Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

Learning objectives

A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Bell’s palsy

A

• Idiopathic lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Bell’s palsy

A
  • IDIOPATHIC
  • 60% are preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection
  • This suggests that it has a viral or post-viral aetiology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy

A

• Most cases: 20-50 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy

A

• Prodrome of pre-auricular pain (in some cases)
• This is followed by unilateral facial weakness and droop
• Maximum severity: 1-2 days
• 50% experience facial, neck or ear pain or numbness
• Hyperacuisis
o This is due to stapedius paralysis
• Loss of taste (uncommon)
• Tearing or drying of exposed eye
o Because it may be difficult to close the eye fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recognise the signs of Bell’s palsy on physical examination

A

• Lower motor neurone weakness of facial muscles
o Affects ipsilateral muscles of facial expression
o Does NOT spare the muscles of the upper part of the face (unlike upper motor neurone facial nerve palsy)
• Bell’s Phenomenon
o Eyeball rolls up but the eye remains open when trying to close their eyes
• Despite reporting unilateral facial numbness, clinical testing of sensation is normal
• Examine the ears to check for other causes of facial nerve palsy (e.g. otitis media, herpes zoster infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy

A
  • Usually unnecessary (except for excluding other causes)

* EMG - may show local axonal conduction block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Generate a management plan for Bell’s palsy

A

• Protection of cornea with protective glasses/patches or artificial tears
• High-dose corticosteroids is useful within 72 hrs
o Only given if Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome is excluded
• Surgery - lateral tarsorrhaphy (suturing the lateral parts of the eyelids together)
o Performed if imminent or established corneal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify possible complications of Bell’s palsy

A

• Corneal ulcers
• Eye infection
• Aberrant reinnervation
o E.g. Blinking may cause contraction of the angle of the mouth due to aberrant sympathetic innervation of orbicularis oculi and oris
o Crocodile Tears Syndrome - parasympathetic fibres may aberrantly reinnervate the lacrimal glands causing tearing whilst salivating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Bell’s palsy

A

• 85-90% recover function within 2-12 weeks with or without treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Tumours of the central nervous system.
  • NOTE: brain tumours cannot be truly differentiated into benign and malignant because supposedly ‘benign’ tumours can cause significant morbidity and mortality

Instead they are differentiated into:

High-Grade = a tumour that grows rapidly and aggressively
• Glioma and glioblastoma multiforme
• Primary cerebral lymphoma
• Medulloblastoma

Low-Grade = a tumour that grows slowly and may or may not be successfully treated 
•	Meningioma
•	Acoustic neuroma 
•	Neurofibroma
•	Pituitary tumour
•	Craniopharyngeoma
•	Pineal tumour 
Brain metastases commonly arise from:
•	Lung
•	Breast 
•	Stomach 
•	Prostate 
•	Thyroid 
•	Colorectal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A

• Can arise from any of the cells in the CNS (e.g. glial cells, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes)
• Risk Factors
o Ionising radiation
o Immunosuppression (e.g. HIV)
o Inherited syndromes (e.g. neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Primary brain tumours = 2% of tumours diagnosed in the UK
  • AIDS patients have an increased risk of developing CNS tumours
  • Can develop at any age but are more common between 50-70 yrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms & signs of central nervous system (CNS) tumours

A
  • Presentation depends on the size and location of the tumour
  • Headache (worse in the morning and when lying down)
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Seizures
  • Progressive focal neurological deficits
  • Cognitive and behavioural symptoms
  • Papilloedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for central nervous system (CNS) tumours and interpret the results

A
  • Bloods - check CRP/ESR to eliminate other causes (e.g. temporal arteritis)
  • CT/MRI
  • Biopsy and tumour removal
  • Magnetic resonance angiography - define changing size and blood supply of the tumour
  • PET
  • NOTE: distant metastases are RARE with primary CNS tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define cluster headache

A

• A neurological disorder characterised by recurrent, severe headaches on one side of the head typically around the eye, tending to recur over a period of several weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of cluster headaches

A
  • UNKNOWN aetiology

* Genetic factor implicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cluster headaches

A
  • More common in MEN

* Usually occurs between 20-40 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of cluster headaches

A

• TWO types of cluster headaches:
o Episodic - occurring in periods lasting 7 days - 1 year, separated by pain-free periods lasting a month or longer. Cluster periods usually last between 2 weeks - 3 months
o Chronic - occurring for 1 year without remissions or with short-lived remissions of less than a month. Chronic cluster headaches can arise de novo or arise from episodic cluster headaches.
• Pattern of Occurrence
o Headaches occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks
o These occur once every year or once every 2 years, and tends to occur at the same time each year
o Headaches typically occurs at night, 1-2 hours after falling asleep
o The interval between bouts tends to be the same
o 10% with episodic cluster headaches go on to develop chronic cluster headaches
• Nature of Symptoms
o Pain comes on rapidly over around 10 mins
o Pain is intense, sharp and penetrating
o Pain is centred around the eye, temple or forehead
o Pain is unilateral
o Pain typically lasts around 45-90 mins (range: 15 mins - 3 hours)
o Pain occurs once or twice daily
o Associated autonomic features:
• Ipsilateral lacrimation
• Rhinorrhoea
• Nasal congestion
• Eye lid swelling
• Facial swelling
• Flushing
• Conjunctival injection
• Partial Horner’s syndrome
o Patients find it difficult to stay still and will pace around, occasionally banging their heads on things
• Triggers
o ALCOHOL - major precipitant
o Exercise and solvents
o Sleep disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cluster headaches

A
  • CLINICAL diagnosis based on history

* Neurological examination may be useful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define encephalitis

A

• Inflammation of the brain parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of encephalitis

A
Most commonly due to VIRAL INFECTION
Viral Causes
o	Herpes Simplex Virus - MOST COMMON in the UK 
o	VZV
o	Mumps 
o	Adenovirus 
o	Coxsackie 
o	EBV
o	HIV
o	Japanese encephalitis 
Non-Viral (RARE)
o	Syphilis 
o	Staphylococcus aureus 
In immunocompromised patients
o	CMV
o	Toxoplasmosis
o	Listeria
Autoimmune or Paraneoplastic
o	Associated with certain antibodies (e.g. anti-NMDA, anti-VGKC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of encephalitis

A

• UK incidence: 7.4/100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of encephalitis

A
  • In most cases, encephalitis is self-limiting and mild
  • Subacute onset (hours to days)
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Behavioural changes
  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • History of seizures
  • Focal neurological symptoms (e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia)
  • Obtain a detailed TRAVEL HISTORY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Recognise the signs of encephalitis on physical examination

A
  • Reduce consciousness
  • Deteriorating GCS
  • Seizures
  • Pyrexia

Signs of Meningism:
o Neck stiffness
o Photophobia
o Kernig’s test positive

Signs of raised ICP:
o Cushing’s Response: hypertension + bradycardia + irregular breathing
o Papilloedema
Focal neurological signs
MMSE may reveal cognitive/psychiatric disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for encephalitis and interpret the results

A
Bloods
o	FBC - high lymphocytes (indicates viral cause) 
o	U&Es - SIADH may occur as a result of encephalitis 
o	Glucose 
o	Viral serology
o	ABG 
MRI/CT 
o	Exclude mass lesion 
o	HSV causes oedema of the temporal lobe on MRI 
Lumbar Puncture
o	High lymphocytes 
o	High monocytes 
o	High protein 
o	Glucose is usually normal
o	Viral PCR 
EEG - may show epileptiform activity 
Brain biopsy (rarely needed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define epilepsy

