Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

Learning objectives

A

Answer

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2
Q

Define achalasia

A
  • A condition in which the normal muscular activity of the oesophagus is disturbed (absent or uncoordinated) due to FAILURE OR INCOMPLETE REAXATION OF THE LOWER OESOPHAGEAL SPHINCTER.
  • This leads to delay in the passage of swallowed material into the stomach
  • Aetiology: it is caused by degeneration of the ganglion cells of the myenteric plexus in the oesophagus due to an unknown cause
  • NOTE: oesophageal infection with Trypanosoma cruzi seen in Central/South America produces a similar disorder (CHAGAS DISEASE)
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3
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of achalasia

A
  • It may occur at any age (mainly 25-60 yrs)
  • Affects both sexes equally
  • Annual incidence 1/100,000
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4
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of achalasia

A

INSIDIOUS onset and gradual progression of:
• Intermittent dysphagia involving solids and liquids
• Difficulty belching
• Regurgitation (particularly at night)
• Heartburn
• Chest pain (atypical/cramping, retrosternal)
• Weight loss (because they are eating less)

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5
Q

Recognise the signs of achalasia on physical examination

A

• May show signs of complications:
o Aspiration pneumonia
o Malnutrition
o Weight loss

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6
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for achalasia

A

• CXR may show:
o Widened mediastinum
o Double right heart border (dilated oesophagus)
o Air-fluid level in the upper chest
o Absence of the normal gastric air bubble
• Barium swallow may show:
o Dilated oesophagus which smoothly tapers down to the sphincter (beak-shaped)
• Endoscopy to exclude malignancy (which could mimic achalasia)
• Manometry (used to assess pressure at the LOS) may show:
o Elevated resting LOS pressure (> 45 mm Hg)
o Incomplete LOS relaxation
o Absence of peristalsis in the smooth muscle portion of the oesophagus
• NOTE: you may do serology for antibodies against T. cruzi if CHAGAS DISEASE is a possibility (and blood film may detect parasites)

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7
Q

Define acute cholangitis

A

• Infection of the bile duct.

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8
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of acute cholangitis

A

• There are several causes:
o Obstruction of the gallbladder or bile duct due to stones
o ERCP
o Tumours (e.g. pancreatic, cholangiocarcinoma)
o Bile duct stricture or stenosis
o Parasitic infection (e.g. ascariasis)

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9
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of acute cholangitis

A
  • 9% of patients admitted to hospital with gallstone disease will have acute cholangitis
  • Equal in males and females
  • Median age of presentation: 50-60 yrs
  • Racial distribution follows that of gallstone disease - fair-skinned people
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10
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of acute cholangitis

A
•	Most patents present with Charcot's Triad of symptoms:
o	RUQ Pain
o	Jaundice 
o	Fever with rigors
•	This list of symptoms has been extended to include the following two symptoms, forming the Reynolds' Pentad:
o	Mental confusion
o	Septic shock
•	Patients may also complain of pruritus
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11
Q

Recognise the signs of acute cholangitis on physical examination

A
  • Fever
  • RUQ tenderness
  • Mild hepatomegaly
  • Jaundice
  • Mental status changes
  • Sepsis
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Peritonitis (uncommon - check for alternative diagnosis)
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12
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for acute cholangitis

A

• Bloods
o FBC: High WCC
o CRP/ESR: possibly raised
o LFTs: typical pattern of obstructive jaundice (raised ALP + GGT)
o U&Es: may be signs of renal dysfunction
o Blood cultures: check for sepsis
o Amylase: may be raised if the lower part of the common bile duct is involved
• Imaging
o X-ray KUB: look for stones
o Abdominal ultrasound: look for stones and dilation of the common bile duct
o Contrast-enhanced CT/MRI: good for diagnosing cholangitis
o MRCP: may be necessary to detect non-calcified stones

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13
Q

Generate a management plan for acute cholangitis

A

• Resuscitation: may be required if the patient is in septic shock
• Broad-spectrum antibiotics: given once blood cultures have been taken (select drugs that are effective against anaerobes and Gram-negative organisms: e.g. cefuroxime + metronidazole)
• Most patients respond to antibiotics but endoscopic biliary drainage is usually required to treat the underlying obstruction
• Management depends on severity:
o Stage 1 (Mild)
• Antimicrobial therapy
• Percutaneous, endoscopic or operative intervention for non-responders (depending on aetiology)
o Stage 2 (Moderate)
• Early percutaneous or endoscopic drainage
• Endoscopic biliary drainage is recommended
o Stage 3 (Severe)
• NOTE: severe cholangitis counts as including shock, conscious disturbance, acute lung injury, AKI, hepatic injury or DIC
• Treatment of organ failure with ventilatory support, vasopressors etc.
• Urgent percutaneous or endoscopic drainage
• Definitive treatment required once the clinical picture improves

