-13)
  • The Ovulation phase (day 14)
  • The Luteal phase (day 15-28)
302
Q

The Reproductive System

What hapens during The Menstrual Phase (day 1-5)?

A
  • the inner lining of the uterus sheds which contains soft tissue and blood vessels in the form of menstrual fluid
  • Blood loss and abdominal cramps occur due to contraction of the uterine and abdominal muscles to excrete the menstrual fluid.
303
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Follicular Phase (day 1-13)?

A
  • Starts on the first day of the menstrual cycle
  • starts with the pituitary gland secreting follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in response to low levels of oestrogen and progesterone.
  • This stimulate egg cells to grow in the ovaries and the uterus to develop a lining of blood vessels and soft tissue called the endometrium.
  • An egg cell will then mature into a follicle which can take up to 13 days.
304
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Ovulation phase (day 14)?

A
  • Release of luteinizing hormones in response to a peak level of oestrogen
  • stimulates the release of the most mature egg cell, or in some cases egg cells, from the ovary.
  • The egg cell is helped along by cilia of the fimbriae found in the fallopian tubes.
305
Q

The Reproductive System

What happens during The Luteal phase (day 15-28)?

A
  • the egg cell stays in the fallopian tube for 24 hours waiting for sperm cells to impregnate it.
  • If sperm cells do not impregnate the egg cells within the 24 hours, the egg cell will disintegrate.
  • The egg cell will leave behind it’s shell called the corpus luteum, which triggers progesterone release.
  • Progesterone will maintain the endometrium until it runs out, which will subsequently coincide with a drop in oestrogen levels.
306
Q

The Respiratory System

What does Boyles Law state?

A

“The pressure exerted by a gas (of a given mass, kept at a constant temperature) is inversely proportional to the volume occupied by it.”

307
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the mechanisms of breathing during inhalation?

A
  • The diaphragm contracts and flattens downwards.
  • At the same time, the muscles between the ribs contract and pull the ribs upwards.
  • This increases the size of the thoracic cavity (increasing lung volume), and reduces thoracic pressure.
  • This results in air rushing into the lungs.
308
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe the mechanisms of breathing suring exhalation?

A
  • The diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards
  • the muscles between the ribs relax and the ribs move back downwards.
  • This reduces the size of the thoracic cavity (decreasing lung volume), and increases thoracic pressure due to a limit space.
  • This results in air rushing out of the lungs.
309
Q

The Respiratory System

What is the role of the chemoreceptors?

A

Triggers breathing through the carbon dioxide levels in blood

310
Q

The Respiratory System

What are the types of chemoreceptors?

A

-** Central chemoreceptors** - located in the medulla oblongata and these receptors are mostly sensitive to changes in** pCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide in blood) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**.

-** Peripheral chemoreceptors -** located in the aortic arch and carotid sinus and these chemoreceptors are most sensitive to changes in pCO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in blood) and blood pH.

311
Q

The Respiratory System

Describe how chemoreceptors function

A
  • Changes in carbon dioxide in the blood triggers changes in neural stimulation of the receptors
  • this stimulates the respiratory centre in the medulla.
  • efferent neural signals are sent to the muscles around the lungs (diaphragm and intercostal muscles)
  • this triggers increasing contractions of the muscles if the carbon dioxide level rise (causing our breathing to be faster and deeper)
  • or reduce muscle activity if carbon dioxide levels are low (causing our breathing to slow down).
312
Q

The Respiratory System

What does Dalton’s Law state?

A

A number of gases exerting a pressure within a gaseous mixture can be totalled to a total pressure

313
Q

The Respiratory System

What does the alveoli membrane need to be able to difuse oxygen?

A

the partial pressure of oxygen needs to be higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood

314
Q

The Respiratory System

What does Dalton’s law state?

A

“The amount of dissolved gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid.”

315
Q

The Respiratory System

What does pulse oximetry test?

A

captures how saturated our haemoglobin is with oxygen molecules

316
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the integumentary system?

A

provides protection from trauma, pathogens, radiation, heat, chemicals etc.

317
Q

The Integumentary System

What does the integumentary system include?