A

• A tendency to recurrent unprovoked seizures
• You need to have had > 2 seizures for epilepsy to be diagnosed
• Definition of Seizure: paroxysmal synchronised cortical electrical discharges
• Types of Seizure
o Focal Seizure: seizure localised to specific cortical regions (e.g. temporal lobe seizure). These can be further divided into:
• COMPLEX partial seizure: consciousness is affected
• SIMPLE partial seizure: consciousness is NOT affected
o Generalised Seizure: seizures that affect the whole of the brain. It also affects consciousness. There are different types of generalised seizure:
• Tonic-clonic
• Absence
• Myoclonic
• Atonic
• Tonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of epilepsy

A

• Most cases are IDIOPATHIC
• Primary epilepsy syndromes (e.g. idiopathic generalised epilepsy)
• Secondary Seizures
o Tumour
o Infection (e.g. meningitis)
o Inflammation (e.g. vasculitis)
o Toxic/Metabolic (e.g. sodium imbalance)
o Drugs (e.g. alcohol withdrawal)
o Vascular (e.g. haemorrhage)
o Congenital abnormalities (e.g. cortical dysplasia)
o Neurodegenerative disease (e.g. Alzheimer’s disease)
o Malignant hypertension or eclampsia
o Trauma
• Common things that look like seizures
o Syncope
o Migraine
o Non-epileptiform seizure disorder (e.g. dissociative disorder)
• Pathophysiology of Seizures
o Result from an imbalance in the inhibitory and excitatory currents or neurotransmission in the brain
o Precipitants include anything that promotes excitation of the cerebral cortex
o Often it is unclear why the precipitants cause seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of epilepsy

A
  • COMMON
  • 1% of the general population
  • Typical age of onset: CHILDREN and ELDERLY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of epilepsy

A

• NOTE: try and obtain a collateral history from a witness as well as the patient
• Key features to consider when taking a history from a potential epilepsy patient:
o Rapidity of onset
o Duration of episode
o Any alteration in consciousness?
o Any tongue-biting or incontinence?
o Any rhythmic synchronous limb jerking?
o Any post-ictal abnormalities (e.g. exhaustion, confusion)?
o Drug history (alcohol, recreational drugs)
• Focal Seizure Presentation
o Frontal Lobe Focal Motor Seizure
• Motor convulsions
• May show a Jacksonian march (when the muscular spasm caused by the simple partial seizure spreads from affecting the distal part of the limb towards the ipsilateral face)
• May show post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd’s paralysis)
o Temporal Lobe Seizures
• Aura (visceral or psychic symptoms)
• Hallucinations (usually olfactory or affecting taste)
o Frontal Lobe Complex Partial Seizure
• Loss of consciousness
• Involuntary actions/disinhibition
• Rapid recovery
• Generalised Seizures
o Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal)
• Vague symptoms before attack (e.g. irritability)
• Tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm)
• Clonic phase (repetitive synchronous jerks)
• Faecal/urinary incontinence
• Tongue biting
• Post-ictal phase: impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness
o Absence (Petit Mal)
• Onset in CHILDHOOD
• Loss of consciousness but MAINTAINTED POSTURE
• The patient will appear to stop talking and stare into space for a few seconds
• NO post-ictal phase
o Non-Convulsive Status Epilepticus
• Acute confusional state
• Often fluctuating
• Difficult to distinguish from dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Recognise the signs of epilepsy on physical examination

A
  • Depends on aetiology

* Patients tend to be normal in between seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for epilepsy

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC
o	U&E
o	LFTs
o	Glucose 
o	Calcium
o	Magnesium
o	ABG 
o	Toxicology screen 
o	Prolactin - shows a transient increase shortly after seizures 
•	EEG
o	Helps to confirm diagnosis 
o	Helps classify the epilepsy 
o	Ictal EEGs are particularly useful (i.e. during a seizure)
•	CT/MRI
o	Shows structural, space-occupying or vascular lesions 
•	Other investigations
o	If it is suspected to be a secondary seizure (e.g. due to infection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Generate a management plan for epilepsy

A

• Treatment of STATUS EPILEPTICUS
o DEFINITION of Status Epilepticus: a seizure lasting > 30 mins or repeated seizure without recovery and regain of consciousness in between
o Although the definition states that the seizure must last > 30 mins, treatment is usually initiated early (after around 5-10 mins)
o ABC approach
o Check GLUCOSE (give glucose if hypoglycaemic)
o IV lorazepam OR IV/PR diazepam - REPEAT again after 10 mins if seizure does not terminate
o If seizures recur following the next dose of lorazepam or diazepam, consider IV phenytoin - an ECG monitor is required
• NOTE: other agents include phenobarbitone, levetiracetam and sodium valproate
o If this also fails, consider general anaesthesia (e.g. thiopentone) - intubation and mechanical ventilation required
o Treat the CAUSE (e.g. hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia)
o Check plasma levels of anticonvulsants (because status epilepticus is often caused by lack of compliance with anti-epileptic medications)
• Treatment of newly diagnosed epilepsy
o Only start anti-convulsant treatment after > 2 unprovoked seizures
o FOCAL Seizure 1st Line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine
o GENERALISED Seizure 1st Line: sodium valproate
o Start treatment with only ONE anti-epileptic drug
o Other anti-convulsants: phenytoin, levetiracetam, clobazam, topiramate, gabapentin, vigabatrin
• Patient Education
o Avoid triggers
o Use seizure diaries
o Particular consideration for women of child-bearing age because the anti-epileptic drugs can have teratogenic effects
o Be careful of drug interactions (e.g. AEDs can reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill)
• Surgery may be considered for refractory epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Identify possible complications of epilepsy

A
•	Fractures from tonic-clonic seizures 
•	Behavioural problems 
•	Sudden death in epilepsy (SUDEP)
•	Complications of anti-epileptic drugs:
o	Gingival hypertrophy (phenytoin)
o	Neutropaenia and osteoporosis (carbamazepine)
o	Stevens-Johnson syndrome (lamotrigine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with epilepsy

A

• 50% remission at 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define extradural haemorrhage

A

• Bleeding and accumulation of blood in the extradural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of extradural haemorrhage

A

TRAUMA
o Usually due to fracture of the temporal or parietal bones leading to rupture of the middle meningeal artery

Risk Factors
o Bleeding tendency
• E.g. haemophilia, anticoagulant therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of extradural haemorrhage

A
  • UK incidence: 20/10,000
  • 10% of severe head injuries
  • Most commonly seen in YOUNG ADULTS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Recognise the signs of extradural haemorrhage on physical examination

A
  • Head injury with temporary loss of consciousness
  • Followed by lucid interval
  • Followed by progressive deterioration in conscious level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of extradural haemorrhage

A
•	Scalp trauma or fracture 
•	Headache 
•	Deteriorating GCS 
Signs of raised ICP 
o	E.g. dilated, unresponsive pupil on the side of the injury 
Cushing's Reflex
o	Hypertension 
o	Bradycardia 
o	Irregular breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for extradural haemorrhage and interpret the results

A

• Urgent CT Scan

o Check for a haematoma
o Look for features of raised ICP (e.g. midline shift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

• Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

• An inflammatory process where antibodies after a recent infection react with self-antigen on myelin or neurons
• There is often no aetiological trigger identified (40% of cases are idiopathic)
• Other causes:
o Post-infection (1-3 weeks) - bacterial, HIV, herpes viruses
o Malignancy - e.g. lymphoma
o Post-vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • UK incidence: 1-2/100,000