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14
Q

Identify the possible complications of acute cholangitis

A
•	Liver abscesses 
•	Liver failure 
•	Bacteraemia 
•	Gram-negative sepsis 
•	Septic shock 
•	AKI 
•	Organ dysfunction 
•	Percutaneous or endoscopic drainage can lead to:
o	Intra-abdominal or percutaneous bleeding, sepsis, fistulae and bile leakage
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15
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with acute cholangitis

A

• Mortality between 17-40%

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16
Q

Define alcohol withdrawal

A

The symptoms that may occur when a person has been drinking too much alcohol on a regular basis and suddenly stops drinking.

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17
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of alcohol withdrawal

A

Chronic alcohol consumption suppresses the activity of glutamate (an excitatory neurotransmitter), so the body compensates by increasing sensitivity to glutamate
So, when alcohol consumption stops, you get increased glutamate activity leading to excitatory symptoms

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18
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of alcohol withdrawal

A

If untreated, 6% of alcohol-dependent patients develop clinically relevant symptoms of withdrawal
Up to 10% of them will delirium tremens

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19
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A
History of high alcohol intake 
Mild Symptoms:
o	Insomnia and fatigue 
o	Tremor 
o	Mild anxiety/feeling nervous 
o	Mild restlessness/agitation 
o	Nausea and vomiting 
o	Headache 
o	Sweating 
o	Palpitations 
o	Anorexia 
o	Depression 
o	Craving alcohol
More severe symptoms:
o	Hallucinations 
o	Withdrawal seizures (generalised tonic-clonic)
Delirium tremens 
DEFINITION: an acute confusional sate often seen as withdrawal syndrome in chronic alcoholics and caused by sudden cessation of drinking alcohol. It can be precipitated by a head injury or an acute infection causing abstinence from alcohol.
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20
Q

Recognise the signs of alcohol withdrawal

A
FEATURES:
Anxiety 
Tremor 
Sweating 
Vivid and terrifying visual and sensory HALLUCINATIONS (usually of animals and insects) 
Can be FATAL
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21
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for alcohol withdrawal and interpret the results

A

NO investigations

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22
Q

Generate a management plan for alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide - reduces symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
Barbiturates may be used if refractory to benzodiazepines
Thiamine (Pabrinex) - prevents progression to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

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23
Q

Identify the possible complications of alcohol withdrawal and its management

A

Patients can have seizures and die if it is left untreated

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24
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with alcohol withdrawal

A

Delirium tremens has a mortality of 35% if untreated

Mortality is < 2% with early detection and treatment

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25
Q

Define alcoholic hepatitis

A

• Inflammatory liver injury caused by chronic heavy intake of alcohol

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26
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of alcoholic hepatitis

A

• One of the THREE forms of liver disease caused by excessive alcohol intake - the spectrum consists of:
o Alcoholic fatty liver (steatosis)
o Alcoholic hepatitis
o Chronic cirrhosis
• Histopathological features of alcohol hepatitis:
o Centrilobular ballooning
o Degeneration and necrosis of hepatocytes
o Steatosis
o Neutrophilic inflammation
o Cholestasis
o Mallory-hyaline inclusions (eosinophilic intracytoplasmic aggregates of cytokeratin intermediate filaments)
o Giant mitochondria

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27
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of alcoholic hepatitis

A

• Occurs in 10-35% of heavy drinkers

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28
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of alcoholic hepatitis

A

• May remain asymptomatic and undetected
• May be mild illness with symptoms such as:
o Nausea
o Malaise
o Epigastric pain
o Right hypochondrial pain
o Low-grade fever
• More severe presenting symptoms include:
o Jaundice
o Abdominal discomfort or swelling
o Swollen ankles
o GI bleeding
• NOTE: a long history of heavy drinking is required for the development of alcoholic hepatitis (around 15-20 years)
• There may be events that trigger the disease (e.g. aspiration pneumonia, injury)