A
  • The Skin
  • Our Hair
  • Our Nails
  • Sweat glands
  • Oil glands (Sebaceous glands)
318
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the functions of the skin?

A
  • A potective barrier- work to shield you from environmental factors, such as excessive sunlight, infections, abrasions
  • Sense- has structures called receptors (cutaneous sensory receptors), they receive stimuli from the outside environment and send messages to brains. They register all different sensation we associate with touch.
  • Storage of blood - about 5% of your entire blood volume is retained in your skin at any given time, if you need more supply to an organ, your nervous system constricts your dermal blood vessels to squeeze that extra blood into circulation.
  • Regulation of body temperature- the body can excrete about half a litre of sweat a day to keep you at a comfortable temperature, this is called insensible perspiration. When its gets cold you can loose a lot of heat due to having so much warm blood behind it. To regulate this your dermal blood vessel constrict, which causes your blood to go deeper
  • Vitamin D- it is the only vitamin the body can produce on it own. The skin cells contain molecule that coverts to vitamin D when it comes into contact UV light. Vitamin D is vital for the production of bone cells.
  • Excretion of waste – a small amount of waste is eliminated via sweat.
319
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the different layers of the skin?

A
  • The Epidermis
  • The Dermis
  • The Hypodermis
320
Q

The Integumentary System

What is melanin produced from?

A

melanocytes

321
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of melanin?

A

to protect the skin from sun exposure

when we go to hotter countries or countries nearer the equator, you will most likely develop a ‘tan’ because the skins responds to the increasing sun exposure

322
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should a Intramuscular injection be?

A

90 Degrees

323
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should a subcutaneous injection be?

A

45 Degrees

324
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should an Intravenous injection be?

A

25 Degrees

325
Q

The Integumentary System

What angle should an Intradermal injection be?

A

10-15 Degrees

326
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the 3 barrier functions of skin?

A
  • Physical Barier:
  • a continual barrier against the environment is paramount to protect the internal structures of the body.
  • maintain a waterproof and strong surface that can reduce harm
  • designed to let substances in, for example it will allow oxygen, carbon dioxide, fat-soluble vitamins and steroids
  • Chemical Barrier:
  • maintain a pH of 5.5 thanks to flora such as bacteria and fungi that live on the skin.
  • pH is a result of pathogens metabolising fatty acids and sebum on the surface of the skin.
  • Biological Barrier:
  • immune protection from pathogens that could enter the skin.
  • The epidermis contains dendritic cells whilst the dermis contains macrophages that act as a second line of defence against pathogens that have managed to get through the epidermis.
327
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the epidermis made up of?

A
  • dead cells
  • constantly regenerate to ensure that it is providing the best barrier against external factors
328
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Keratinocytes cells in the epidermis?

A
  • occupies about 95% of the epidermis
  • produce a fibrous protein called keratin which is used to maintain the protective integrity of the skin
  • undergo mitosis to help regenerate
329
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Langerhan (dendritic) cells in the epidermis?

A
  • form part of the immune system
  • responds to external antigens that affect the skin
  • regulate production of antibodies that trigger macrophages to move in and destroy foreign pathogens.
  • UV light can damage these cells
330
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Melanocytes cells in the epidermis?

A
  • produces melanin which is a brown pigment
  • designed to protect the skin from sun exposure
  • When melanin is produced, it is transferred to the keratinocytes.
331
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the purpose of Merkel cells in the epidermis?

A
  • in contact with sensory neurones
  • act as mechanoreceptors to help with the sensation of touch.
332
Q

The Integumentary System

How does The Stratum Corneum impact the epidermis?

A
  • contains 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes
  • also contains keratin that provides a waterproof layer for the skin
333
Q

The Integumentary System

What causes sunburn?

A

UVB rays penetrate the epidermis
- Long term or multiple exposure can cause skin cancer to develop
- one of the top 10 most common cancers in people.

334
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Lucidum cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • A thin layer of 2-3 rows of dead flat keratinocytes
  • reduce any fluid loss through the skin.
  • only found in areas that require particular protection e.g. the soles of the feet / the palms of the hands
335
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Granulosum cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • contains keratinocytes that are very close to dying due to losing their nuclei
  • start to flatten and as they disintegrate, they release granules that provide a water resistant lipid called lamellar granules
  • it is particularly important to slow down water loss across the epidermis and prevent entry of pathogens.
336
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Spinosum (prickle) cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • they develop spines on the surface which encourages the cells to pack together tightly.
  • responsible for providing integrity, flexibility and strength to the skin.
337
Q

The Integumentary System

How do Stratum Basale cells influence the epidermis?