* Affects all age groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

• PROGRESSIVE symptoms
• < 1 month duration of:
o ASCENDING symmetrical limb weakness (lower > upper)
o ASCENDING paraesthesia
• Cranial nerve involvement (leading to, for example, dysphagia, dysarthria, facial weakness)
• Respiratory muscles may be affected in SEVERE cases
• Miller-Fisher Variant (RARE) = ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, arreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Recognise the signs of Guillain-Barre syndrome on physical examination

A

• General MOTOR Examination
o Hypotonia
o Flaccid paralysis
o Arreflexia (ascending upwards from feet to head)
• General SENSORY Examination
o Impairment of sensation in multiple modalities (ascending from feet to head)
• Cranial Nerve Palsies
o Facial nerve weakness
o Abnormality of external ocular movements
o If pupil constriction is affected, consider botulism
• Type II Respiratory Failure
o Due to paralysis of respiratory muscles
• Autonomic Function
o Assess postural blood pressure change and arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
•	Lumbar Puncture
o	HIGH protein 
o	NORMAL cell count and glucose 
•	Nerve Conduction Study
o	Reduced conduction velocity
o	NOTE: it may be normal in the early stages of the disease 
•	Bloods
o	Anti-ganglioside antibodies in Miller-Fisher variant + 25% of Guillain-Barre cases
•	Spirometry
o	Reduced fixed vital capacity - suggests ventilatory weakness 
•	ECG
o	Arrhythmias may develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define Horner’s Syndrome

A
•	A condition that results from the disruption of the sympathetic nerves supplying the face resulting in a triad of:
o	Ptosis 
o	Miosis 
o	Anhydrosis
o	(and enophthalmos)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Horner’s syndrome

A
•	It is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerves 
•	Causes
o	Strokes 
o	Multiple sclerosis 
o	Apical lung tumours 
o	Lymphadenopathy 
o	Basal skull tumours 
o	Carotid artery dissection
o	Neck trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Horner’s syndrome

A
  • RARE

* Important sign that is associated with various diseases (most notably, Pancoast tumours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Inability to open the eye fully on the affected side
  • Loss of sweating on affected side
  • Facial flushing
  • Orbital pain/headache
  • Other symptoms based on CAUSE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Recognise the signs of Horner’s syndrome on physical examination

A
  • Ptosis
  • Miosis
  • Anhydrosis
  • Enophthalmos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Investigations are directed towards figuring out the underlying cause
  • CXR - apical lung tumour
  • CT/MRI - cerebrovascular accidents
  • CT angiography - dissection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Generate a management plan for Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Horner’s syndrome is a sign not a disease in itself
  • So, the management depends on the cause (e.g. management for carotid dissection is very different to management of apical lung tumours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Identify possible complications of Horner’s syndrome

A

• Depends on cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Summarise the prognosis of Horner’s syndrome

A

• Depends on the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define Huntington’s disease

A

• Autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disease characterised by progressive chorea and dementia, typically commencing in middle age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Huntington’s disease

A
  • The huntingtin gene codes for a protein called huntingtin
  • In the huntingtin gene there is a trinucleotide repeat expansion (CAG) that results in toxic gain of function
  • Autosomal DOMINANT
  • Earlier age of onset with each successive generation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Huntington’s disease

A

• Average age of onset: 30-50 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Huntington’s disease

A
•	Family history 
•	INSIDIOUS onset in middle-age 
•	Progressive 
•	Fidgeting 
•	Clumsiness 
•	Involuntary, jerky, dyskinetic movements often accompanied by grunting and dysarthria
•	EARLY COGNITIVE CHANGES:
o	Lability 
o	Dysphoria (a state of unease or generalised dissatisfaction with life) 
o	Mental inflexibility
o	Anxiety
o	Develops into dementia 
•	LATER STAGES:
o	Rigid 
o	Akinetic
o	Bed-bound 
•	Enquire about drug history (especially cocaine and anti-psychotics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Recognise the signs of Huntington’s disease on physical examination

A
  • Chorea
  • Dysarthria
  • Slow voluntary saccades
  • Supranuclear gaze restriction
  • Parkinsonism
  • Dystonia
  • MMSE shows cognitive and emotional deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Huntington’s disease

A

• Genetic Analysis
o Diagnostic if there are > 39 CAG repeats in the HD gene
o Reduced penetrance leads to an intermediate number of CAG repeats
• Imaging
o Brain MRI or CT may show symmetrical atrophy of the striatum and butterfly dilation of the lateral ventricles
• Bloods
o To exclude other pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Define hydrocephalus

A

• Enlargement of the cerebral ventricular system.
• It can be subdivided into obstructive and non-obstructive
o AKA communicating and non-communicating
• Hydrocephalus ex vacuo = apparent enlargement of the ventricles as a compensatory change due to brain atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of hydrocephalus

A

• Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles can be caused by:
o OBSTRUCTIVE: Impaired outflow of the CSF from the ventricular system
• Lesions of the 3rd and 4th ventricle or cerebral aqueduct
• Posterior fossa lesions (e.g. tumour) compressing the 4th ventricle
• Cerebral aqueduct stenosis
o NON-OBSTRUCTIVE: Impaired CSF reabsorption into the subarachnoid villi
• Tumours
• Meningitis
• Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus - idiopathic chronic ventricular enlargement. The long white matter tracts are damaged leading to gait and cognitive decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hydrocephalus

A

• Bimodal age distribution
o YOUNG - congenital malformations and brain tumours
o ELDERLY - strokes and tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of hydrocephalus

A
•	Obstructive Hydrocephalus 
o	Acute drop in conscious level
o	Diplopia
•	Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
o	Triad of symptoms:
•	Dementia 
•	Gait disturbance 
•	Urinary incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Recognise the signs of hydrocephalus on physical examination

A
•	Obstructive Hydrocephalus
o	Low GCS 
o	Papilloedema 
o	6th nerve palsy 
•	6th nerve has the longest intracranial path of all the cranial nerves and so is most susceptible to palsy due to raised ICP
o	NEONATES:
•	Increased head circumference 
•	Sunset sign (downward conjugate deviation of the eyes)
•	Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
o	Cognitive impairment 
o	Gait apraxia (shuffling)
o	Hyperreflexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for hydrocephalus

A

• CT Head
o FIRST-LINE for detecting hydrocephalus
o May also pick up the cause (e.g. tumour)
• CSF
o From ventricular drain or lumbar puncture
o May indicate pathology (e.g. tuberculosis)
o Check MC&S, protein and glucose
• Lumbar Puncture
o IMPORTANT: contraindicated if raised ICP
o Therapeutic in normal pressure hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define meningitis

A

• Inflammation of the leptomeningeal (pia and arachnoid mater) coverings of the brain, most commonly due to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of meningitis

A
BACTERIAL
Neonates
•	Group B streptococci
•	Escherichia coli
•	Listeria monocytogenes
Children
•	Haemophilus influenzae
•	Neisseria meningitidis 
•	Streptococcus pneumoniae
Adults
•	Neisseria meningitidis
•	Streptococcus pneumoniae
•	Tuberculosis
Elderly
•	Streptococcus pneumoniae
•	Listeria monocytogenes
VIRAL
o	Enteroviruses 
o	Mumps 
o	HSV
o	VZV
o	HIV
Fungal
o	Cryptococcus (common cause of meningitis in HIV patients)