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29
Q

Recognise the signs of alcoholic hepatitis on physical examination

A
•	Signs of Alcohol Excess
o	Malnourished 
o	Palmar erythema 
o	Dupuytren's contracture 
o	Facial telangiectasia
o	Parotid enlargement 
o	Spider naevi 
o	Gynaecomastia 
o	Testicular atrophy 
o	Hepatomegaly 
o	Easy bruising
•	Signs of Severe Alcoholic Hepatitis
o	Febrile (in 50% of patients) 
o	Tachycardia 
o	Jaundice 
o	Bruising 
o	Encephalopathy (e.g. liver flap, drowsiness, disorientation)
o	Ascites 
o	Hepatomegaly 
o	Splenomegaly
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30
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for alcoholic hepatitis

A

• Bloods
o FBC:
• Low Hb
• High MCV
• High WCC
• Low platelets
o LFTs:
• High AST + ALT
• High bilirubin
• High ALP + GGT
• Low albumin
o U&Es:
• Urea and K+ tend to be low
o Clotting: prolonged PT is a sensitive marker for significant liver damage
• Ultrasound - check for other causes of liver impairment (e.g. malignancy)
• Upper GI Endoscopy - investigate varices
• Liver Biopsy - can help distinguish from other causes of hepatitis
• EEG - slow-wave activity indicates encephalopathy

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31
Q

Generate a management plan for alcoholic hepatitis

A

• Acute
o Thiamine
o Vitamin C and other multivitamins (can be given as Pabrinex)
o Monitor and correct K+, Mg2+ and glucose
o Ensure adequate urine output
o Treat encephalopathy with oral lactulose or phosphate enemas
o Ascites - manage with diuretics (spironolactone with/without furosemide)
o Therapeutic paracentesis
o Glypressin and N-acetylcysteine for hepatorenal syndrome
• Nutrition
o Via oral or NG feeding is important
o Protein restriction should be avoided unless the patient is encephalopathic
o Nutritional supplementation and vitamins (B group, thiamine and folic acid) should be started parenterally initially, and continued orally
• Steroid Therapy - reduce short-term mortality for severe alcoholic hepatitis

NOTE: hepatorenal syndrome - the development of renal failure in patients with advanced chronic liver disease
• Thought to arise because of abnormalities in blood vessel tone in the kidneys
• Blood vessels in the kidney constrict because of the dilatation of blood vessels in the splanchnic circulation (supplying the intestines), which is mediated by factors released by the kidneys
• The splanchnic vasodilation leads to reduced effective volume of blood detected by the juxtaglomarular apparatus, leading to activation of the RAS and vasoconstriction of vessels in the kidney
• This leads to kidney failure

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32
Q

Identify the possible complications of alcoholic hepatitis

A
  • Acute liver decompensation
  • Hepatorenal syndrome
  • Cirrhosis
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33
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with alcoholic hepatitis

A

• Mortality:
o First month = 10%
o First year = 40%
• If alcohol intake continues, most will progress to cirrhosis within 1-3 years

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34
Q

Define amyloidosis

A

• Heterogenous group of diseases characterised by extracellular deposition of amyloid fibrils

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35
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of amyloidosis

A

• Amyloid fibrils are polymers of low-molecular-weight subunit proteins
• These are derived from proteins that undergo conformational changes to adopt an anti-parallel beta-pleated sheet configuration
• Their deposition progressively disrupts the structure and function of normal tissue
• Amyloidosis is classified according to the fibril subunit proteins
o Type AA - serum amyloid A protein
o Type AL - monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains
o Type ATTR (familial amyloid polyneuropathy) - genetic-variant transthyretin

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36
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of amyloidosis

A
  • AA - incidence of 1-5% amongst patients with chronic inflammatory diseases
  • AL - 300-600 cases in the UK per year
  • Hereditary Amyloidosis - accounts for 5% of patients with amyloidosis
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37
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of amyloidosis

A
  • Renal - proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, renal failure
  • Cardiac - restrictive cardiomyopathy, heart failure, arrhythmia, angina
  • GI - macroglossia (characteristic of AL), hepatosplenomegaly, gut dysmotility, malabsorption, bleeding
  • Neurological - sensory and motor neuropathy, autonomic neuropathy, carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Skin - waxy skin and easy bruising, purpura around the eyes (characteristic of AL), plaques and nodules
  • Joints - painful asymmetrical large joints, enlargement of anterior shoulder
  • Haematological - bleeding tendency
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38
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for amyloidosis