A
  • the deepest layer of the epidermis
  • where new keratinocytes are regenerated through mitosis
  • produce daughter cells which push cells above it upwards which causes this constant regeneration of the epidermis
  • a basement membrane which has high amounts of collagen that provides structural support for the epidermis
  • regulates the entry of cells and nutrients from the dermis to the epidermis.
338
Q

The Integumentary System

A
339
Q

The Integumentary System

A
340
Q

The Integumentary System

A
341
Q

The Integumentary System

How much of the total body weight in humans is the dermis?

A

15%

342
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the dermis?

A
  • provide support and nutrients to the epidermis.
  • collagen, elastin and fibrous protein, holding within it major structures that contribute to maintaining skin health
343
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the 2 layers of the dermis?

A
  • the papillary dermis (layer)
  • the reticular dermis (layer)
344
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the papillary dermis?

A
  • The split between the epidermis and dermis
  • can be seen by a wave like connective tissue layer.
  • made up of a combination of collagen (to provide strength) and elastic fibres (to provide stretch and recoil ability).
  • White blood cells such as phagocytes can also be found in high numbers within small blood vessels to provide additional protection against pathogens.
345
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of the reticular dermis layer?

A
  • accounts to about 80% of the dermis.
  • contains thick bundles of collagen which help provide the skin the strength
  • protects us from external damage
  • elastic fibres within the reticular layer that helps provide the skin with it’s recoil ability, the ability to regain it’s shape after stretching.
  • age and UV radiation exposure from the sun can degenerate the elastin fibres.
346
Q

The Integumentary System

What are your nails made of?

A

a tough polymer structure called alpha-keratin.

347
Q

The Integumentary System

What do the appendages incldue??

A
  • the glands
  • nails
  • hair follicles
  • hair
348
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of nails?

A
  • provide protection to the fingertips,
  • assist with picking up objects or manipulating objects to make them easier to open
349
Q

The Integumentary System

Which part of the nail produces new nail cells?

A

the lunula

We can see the nail matrix as the white patch near the bottom of the nail

350
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the seal that protects the nail called?

A
  • the eponychiam and cuticle
  • the paronychium (the sides of the nails)
351
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the nail plate covered in?

A

nerve tissue

352
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the layer underneath the free edge of your nails called?

A

the hyponychium, which forms a seal to protect the nail bed from external factors

353
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the function of hair?

A

hair is designed to protect us from heat loss

354
Q

The Integumentary System

A
355
Q

The Integumentary System

A
356
Q

The Integumentary System

A
357
Q

The Integumentary System

What is hair made up of?

A
  • columns of dead keratinized epithelial cells
  • bound together by extracellular protein.
  • A single hair consists of the hair follicle
358
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the papilla?

A
  • The bulb which protects the hair
  • contains capillaries that nourish cells in the hair follicle with oxygen and nutrients.
  • surrounded by hair matrix which generates keratin to pushes forward older keratin cells (hair growth)
359
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the arrector pili muscle?

A

Muscle that causes the hair shaft (the part of the hair follicle that protrudes through the skin) to become erect when triggered by sympathetic neural stimul

360
Q

The Integumentary System

How do the sebaceous glands impact hair?

A
  • Releases sebum that prevents the hair shaft from drying out and becoming brittle
  • reduces the amount of water lost via evaporation, to help with heat loss management.
361
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the three stages of hair growth?

A

The Anagen phase
- where the most active growing of hair happens. The hair matrix divides which leads to the growth of the hair
- allows the hair to grow 0.5-1cm every 28 days depending on the type of hair follicles we have genetically inherited.
- can last up to 4-8 years.
- plucking or waxing hair can impact growth of hair.