Others
o Aseptic meningitis (not due to microbes)
o Mollaret’s meningitis (recurrent benign lymphocytic meningitis)

RISK FACTORS
o	Close communities (e.g. college halls) 
o	Basal skull fractures 
o	Mastoiditis 
o	Sinusitis 
o	Inner ear infections 
o	Alcoholism
o	Immunodeficiency
o	Splenectomy 
o	Sickle cell anaemia 
o	CSF shunts 
o	Intracranial surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of meningitis

A

• UK: 2500 notifications/yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of meningitis

A
  • Severe headache
  • Photophobia
  • Neck or backache
  • Irritability
  • Drowsiness
  • Vomiting
  • High-pitched crying or fits (common in children)
  • Reduced consciousness
  • Fever

IMPORTANT: take a good travel history and exposure history and take not of exposure to any of the following
o Rodents (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus)
o Ticks (Lyme borrelia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
o Mosquitoes (West Nile virus)
o Sexual activity (HSV-2, HIV, syphilis)
o Travel

73
Q

Recognise the signs of meningitis on physical examination

A

• Signs of MENINGISM
o Photophobia
o Neck stiffness
o Kernig’s Sign - with the hips flexed, there is pain/resistance on passive knee extension
o Brudzinski’s Sign - flexion of the hips when the neck is flexed

•	Signs of INFECTION
o	Fever 
o	Tachycardia
o	Hypotension
o	Skin rash 
o	Altered mental state
74
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for meningitis and interpret the results

A

Bloods
o Two sets of blood cultures

Imaging
o CT scan - exclude mass lesion or raised ICP before LP

Lumbar Puncture
o	MC&S
o	Bacterial meningitis:
•	Cloudy CSF 
•	High neutrophils
•	High protein
•	Low glucose 
o	Viral meningitis:
•	High lymphocytes 
•	High protein 
•	Normal glucose 
o	TB meningitis:
•	Fibrinous CSF 
•	High lymphocytes 
•	High protein 
•	Low glucose
75
Q

Generate a management plan for meningitis

A

IMMEDIATE IV Antibiotics (before LP)
o First choice: 3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. cefotaxime or ceftriaxone)
o Benzylpenicillin may be used as an initial blind therapy

Dexamethasone IV
o Given shortly before or with the first dose of antibiotics
o Associated with a reduced risk of complications

Resuscitation
o Manage in ITU
o Notify public health services

76
Q

Identify the possible complications of meningitis and its management

A
  • Septicaemia
  • Shock
  • DIC
  • Renal failure
  • Seizures
  • Peripheral gangrene
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Cranial nerve lesions
  • Cerebral venous thrombosis
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome (bilateral adrenal haemorrhage caused by severe meningococcal infection)
77
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with meningitis

A
  • Mortality rate from bacterial meningitis: 10-40% with meningococcal sepsis
  • Viral meningitis is self-limiting
78
Q

Define migraine

A

• Severe episodic headache that may have a prodrome of focal neurological symptoms (aura) and is associated with systemic disturbance.
• Can be classified as:
o Migraine with aura (classical migraine)
o Migraine without aura (common migraine)
o Migraine variants (e.g. familial hemiplegic, ophthalmoplegic)

79
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of migraine

A
  • Poorly understood
  • Early aura of cortical spreading depression is associated with intracranial vasoconstriction leading to localised ischaemia
  • This is then followed by meningeal and extracranial vasodilation mediated by serotonin, bradykinin and the trigeminovascular system
80
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of migraine

A

• Prevalence:
o Males - 6%
o Females - 15-20%
• Usually occurs in adolescence and early adulthood

81
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of migraine

A
•	Headache
o	Pulsatile 
o	Duration 4-72 hrs 
o	Episodic 
o	NOTE: chronic daily headaches lasting weeks would suggest a different aetiology
•	Associated Symptoms
o	Nausea 
o	Vomiting
o	Photophobia/Phonophobia
o	Aura:
•	Flashing lights 
•	Spots 
•	Blurring 
•	Zigzag lines 
•	Blind spots (scotomas)
•	Tingling/numbness in the limbs 
•	Triggers and Risk Factors
o	Stress 
o	Exercise 
o	Lack of sleep 
o	Oral contraceptive pill 
o	Foods (e.g. caffeine, alcohol, cheese, chocolate)
82
Q

Recognise the signs of migraine on physical examination

A
  • NO specific physical findings

* Exclude secondary causes with MMSE, neurological examination, fundoscopy etc.

83
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for migraine

A
  • Diagnosis is usually based on HISTORY
  • Investigations may be useful for excluding other diagnoses
  • Bloods, CT/MRI, lumbar puncture
84
Q

Generate a management plan for migraine

A
•	NOTE: analgesia overuse can cause headaches
•	ACUTE
o	NSAIDs
o	Paracetamol
o	Codeine 
o	Antiemetics 
o	Triptans (5-HT agonists) - e.g. sumatriptan
•	Prophylaxis
o	-blockers 
o	Amitriptyline 
o	Topiramate 
o	Sodium valproate
o	Menstrual migraines can be controlled with the oral contraceptive pill
•	Advice
o	Avoid triggers 
o	Rest in a quiet dark room during episodes
85
Q

Identify possible complications of migraine

A
  • Disruption of daily activities

* Can lead to analgesia-overuse headaches in people who use analgesia regularly

86
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with migraine

A
  • Usually CHRONIC

* Most cases can be managed well with preventative/early treatment measures

87
Q

Define motor neurone disease

A
•	A progressive neurodegenerative disorder of cortical, brainstem and spinal motor neurons (lower and upper motor neurons)
•	Subtypes:
o	Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
•	AKA Lou Gehrig's disease 
•	Combined generation of upper AND lower motor neurones resulting a mix of LMN and UMN signs 
o	Progressive Muscular Atrophy Variant
•	Only LMN signs 
•	Better prognosis 
o	Progressive Bulbar Palsy Variant
•	Dysarthria 
•	Dysphagia 
•	Wasted fasciculating tongue 
•	Brisk jaw jerk reflex 
o	Primary Lateral Sclerosis Variant
•	UMN pattern of weakness 
•	Brisk reflexes 
•	Extensor plantar responses 
•	NO LMN signs
88
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of motor neurone disease

A

• UNKNOWN
• Free radical damage and glutamate excitotoxicity have been implicated
• Pathology
o Progressive motor neurone degeneration and death
o Gliosis replacing lost neurones
• Associations
o Frontotemporal lobar dementia

89
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of motor neurone disease

A
  • RARE
  • Incidence: 2/100,000
  • Mean age of onset: 55 yrs
  • 5-10% have a family history with autosomal dominant inheritance
90
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease

A
  • Weakness of limbs
  • Speech disturbance (slurring or reduction in volume)
  • Swallowing disturbance (e.g. choking on food)
  • Behavioural changes (e.g. disinhibition, emotional lability)
91
Q

Recognise the signs of motor neurone disease on physical examination

A
•	Combination of UMN and LMN signs 
•	LMN Features
o	Muscle wasting 
o	Fasciculations  
o	Flaccid weakness 
o	Hyporeflexia
•	UMN Features
o	Spastic weakness 
o	Extensor plantar response 
o	Hyperreflexia
•	Sensory examination - should be NORMAL
92
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for motor neurone disease

A

• Bloods
o Mild elevation in CK
o ESR
o Anti-GM1 ganglioside antibodies
• Electromyography (EMG)
• Nerve conduction studies - often normal
• MRI - exclude cord compression and brainstem lesions
• Spirometry - assess respiratory muscle weakness