A
•	Tissue Biopsy
•	Urine - check for proteinuria, free immunoglobulin light chains (in AL)
•	Bloods
o	CRP/ESR 
o	Rheumatoid factor 
o	Immunoglobulin levels 
o	Serum protein electrophoresis 
o	LFTs 
o	U&Es 
•	SAP Scan - radiolabelled SAP will localise the deposits of amyloid
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39
Q

Define anal fissure

A
  • A painful tear in the squamous lining of the lower anal canal
  • NOTE: 90% of anal fissures are posterior (anterior anal fissures tend to occur after childbirth)
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40
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of anal fissures

A
  • Affects 1/10 people during their life time
  • Both sexes are affected equally
  • Can occur at any age
  • Most cases occur in children and young adults: 10-30 yrs
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41
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of anal fissure

A
  • Most are caused by hard faeces
  • Anal sphincter spasm can constrict the inferior rectal artery, causing ischaemia and impairing the healing process
  • Rare causes: syphilis, herpes, trauma, Crohn’s, anal cancer, psoriasis
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42
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of anal fissure

A
  • Tearing pain when passing stools
  • There may be a little bit of blood in the faeces or on the paper
  • Anal itching (pruritus ani)
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43
Q

Recognise the signs of anal fissure on physical examination

A

• Tears in the squamous lining of the anus on examination

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44
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for anal fissure

A

• Examine the anus

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45
Q

Generate a management plan for anal fissure

A
•	Conservative
o	High-fibre diet 
o	Softening the stools (laxatives) 
o	Good hydration 
•	Medical
o	Lidocaine ointment (local anaesthetic)
o	GTN ointment (relaxes the anal sphincter and promoted healing) 
o	Diltiazem (relaxes the anal sphincter and promotes healing)
o	Botulinum toxin injection
•	Surgical
o	Lateral sphincterotomy
o	This relaxes the anal sphincter and promotes healing but it has complications (e.g. anal incontinence) so it is reserved for patients who are intolerant or not responsive to non-surgical treatments
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46
Q

Identify the possible complications of anal fissure

A

• Chronic anal fissure

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47
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with anal fissure

A
  • In most people, the fissure will heal within a week or so

* Treatment revolves around easing pain by keeping the stools soft and relaxing the anal sphincter to promote healing

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48
Q

Define appendicitis

A

• Inflammation of the appendix

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49
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of appendicitis

A
  • The MOST COMMON surgical emergency
  • Can occur at any age
  • Most commonly occurs between 10-20 yrs
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50
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of appendicitis

A
  • Gut organisms invade the appendix wall after lumen obstruction (e.g. by lymphoid hyperplasia, faecolith or filarial worms)
  • This leads to oedema, ischaemic necrosis and perforation
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51
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of appendicitis

A
  • Periumbilical pain that moves to the right iliac fossa
  • Anorexia is an important feature
  • Vomiting (may occur after pain)
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
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52
Q

Recognise the signs of appendicitis on physical examination

A

• General Signs
o Tachycardia
o Fever
o Furred tongue
o Lying still
o Coughing hurts
o Foetor with/without flushing
o Shallow breaths
• RIF Signs
o Guarding
o Rebound and percussion tenderness
o PR pain on the right side (sign of low-lying pelvic appendix)
• Special Signs
o Rovsing’s Sign - palpation of the left iliac fossa causes more pain in the right iliac fossa than the left
o Psoas Sign - pain on extending the hip (caused by retrocaecal appendix)
o Cope Sign - pain on flexion and internal rotation of the hip (occurs if the appendix is in close proximity to the obturator internus)
• Variations in clinical picture
o Inflammation of retrocaecal/retroperitoneal appendix may cause flank pain or RUQ pain
• The only sign may be tenderness on the right on DRE
o A child may have vague abdominal pain and will not eat their favourite food
o A shocked confused 80+ year old who is not in any pain

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53
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for appendicitis

A
•	Bloods
o	High WCC (mainly neutrophils) 
o	High CRP 
•	Ultrasound may help 
•	CT - high diagnostic accuracy
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54
Q

Generate a management plan for appendicitis

A
•	Prompt appendicectomy
•	Antibiotics:
o	Cefuroxime
o	Metronidazole 
•	Laparoscopy - diagnostic and therapeutic advantages
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55
Q

Identify the possible complications of appendicitis

A

• Perforation
• Appendix mass
o Occurs when the inflamed appendix becomes covered with omentum
• Appendix abscess
o May occur if appendix mass fails to resolve
o Treatment involves drainage and antibiotics

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56
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with appendicitis