The Catagen phase
- hair has a regression phase, signalling the end of active growth of hair.
- turns into club hair and this phase can last up to 3 weeks.
- A bulb of keratin forms at the bulb of the hair which cuts off blood supply from the cells that produce new hair to the hair shaft.
- Simultaneously, new hair will start to grow underneath.

**The Telogen phase **
- often referred to as the resting phase.
- where hair falls out or shreds, allowing for new hair to grow in its place.
- Factors such as stress, poor diet and lack of nutrients can trigger a delayed telogen phase which causes more hair to fall out.

362
Q

The Integumentary System

Where do you not find Eccrine (sweat glands)?

A

the ear canals, nail beds and labia

363
Q

The Integumentary System

Where are Apocrine glands found?

A

under the arm pits (axilla), groin, ear canal, eye lids and around the nipples on breasts.

364
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the functions of apocrine glands?

A
  • sweat glands that lie deeper in the skin than eccrine glands.
  • produce an odourless lipid substance that when in contact with bacteria will omit an odour (body odour-the body’s cue to wash the skin and maintain hygiene)
365
Q

The Integumentary System

What are Ceruminous glands?

A
  • modified apocrine glands that are found in the lining of the external ear
  • produce cerumen (or ear wax) that provides a protective but sticky layer to prevent any pathogens entering the ear canal
366
Q

The Integumentary System

What are the 2 two blood vessel networks in th subcutaneous layer?

A
  • The Superficial Vascular Plexus
  • The Deep Vascular Plexus
367
Q

The Integumentary System

What is The superficial vascular plexus?

A
  • a network of interconnecting arterioles and venules that can split off to capillary loops within the dermal ridges.
  • help supply oxygen and nutrients to the epidermis and dermis.
368
Q

The Integumentary System

What is The deep vascular plexus?

A

a network of interconnecting arterioles and venules that splits off to capillaries around the subcutaneous tissue layer, and other key structures within the dermis such as the glands and hair follicles

369
Q

The Integumentary System

What is the subcutaneous layer made of?

A
  • adipose (a loose connective tissue)
  • It contains cells called adipocytes that help to store triglycerides.
370
Q

The Endocrine System

What are endocrine glands?

A
  • glands that are stimulated by neural pathways, and release hormones when needed for a particular body function.
  • can also be triggered by other hormones and chemical receptors in the blood.
371
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the endocrine system responsible for?

A
  • Growth and development
  • Stress responses
  • Sexual development and arousal
  • Glucose and mineral regulation
  • Control of weight
  • Emotional regulation
  • Responding to changes in environmental factors, e.g. temperature changes, dehydration etc.
372
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the two types of hormones?

A

water-soluble and lipid-soluble hormones

373
Q

The Endocrine System

What are water-soluble hormones?

A
  • soluble in water
  • can be easily transported in the bloodstream without the need of a plasma protein.
  • require receptors on cell membrane to trigger reactions within the cytoplasm, mostly enzyme related reactions.
  • can either change the permeability of the cell membrane or trigger the activation of other molecules within the cell.
374
Q

The Endocrine System

What are lipid-soluble hormones?

A
  • able to pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane and bind to receptors inside the cell nucleus.
  • Examples include thyroid and steroid hormones which can directly control the function of the cells to produce more proteins via transcription.
  • helps with growth and maintaining body function.
  • require transportation from plasma proteins
375
Q

The Endocrine System

What conditions cause hormones to be stimulated?

A
  • Environmental factors such as stress, temperature changes and physical activity
  • The presence of stimulating (tropic) hormones-often released to trigger further release of another hormone from another gland.
  • Changes in internal factors in the body, such as electrolyte levels, blood pressure, blood glucose etc.
  • Positive-feedback homeostatic mechanisms which require further hormonal regulation - such as contractions during childbirth.
376
Q

The Endocrine System

What conditions cause hormones to be inhibited?

A
  • When environmental factors changes
  • The presence of inhibitory hormones that can either interfere with receptors or trigger over glands
  • When internal homeostasis is stabilising back to normal range.
  • Negative-feedback homeostatic mechanisms which identifies a high level of hormones being produced
377
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the hypothalamus responsible for?

A

functions such as:
- growth
- control of hunger and thirst
- thermoregulation
- sexual development
- regulation of stress defences.

378
Q

The Endocrine System

Where does the hypothalamus send hormones?