93
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

• Inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS
• Types
o Relapsing-Remitting MS
• COMMONEST form
• Clinical attacks of demyelination with complete recovery in between attacks
o Clinically Isolated Syndrome
• Single clinical attack of demyelination
• The attack in itself does NOT count as MS
• 10-50% progress to develop MS
o Primary Progressive MS
• Steady accumulation of disability with NO relapsing-remitting pattern
o Marburg Variant
• Severe fulminant variant of MS leading to advanced disability or death within weeks

94
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of multiple sclerosis

A

• UNKNOWN
• Autoimmune basis with potential environmental trigger in genetically susceptible individuals
• Immune-mediated damage to myelin sheaths results in impaired axonal conduction
• Risk Factors
o EBV exposure
o Prenatal vitamin D levels

95
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A
  • UK prevalence: 1/1000
  • 2 x as common in FEMALES
  • Age of presentation: 20-40 yrs
96
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A
•	Varies depending on the site of inflammation 
•	Optic Neuritis (COMMONEST)
o	Unilateral deterioration of visual acuity and colour perception 
o	Pain on eye movement 
o	Common first symptoms of multiple sclerosis 
•	Sensory
o	Pins and needles 
o	Numbness 
o	Burning 
•	Motor 
o	Limb weakness 
o	Spasms 
o	Stiffness 
o	Heaviness 
•	Autonomic 
o	Urinary urgency
o	Hesitancy 
o	Incontinence 
o	Impotence 
•	Psychological
o	Depression
o	Psychosis 
•	Uhthoff's Sign - worsening of neurological symptoms as the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas, hot tubs etc.
•	Lhermitte's Sign - an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs when the neck is flexed
97
Q

Recognise the signs of multiple sclerosis on physical examination

A

• Optic Neuritis
o Impaired visual acuity (MOST COMMON)
o Loss of coloured vision
• Visual Field Testing
o Central scotoma (if optic nerve is affected)
• Scotoma = a blind spot in the normal visual field
o Field defects (if optic radiations are affected)
• Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD)
• Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

o Lateral horizontal gaze causes failure of adduction of the contralateral eye
o Indicates lesion of the contralateral medial longitudinal fasciculus
• Sensory
o Paraesthesia
• Motor
o UMN signs
• Cerebellar
o Limb ataxia (intention tremor, past-pointing, dysmetria)
o Dysdiadochokinesia
o Ataxic wide-based gait
o Scanning speech

98
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for multiple sclerosis

A

• Diagnosis is based on the finding of two or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, separated in time and space - McDONALD CRITERIA
• Lumbar Puncture
o Microscopy - exclude infection/inflammatory causes
o CSF electrophoresis shows unmatched oligoclonal bands
• MRI Brain, Cervical and Thoracic Spine (with gadolinium)
o Plaques can be identified
o Gadolinium enhancement shows active lesions
• Evoked Potentials
o Visual, auditory and somatosensory evoked potentials may show delayed conduction velocity

99
Q

Define myasthenia gravis

A

• An autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction producing weakness in skeletal muscles

100
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of myasthenia gravis

A
  • Impairment of neuromuscular junction transmission
  • Most commonly due to autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
  • Lambert-Eaton Syndrome - paraneoplastic subtype of myasthenia gravis caused by autoantibodies against pre-synaptic calcium channels, leading to impairment of acetylcholine release
  • Myasthenia gravis is associated with other autoimmune conditions (e.g. pernicious anaemia)
101
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis

A
  • Prevalence: 8-9/100,000
  • More common in FEMALES at younger ages
  • Equal gender distribution in middle age
102
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis

A

• Muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive use or towards the end of the day
o NOTE: in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, muscle weakness improves after repeated use
• Ocular symptoms
o Drooping eyelids
o Diplopia
• Bulbar symptoms
o Facial weakness (myasthenic snarl)
o Disturbed hypernasal speech
o Difficulty smiling, chewing or swallowing

103
Q

Recognise the signs of myasthenia gravis on physical examination

A

• May be generalised (affecting many muscle groups)
• May be bulbar (affecting the bulbar muscles i.e. those associated with cranial nerves 9, 10, 11 and 12)
o NOTE: bulbar = relating to the medulla oblongata (cranial nerves 9, 10, 11 and 12 have their nuclei in the medulla)
• May be ocular
• Eye Signs
o Ptosis
o Complex ophthalmoplegia
o Check for ocular fatigue by asking the patient to sustain and upward gaze for 1 min and watch the progressive ptosis that develops
• Ice on Eyes Test
o Placing ice packs on closed eyelids for 2 mins can improve neuromuscular transmission and reduce ptosis
• Bulbar Signs
o Reading aloud may cause dysarthria or nasal speech
• Limbs
o Test the power of a muscle before and after repeated use of the muscle

104
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for myasthenia gravis

A

• Bloods
o CK - exclude myopathies
o Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (positive in 80%)
o TFTs (it is associated with hyperthyroidism)
o Anti-voltage gated calcium channel antibody (in Lambert-Eaton syndrome)
• Tensilon Test
o Short-acting anti-cholinesterase (edrophonium bromide) increases acetylcholine levels and causes a rapid and transient improvement in clinical features
o Risk of bradycardia - so is generally avoided
• Nerve Conduction Study
o Repetitive stimulation shows decrements of muscle action potential
• EMG
• CT Thorax/CXR - visualise thymoma in the mediastinum or lung malignancies

105
Q

Define neurofibromatosis

A
•	An autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting cells of neural crest origin, resulting in the development of multiple neurocutaneous tumours
•	Type 1 Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen's disease)
o	Characterised by:
•	Peripheral and spinal neurofibromas
•	Multiple café au lait spots 
•	Freckling (axillary/inguinal)
•	Optic nerve glioma 
•	Lisch nodules (on iris) 
•	Skeletal deformities 
•	Phaeochromocytomas
•	Renal artery stenosis
•	Type 2 Neurofibromatosis
o	Characterised by:
•	Schwannomas (often bilateral vestibular schwannomas)
•	Meningiomas 
•	Gliomas 
•	Cataracts
106
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of neurofibromatosis

A

• Associated with multiple mutations in tumour suppressor genes NF1 (type 1) and NF2 (type 2)

107
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of neurofibromatosis

A

• No gender or racial predilection

108
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of neurofibromatosis

A
•	Positive family history (however, 50% are caused by new mutations)
•	Type 1
o	Skin lesions 
o	Learning difficulties (40%)
o	Headaches 
o	Disturbed vision (due to optic gliomas)
o	Precocious puberty (due to lesions of the pituitary gland from an optic glioma involving the chiasm)
•	Type 2
o	Hearing loss 
o	Tinnitus 
o	Balance problems 
o	Headache 
o	Facial pain
o	Facial numbness
109
Q

Recognise the signs of neurofibromatosis on physical examination

A

• Type 1
o 5+ café au lait macules of > 5 mm (prepubertal)
o 5+ café au lait macules of > 15 mm (post-pubertal)
o Neurofibromas (may appear as cutaneous nodules or complex plexiform neuromas)
o Freckling in armpit or groin
o Lisch nodules (hamartomas on the iris)
o Spinal scoliosis

• Type 2
o Few or no skin lesions
o Sensorineural deafness with facial nerve palsy or cerebellar signs (if the schwannoma is large)

110
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for neurofibromatosis

A
  • Ophthalmological assessment
  • Audiometry
  • MRI brain and spinal cord - for vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas and nerve root neurofibromas
  • Skull X-ray (sphenoid dysplasia in NF1)
  • Genetic testing
111
Q

Define Parkinson’s disease

A

• Neurodegenerative disease of the dopaminergic neurones of the substantia nigra, characterised by:
o Bradykinesia
o Rigidity
o Resting tremor
o Postural instability
• Pathophysiology
o Degeneration of dopaminergic neurones projecting from the substantia nigra to the striatum
o Patients are only symptomatic after the loss of > 70% of dopaminergic neurones

112
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Parkinson’s disease

A

• Sporadic/Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease
o Most COMMON
o Aetiology UNKNOWN
o May be related to environmental toxins and oxidative stress
• Secondary Parkinson’s Disease
o Neuroleptic therapy (e.g. for schizophrenia)
o Vascular insults (e.g. in the basal ganglia)
o MPTP toxin from illicit drug contamination
o Post-encephalitis
o Repeated head injury
• There are some familial forms of Parkinson’s disease

113
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Very COMMON
  • Prevalence: 1-2% of > 60 yrs
  • Mean age of onset: 57 yrs
114
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • INSIDIOUS onset
  • Resting tremor (mainly in hands)
  • Stiffness and slowness of movements
  • Difficulty initiating movements
  • Frequent falls
  • Smaller hand writing (micrographia)
  • Insomnia
  • Mental slowness (bradyphenia)
115
Q

Recognise the signs of Parkinson’s disease on physical examination

A
•	Tremor 
o	Pill rolling rest tremor 
o	4-6 Hz 
o	Decreased on action 
o	Usually asymmetrical
•	Rigidity
o	Lead pipe rigidity of muscle tone 
o	Superimposed tremor can cause cogwheel rigidity
o	Rigidity can be enhanced by distraction
•	Gait
o	Stooped 
o	Shuffling 
o	Small-stepped gait
o	Reduced arm swing 
o	Difficulty initiating walking 
•	Postural Instability
o	Falls easily with little pressure from the back or the front 
•	Other features
o	Frontalis overactivation (leads to furrowing of the brow)
o	Hypomimic face 
o	Soft monotonous voice 
o	Impaired olfaction 
o	Tendency to drool
o	Mild impairment of up-gaze 
•	Psychiatric
o	Depression
o	Cognitive problems and dementia (in later stages)
116
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Parkinson’s disease

A

• CLINICAL diagnosis
• Levodopa Trial
o Timed walking and clinical assessment after administration of levodopa
• Bloods
o Serum caeruloplasmin - rule out Wilson’s disease as a cause of Parkinson’s disease
• CT or MRI Brain
o To exclude other causes of gait decline (e.g. hydrocephalus)
• Dopamine Transporter Scintigraphy
o Reduction in striatum and putamen

117
Q

Define spinal cord compression

A

• Injury to the spinal cord with neurological symptoms dependent on the site and extent of the injury

118
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of spinal cord compression

A
•	MOST CASES: trauma and tumours 
•	Trauma can lead to compression by:
o	Direct cord contusion 
o	Compression by bone fragments 
o	Haematoma 
o	Acute disk prolapse 
•	Tumours are more frequently METASTASES
•	Other causes: spinal abscess, TB (Pott's disease)
•	Risk Factors
o	Trauma
o	Osteoporosis 
o	Metabolic bone disease
o	Vertebral disc disease
119
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cord compression

A
  • COMMON
  • Trauma occurs across all age groups
  • Malignancy/disc disease is more common in the ELDERLY
120
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cord compression

A

• History of trauma or malignancy
• Pain
• Weakness
• Sensory loss
• Disturbance of bowel and bladder function
• A large central lumbar disc prolapse may cause:
o Bilateral sciatica
o Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the area of the buttocks that is covered by a bike seat)
o Urinary retention

121
Q

Recognise the signs of cord compression on physical examination

A

• Diaphragmatic breathing
• Reduced anal tone
• HYPOreflexia
• Priapism (persistent and painful erection)
• Spinal shock (low blood pressure without tachycardia)
• Sensory Loss - at level of the lesion
• Motor
o Weakness or paralysis
o Downward plantars (in acute phase)
o UMN signs below the level of the lesion
o LMN signs at the level of the lesion
• Brown-Sequard Syndrome - seen with hemisection of the spinal cord

122
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cord compression

A

• Radiology
o Lateral radiographs of spine to look for loss of alignment, fractures etc.
o MRI or CT
• Bloods - FBC, U&Es, calcium, ESR, immunoglobulin electrophoresis (multiple myeloma)
• Urine - look for Bence Jones proteins (multiple myeloma)

123
Q

Define sciatica

A

• Pain, tingling and numbness that arise from nerve root compression or irritation in the lumbosacral spine.

124
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of sciatica

A

• Most commonly caused by a disc herniation
• Other causes:
o Spinal stenosis
o Spondylolisthesis
o Spinal injury or infection
o Tumour
o Cauda equina syndrome
• Risk Factors
o Age - older people are more like to get slipped discs
o Job that requires regular heavy lifting

125
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of sciatica

A
  • Relatively COMMON

* More common in MALES

126
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of sciatica

A
  • Pain (usually affects the buttocks and the legs more than the back)
  • Numbness
  • Tingling sensation that radiates from the lower back down one of the legs
  • Weakness in the calf muscles or the muscles that move the foot or ankle
127
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for sciatica

A
  • CLINICAL diagnosis
  • Straight Leg Raise

o If pain in the distribution of the sciatic nerve is reproduced on passive flexion of the straight leg at the hip between 30-70 degrees then it is considered a positive sign (Lasegue’s sign)
o This test is sensitive but not very specific
• CT/MRI - helps visualise a lumbar disc herniation

128
Q

Define stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

• Rapid permanent neurological deficit from cerebrovascular insult. Also defined clinically, as focal or global impairment of CNS function developing rapidly and lasting > 24 hrs
• Can be subdivided based on:
o Location - anterior circulation vs posterior circulation
o Pathological Process - infarction vs haemorrhage

129
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

INFARCTION (80%)
Thrombosis
• Can occur in small vessels (lacunar infarcts)
• Can occur in larger vessels (e.g. middle cerebral artery)
• Can arise in prothrombotic states (e.g. dehydration, thrombophilia)
Emboli
• From carotid dissection, carotid atherosclerosis, atrial fibrillation
• NOTE: they can arise from venous blood clots that pass through a septal defect (e.g. VSD) and get lodged in the cerebral circulation
Hypotension
• If the blood pressure is below the autoregulatory range required to maintain cerebral blood flow, you can get infarction in the watershed zones between different cerebral artery territories
Others
• Vasculitis
• Cocaine (arterial spasm)

HAEMORRHAGE (10%)
o Hypertension
o Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm rupture (DEFINITION: aneurysms within the brain vasculature that occur in small blood vessels)
o Amyloid angiopathy
o Arteriovenous malformations
o Less common: trauma, tumours, vasculitis

130
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A
  • COMMON
  • Incidence: 2/1000
  • 3rd most common cause of death in industrialised countries
  • Usual age of stroke patients: 70+
131
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A
  • SUDDEN-ONSET
  • Weakness
  • Sensory, visual or cognitive impairment
  • Impaired coordination
  • Impaired consciousness
  • Head or neck pain (if carotid or vertebral artery dissection)
  • Enquire about time of onset (critical for emergency management if < 4.5 hrs)
  • Enquire about history of AF, MI, valvular heart disease, carotid artery stenosis, recent neck trauma or pain
132
Q