A
  • the anterior pituitary gland (releases hormones depending on stimulation from the hypothalamus)
  • the prosterior pituitary gland (store and release hormones depending on the body’s needs)
379
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A
  • produce the hormone melatonin
  • regulation and control of circadian rhythms and inducement of drowsiness
380
Q

The Endocrine System

How do photoreceptor impact the pieneal gland?

A
  • Photoreceptors in the retina when stimulated by sunlight inhibit the production of melatonin
  • The pineal gland is active during low-light and darkness, which is why we get drowsy and feel tired during evenings
381
Q

The Endocrine System

Which hormones are produced by the thyroid gland?

A
  • Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3) - these regulate metabolism, stimulates body oxygen and energy consumption, influences the activity of the nervous system and promotes protein synthesis. Produces metabolic rates and energy usage in the body.
    Calcitonin - this is released in response to increasing calcium ions in the bloodstream. It promotes reabsorption of calcium into the matrix of the bones.
382
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the thymus responisible for?

A
  • responsible for the differentiation of primitive leukocytes and maturation of T-cells as part of the immune system.
383
Q

The Endocrine System

What are the 2 structures in the adrenal galnd?

A
  • The adrenal cortex is the outer layer and this part produces cortical hormones - glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens.
  • The adrenal medulla produces the hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline if stimulated by sympathetic neural channels of the autonomic nervous system
384
Q

The Endocrine System

A
385
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of the adrenaline and noradrenaline hormones?

A
  • the fight or flight response
  • boosting oxygen and glucose supply to the brain and muscles by increasing heart rate and stroke volume
  • Reduces blood flow to organs and structures not needed in emergencies
386
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the functions of Gonadocorticoids?

A

Masculinization in both male and females

387
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the functions of the Glucocorticoid hormones?

A
  • Stimulates gluconeogenesis and fat breakdown in adipose tissue,
  • increasing glucose availability in the blood.
  • It also promotes metabolism and inhibits inflammation and immunological responses to protect the body against stress.
  • Inhibits protein synthesis and glucose uptake in muscles and adipose tissue.
388
Q

The Endocrine System

What is the function of Mineralocorticoids hormones?

A
  • Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the kidneys which helps increase sodium and water levels in the blood
  • Stimulates secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions
389
Q

The Endocrine System

What is a heterocrine gland?

A

contains both endocrine and exocrine tissue

390
Q

The Endocrine System

What are Alpha Cells responsible for in the pancreas?

A
  • responsible for the release of the hormone glycogon in response to falling blood glucose levels.
  • It triggers liver and muscle cells to breakdown glycogen into glucose and release this into the bloodstream.
  • This increases the blood glucose levels.
391
Q

The Endocrine System

What are Beta cells responsible for in the pancreas?

A
  • Beta cells - these cells are responsible for the release of insulin in response to higher blood glucose levels.
  • Insulin encourages cells to absorb free glucose from the blood where it can be stored or used for respiration.
  • This reduces the blood glucose levels.
392
Q

The Endocrine System

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

results from the body’s failure to produce insulin in response to high blood glucose levels.

393
Q

The Endocrine System

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

results from the body’s failure to produce insulin in response to high blood glucose levels.

394
Q

The Immune System

What are the four main groups of microorganisms?

A
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • bacteria
  • parasites
395
Q

The Immune System

Describe the characteristics of bacteria

A
  • single-celled organisms that do not have a nucleus
  • prokaryotic cells
  • have free strands of DNA
  • have the ability to rapidly multiply when given the right conditions to do so, through binary fission.
396
Q

The Immune System

Describe the characteristics of viruses

A
  • not living organisms
  • do not demonstrate all seven characteristics of life.
  • protein coated strains that contain lengths of DNA.
  • viruses replicate themselves within human cells.
  • more difficult to combat than bacteria
  • cannot be treated with antibiotics
397
Q

The Immune System

A
398
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The Immune System

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399
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The Immune System

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400
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The Immune System

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401
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The Immune System

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402
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The Immune System

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403
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The Immune System

A
404
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The Immune System

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405
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The Immune System

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406
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The Immune System

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Principals of Nursing (3 decks)

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