Recognise the signs of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) on physical examination

A
  • Examine for underlying cause (e.g. atrial fibrillation)
  • Infarction

Lacunar Infarcts
• Affecting the internal capsule or pons: pure sensory or motor deficit (or both)
• Affecting the thalamus: loss of consciousness, hemisensory deficit
• Affecting the basal ganglia: hemichorea, hemiballismus, parkinsonism

Anterior Circulation
• Anterior Cerebral
 Lower limb weakness
 Confusion

Middle Cerebral
	Facial weakness 
	Hemiparesis (motor cortex)
	Hemisensory loss (sensory cortex)
	Apraxia 
	Hemineglect (parietal lobe) 
	Receptive or expressive dysphasia (due to involvement of Wernicke's and Broca's areas) 
	Quadrantopia (if superior or inferior optic radiations are affected)

Posterior Circulation
• Posterior Cerebral - hemianopia
• Anterior Inferior Cerebellar - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral deafness, ipsilateral facial weakness
• Posterior Inferior Cerebellar (affected in lateral medullary syndrome) - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral hemisensory loss, dysarthria, contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss
• Basilar Artery - cranial nerve pathology and impaired consciousness
• Multiple Lacunar Infarcts - vascular dementia, urinary incontinence, gait apraxia, shuffling gait, normal or excessive arm-swing
• Intracerebral - headache, meningism, focal neurological signs, nausea/vomiting, signs of raised ICP, seizures

133
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and interpret the results

A

Bloods
o Clotting profile - check if thrombophilia (especially in young patients)

ECG
o Check for arrhythmias that may be the source of the clot

Echocardiogram
o Identify cardiac thrombus, endocarditis and other cardiac sources of embolism

Carotid Doppler Ultrasound
o Check for carotid artery disease (e.g. atherosclerosis)

CT Head Scan
o Rapid detection of haemorrhages

MRI-Brain
o Higher sensitivity for infarction but less available

CT Cerebral Angiogram
o Detect dissections or intracranial stenosis

134
Q

Generate a management plan for stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

HYPERACUTE STROKE
o If < 4.5 hrs from onset
o Exclude haemorrhage using CT-head
o If haemorrhage excluded, thrombolysis may be considered

ACUTE ISCHAEMIC STROKE
o Aspirin + Clopidogrel to prevent further thrombosis (once haemorrhage excluded on CT head)
o Heparin anticoagulation considered if there is a high risk of emboli recurrence or stroke progression
o Formal swallow assessment (NG tube may be needed)
o GCS monitoring
o Thromboprophylaxis

Secondary Prevention
o Aspirin and dipyridamole
o Warfarin anticoagulation (atrial fibrillation)
o Control risk factors: hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, treat carotid artery disease

Surgical Treatment - carotid endarterectomy

135
Q

Identify the possible complications of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and its management

A
  • Cerebral oedema (increased ICP)
  • Immobility
  • Infections
  • DVT
  • Cardiovascular events
  • Death
136
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A
  • 10% mortality in the first month
  • Up to 50% that survive will be dependent on others
  • 10% recurrence within 1 year
  • Prognosis for haemorrhagic is WORSE than ischaemic
137
Q

Define subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

• Arterial haemorrhage into the subarachnoid space

138
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • 85% - rupture of a saccular aneurysm at the base of the brain (Berry aneurysms)
  • 10% - perimesencephalic haemorrhage
  • 5% - arteriovenous malformations, bleeding diathesis, vertebral artery dissection
Risk Factors
o	Hypertension
o	Smoking 
o	Excess alcohol intake 
o	Saccular aneurysms are associated with:
•	Polycystic kidney disease 
•	Marfan's syndrome
•	Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
139
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Incidence: 10/100,000

* Peak incidence: 40s

140
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Sudden-onset worst headache ever
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Reduced level of consciousness
141
Q

Recognise the signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage on physical examination

A

Meningism
o Neck stiffness
o Kernig’s sign
o Pyrexia

  • GCS - check for deterioration
  • Signs of raised ICP - papilloedema, IV or III nerve palsies, hypertension, bradycardia
  • Focal neurological signs (e.g. cranial nerve palsies)
142
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage and interpret the results

A
Bloods
o	FBC 
o	U&Es
o	ESR/CRP 
o	Clotting 

CT Scan
o Hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skull (due to blood)

Angiography - detect source of bleeding

Lumbar Puncture
o Increased opening pressure
o Increased red cells
o Xanthochromia - straw-coloured CSF due to breakdown of red blood cells

143
Q

Define subdural haemorrhage

A
•	A collection of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater
•	Classification
o	ACUTE: < 72 hrs 
o	SUBACUTE: 3- 20 days 
o	CHRONIC: > 3 weeks
144
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subdural haemorrhage

A

• Trauma (usually due to rapid acceleration and deceleration of the brain)

145
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage

A
  • Acute - younger patients/associated with major trauma
  • MORE COMMON than extradural haemorrhage
  • Chronic - more common in the ELDERLY
146
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of subdural haemorrhage

A

Acute
o History of TRAUMA with head injury
o Reduced conscious level

Subacute
o Worsening headache 7-14 days after injury
o Altered mental state

Chronic
o	Headache
o	Confusion
o	Cognitive impairment 
o	Psychiatric symptoms 
o	Gait deterioration 
o	Focal weakness 
o	Seizures
147
Q

Recognise the signs of subdural haemorrhage on physical examination

A

Acute
o Reduced GCS
o Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (if a large haematoma cause a midline shift)
o Pressure on brainstem –> reduced consciousness + bradycardia

Chronic
o Neurological examination may be NORMAL
o Focal neurological signs (e.g. 3rd nerve palsy)

148
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for subdural haemorrhage and interpret the results

A
  • CT Head

* MRI Brain - higher sensitivity than CT

149
Q

Generate a management plan for subdural haemorrhage

A

ACUTE
o ALS protocol
o Watch out for cervical spine injury
o If raised ICP consider osmotic diuresis

Conservative - if small

Surgical
o Prompt Burr hole or craniotomy

Chronic
o If symptomatic - Burr hole or craniotomy and drainage

Children
o Younger children may be treated with percutaneous aspiration via an open fontanelle

150
Q

Identify the possible complications of subdural haemorrhage and its management

A
  • Raised ICP
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Herniation
  • Post-Op - seizures, recurrence, intracerebral haemorrhage, brain abscess, meningitis, tension pneumocephalus
151
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with subdural haemorrhage

A

Acute
o Underlying brain injury will affect function

Chronic
o Better outcome than subdural haemorrhages
o Lower incidence of underlying brain injury

152
Q

Define tension headache

A

• The most common type of headache, which is considered a ‘normal, everyday headache’.
• Can be divided into:
o Episodic - occurs on < 15 days per month
o Chronic - occurs on > 15 days per month

153
Q

Explain the cause of tension headaches

A
•	The exact cause is unclear 
•	There are well-known triggers:
o	Stress/anxiety 
o	Squinting 
o	Poor posture 
o	Fatigue 
o	Dehydration
o	Missing meals 
o	Bright sunlight 
o	Noise 
•	They are primary headaches (i.e. they have no underlying cause)
154
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of tension headache

A
  • MOST COMMON type of headache
  • More common in WOMEN
  • Most common in YOUNG ADULTS
  • Most people will experience a tension headache at some point in their lives
155
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of tension headaches

A
  • Mild-moderate in severity
  • Pressure/tightness around the head like a tight band
  • Pain tends to be bilateral
  • Often a relationship with the neck
  • Can be disabling for a few hours but does not have specific associated symptoms (unlike migraines)
  • Gradual onset
  • Variable duration
  • Usually responsive to over-the-counter medication
  • IMPORTANT: check for possible triggers when taking history (e.g. stress)
  • Examination is usually NORMAL
156
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for tension headaches

A

• NO investigations necessary

157
Q

Generate a management plan for tension headaches

A

• Episodic Tension Headaches
o Reassurance
o Address triggers (e.g. stress, anxiety)
o Advice on avoiding medications that can cause medication-induced headaches (e.g. opioids)
o Simple analgesia (e.g. ibuprofen, paracetamol, aspirin)
o Tricyclic antidepressants may be considered in frequently recurrent episodic tension headaches or chronic tension headaches

158
Q

Identify possible complications of tension headaches

A

• NONE

159
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with tension headaches

A
  • GOOD
  • Not very severe or disabling
  • Recurs
160
Q

Define TIA

A

• Rapidly developing focal disturbance of brain function of presumed vascular origin that resolves completely within 24 hours.

161
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of TIAs

A
•	It is usually EMBOLIC but may be thrombotic 
•	Most common source of emboli = CAROTID atherosclerosis 
•	Emboli can also arise from the heart:
o	Atrial fibrillation 
o	Mitral valve disease 
o	Atrial myxoma
•	NOTE: clots from the right side of the circulation can cause a stroke if there is a septal defect (e.g. PFO)
•	Risk Factors
o	Hypertension
o	Smoking 
o	Diabetes mellitus 
o	Heart disease (valvular, ischaemic, atrial fibrillation)
o	Peripheral arterial disease 
o	Polycythaemia rubra vera 
o	COCP
o	Hyperlipidaemia 
o	Alcohol
o	Clotting disorders
162
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of TIAs

A
  • More common with increasing age
  • More common in men
  • 15% of stroke patients would have experienced a previous TIA
163
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of TIAs

A

• ANY PATIENT presenting with acute neurological symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours (i.e. a suspected TIA) should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and assessed urgently within 24 hours
• History
o TIAs usually last 10-15 mins (but can be anything from a few minutes to 24 hours)
• Clinical features depend on the part of the brain affected:
o Carotid Territory
• Unilateral
• Most often affect the MOTOR AREA: weakness an arm, leg or one side of the face
• Dysarthria
• Broca’s dysphasia (if Broca’s area is involved)
• Amaurosis fugax (painless fleeting loss of vision caused by retinal ischaemia)
o Vertebrobasilar Territory
• Homonymous hemianopia (if ophthalmic cortex is involved)
• May be bilateral visual impairment
• May be hemiparesis, hemisensory symptoms, diplopia, vertigo, vomiting, dysarthria, dysphagia or ataxia
• Ask about weakness, facial drooping, gait disturbance, confusion, memory loss, dysarthria or abnormal behaviour
• Check for simultaneous cardiac symptoms (e.g. palpitations)

164
Q

Recognise the signs of TIA on physical examination

A
  • Neurological examination may be NORMAL because the TIA may have resolved by the time you do it
  • Check pulse for irregular rhythm (AF)
  • Auscultate the carotids to check for bruits (carotid atherosclerosis)
165
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for TIAs

A
•	Primary Care Investigations
o	Urinalysis (check for glycosuria)
o	FBC 
o	U&Es
o	Lipids 
o	LFTs
o	TSH 
o	ECG (may show AF or previous MI)
•	Secondary Care
o	Unenhanced CT - if there is a possibility of a haemorrhage (e.g. if the patient is anticoagulated or has a bleeding disorder) 
•	Investigate for Source of Emboli
o	ECG (24 hr tape or cardiac monitoring may be considered if paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is suspected)
o	Doppler ultrasound of carotid and vertebral arteries
166
Q

Generate a management plan for TIAs

A

• Patients with acute neurological symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hrs should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and assessed urgently within 24 hrs
• Patients with confirmed TIA should receive:
o Clopidogrel - 300 mg loading dose and 75 mg thereafter
o High-Intensity Statin Therapy - e.g. atorvastatin 20-80 mg
• Secondary Prevention
o Antiplatelets
o Antihypertensives
o Lipid-modifying treatments
o Management of AF
• Assessment of future stroke risk in TIA patients: ABCD2 score

167
Q

Identify possible complications of TIAs

A
  • Recurrence

* Stroke

168
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with TIAs

A

• VERY HIGH RISK of STROKE in the first month after the TIA and up to 1 year afterwards

169
Q

Define trigeminal neuralgia

A

• Neuralgia involving one or more of the branches of the trigeminal nerves, often causing severe pain.

170
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Thought to be due to compression of the trigeminal nerve by a loop of artery or vein
  • 5-10% of cases are thought to be due to tumours, MS or skull base abnormalities
171
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Peak incidence: 50-60 yrs
  • Prevalence increases with age
  • More common in FEMALES
  • Some familial component
172
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of trigeminal neuralgia

A

• Sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing pain in the distribution or one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve
• Recurrent
• Pain lasts from a few seconds to a couple of mins
• Periods of remission can vary
• Some experience preceding symptoms (e.g. numbness, tingling)
• Pain is described as being ‘shock-like’
• Triggers
o Vibration
o Skin contact
o Brushing teeth
o Oral intake
o Exposure to wind

173
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Diagnosis is CLINICAL

* If there is doubt over the underlying cause, specialists may request an MRI brain scan

174
Q

Define Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

• The presence of neurological symptoms caused by biochemical lesions of the central nervous system following exhaustion of vitamin B (particularly thiamine) reserves.

175
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

• Main cause is CHRONIC ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION which results in thiamine deficiency by causing:
o Inadequate nutritional thiamine intake
o Decreased thiamine absorption
o Impaired thiamine utilisation by cells
• Other conditions that cause thiamine deficiency:
o Chronic subdural haematoma
o AIDS
o Hyperemesis gravidarum
o Thyrotoxicosis
• Thiamine deficiency results in abnormal cellular function in the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and cerebellum

176
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Alcohol-related brain damage accounts for 10-24% of all dementia
  • Prevalence rates are higher in areas of socio-economic deprivation
  • Higher prevalence in 50-60 year olds
177
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Vision changes: diplopia, eye movement abnormalities, ptosis
  • Loss of muscle coordination: unsteady gait
  • Loss of memory
  • Inability to form new memories
  • Hallucinations
178
Q

Recognise the signs of Wernicke’s encephalopathy on physical examination

A

• Wernicke’s is classically defined by a triad of signs:
o Confusion
o Ophthalmoplegia
o Ataxia
• The patient is usually mentally alert with vocabulary, comprehension, motor skills, social habits and naming ability maintained
• Some show signs suggestive of polyneuropathy
• Reflexes may be decreased
• Abnormal gait and coordination
• Eye abnormalities on movement: nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy
• Low temperature
• Rapid pulse
• Some may be cachectic
• NOTE: Korsakoff’s Psychosis occurs when the condition deteriorates further, leading to the additional symptoms of:
o Amnesia
o Confabulation

179
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

• Diagnosis is mainly based on history and examination
• Possible useful tests:
o FBC (high MCV is a common feature amongst alcoholics)
o U&Es (exclude metabolic imbalances as a cause of confusion)
o LFTs
o Glucose
o ABG (hypercapnia and hypoxia can cause confusion)
o Serum thiamine
• CT head scan may be useful