A
  • Uncomplicated appendicitis - most people recover with no long-term problems
  • Ruptured appendix - greater risk of complications/death
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57
Q

Define autoimmune hepatitis

A

• Chronic hepatitis of unknown aetiology, characterised by autoimmune features, hyperglobulinaemia and the presence of circulating autoantibodies

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58
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of autoimmune hepatitis

A

• In a genetically predisposed individual, and environmental agent (e.g. viruses or drugs) may lead to hepatocyte expression of HLA antigens, which then become the focus of a principally T-cell-mediated autoimmune attack
• The raised titre of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) and anti-liver/kidney microsomes (anti-LKM) are NOT thought to directly injure the liver
• The chronic inflammatory changes are similar to those seen in chronic viral hepatitis with lymphoid infiltration of the portal tracts and hepatocyte necrosis, leading to fibrosis and, eventually, cirrhosis
• TWO major forms of autoimmune hepatitis:
o Type 1 (Classic)
• ANA
• ASMA
• Anti-actin antibodies (AAA)
• Anti-soluble liver antigen (anti-SLA)
o Type 2
• Antibodies to liver/kidney microsomes (ALKM-1)
• Antibodies to liver cytosol antigen (ALC-1)

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59
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • Type 1: occurs in ALL age groups (but mainly young women)

* Type 2: generally occurs in girls and young women

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60
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis

A
•	May be asymptomatic and discovered incidentally through abnormal LFT
•	Insidiously present with:
o	Malaise 
o	Fatigue 
o	Anorexia 
o	Weight loss 
o	Nausea 
o	Jaundice 
o	Amenorrhoea 
o	Epistaxis 
•	Acute hepatitis (25%) presents with:
o	Fever 
o	Anorexia
o	Jaundice 
o	Nausea/Vomiting/Diarrhoea
o	RUQ pain 
o	Some may present with serum sickness (e.g. arthralgia, polyarthritis, maculopapular rash) 
•	NOTE: check for personal or family history of other autoimmune diseases
•	A full history is important to rule out other causes of hepatitis (e.g. viral, alcoholic)
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61
Q

Recognise the signs of autoimmune hepatitis on physical examination

A
  • Stigmata of chronic liver disease (e.g. spider naevi)
  • Ascites, oedema and hepatic encephalopathy are late features
  • Cushingoid features may be present even before the administration of steroids
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62
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for autoimmune hepatitis

A
•	Bloods:
o	LFTs:
•	High: AST, ALT, GGT, ALP and Bilirubin
•	Low: albumin (in severe disease)
o	Clotting:
•	High PT (in severe disease)
o	FBC:
•	Low Hb, platelets and WCC (if hypersplenism from portal hypertension)
o	Hypergammaglobulinaemia 
•	Presence of ANA, ASMA and Anti-LKM antibodies 
•	Liver Biopsy:
o	Needed to establish diagnosis and check whether hepatitis or cirrhosis
•	To rule out other causes of liver disease:
o	Viral serology
o	Urinary copper/caeruloplasmin  
o	Ferritin and transferrin saturation 
o	1 antitrypsin 
o	Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (PBC)
•	US, CT or MRI of liver and abdomen
o	Visualise structural lesions 
•	ERCP
o	To rule out PSC
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63
Q

Define Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • Prolonged exposure of the normal squamous epithelium to refluxate of GORD leads to mucosal inflammation and erosion, leading to replacement of the mucosa with metaplastic columnar epithelium
  • Metaplastic change: Squamous —-> Columnar
  • MAIN PROBLEM: Barrett’s could progress to oesophageal adenocarcinoma
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64
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • Reflux will occur if the cardiac sphincter is not working properly (most of the time it is unclear why it is not working properly)
  • Hiatus hernia make GORD more likely
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65
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • 1/10 adults have heart burn every day

* 3-5% of people with GORD will develop Barrett’s oesophagus

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66
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Barrett’s oesophagus

A
•	Patients are likely to experience symptoms of GORD:
o	Heartburn 
o	Nausea 
o	Water-brash (sour taste in the mouth) 
o	Bloating 
o	Belching 
o	Burning pain when swallowing
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67
Q

Recognise the signs of Barrett’s oesophagus on physical examination

A

• Look at symptoms

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68
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Barrett’s oesophagus

A

• OGD and Biopsy

o This will show the replacement of the squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium

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69
Q

Generate a management plan for Barrett’s oesophagus

A

• Pre-malignant/High grade dysplasia:
o Oesophageal resection
o Eradicative mucosectomy
o NOTE: this is appropriate if the patients are young and fit
• Other techniques:
o Endoscopic targeted mucosectomy
o Mucosal ablation by epithelial laser, radiofrequency (HALO) or photodynamic ablation (PD)
• Low-grade dysplasia - annual endoscopic surveillance is recommended
• No pre-malignant changes found:
o Surveillance endoscopy and biopsy performed every 1-3 years
o Anti-reflux measures (e.g. high dose PPI)

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70
Q

Identify the possible complications of Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • MAIN COMPLICATION: development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  • Risk of dysplasia
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71
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • Barrett’s oesophagus carries a 30-60 times higher risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma than the general population
  • Most patients, however, do not develop oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  • 5-10% of those with Barrett’s oesophagus will develop adenocarcinoma over 10-20 years
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72
Q

Define cholangiocarcinoma

A

• Primary adenocarcinoma of the biliary tree

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73
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of cholangiocarcinoma

A

• UNKNOWN
• Risk Factors
o Ulcerative colitis + primary sclerosing cholangitis
o Choledochal cyst (congenital conditions involving cystic dilatations of bile ducts)
o Caroli disease (rare genetic condition in which you get dilatation of intrahepatic bile ducts)
o Parasitic infection of biliary tract

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74
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cholangiocarcinoma

A
  • VERY RARE

* More common in the developing world due to the increased prevalence of parasitic infections

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75
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cholangiocarcinoma

A
Obstructive jaundice symptoms
o	Yellow sclera
o	Pale stools 
o	Dark urine 
o	Pruritus

Abdominal pain or fullness

Systemic symptoms of malignancy: weight loss, malaise, anorexia

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76
Q

Recognise the signs of cholangiocarcinoma on physical examination

A
•	Jaundice 
•	Palpable gallbladder 
o	NOTE: Courvoisier's Law - in the presence of jaundice, a palpable gallbladder (that is non-tender) is unlikely to be due to gallstones (i.e. cancer of the pancreas or biliary tree is more likely)
•	Epigastric/RUQ mass 
•	There may be hepatomegaly
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77
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cholangiocarcinoma and interpret the results

A
Bloods
o	FBC 
o	U&Es
o	LFTs (high ALP + GGT)
o	Clotting screen
o	Tumour markers 
•	CA19-9 is a marker of pancreatic cancer and cholangiocarcinoma

Endoscopy
o ERCP will allow bile cytology and tumour biopsy

Ultrasound

CT, MRI, Bone Scan - for staging

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78
Q

Define cholecystitis

A

• Inflammation of the gallbladder

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79
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of cholecystitis

A

• Types of Stones
o Mixed Stones (80%)
• Contains cholesterol, calcium bilirubinate, phosphate and protein
• Form due to an imbalance between bile salts, phospholipids, cholesterol, nucleation factors and gallbladder motility
o Pure Cholesterol Stones (10%)
o Pigment Stones (10%)
• Black stones made of calcium bilirubinate
• Form due to increased bilirubin (e.g. due to haemolysis)
• Risk Factors
o Age
o Female
o Fat
o Diabetes mellitus
o Drugs (OCP, octreotide)
o Family history
o Ethnicity (Caucasian)
o Pigment Stone Risk Factors: haemolytic disorders (e.g. sickle cell anaemia)

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80
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cholecystitis

A
  • Very COMMON
  • UK prevalence of gallstone disease = 10%
  • 3 x more common in FEMALES
  • More common with increasing age
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81
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cholecystitis

A
  • Systemically unwell
  • Fever
  • Prolonged abdominal pain
  • Pain may be referred to right shoulder (due to diaphragmatic irritation)
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82
Q

Recognise the signs of cholecystitis on physical examination

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Pyrexia
  • RUQ pain or epigastric tenderness
  • May be guarding or rebound tenderness
  • Murphy’s sign positive
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83
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cholecystitis

A

• Bloods
o FBC - high WCC in cholecystitis and cholangitis
o LFT - high ALP + GGT in ascending cholangitis
o Blood cultures
o Amylase (exclude pancreatitis)
• Ultrasound

o Shows gallstones
o Increased thickness of gallbladder wall
o Dilatation of biliary tree
• AXR - but only 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque
• Other imaging - to exclude differentials (e.g. erect CXR, ERCP)

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84
Q

Generate a management plan for cholecystitis

A
•	Conservative
o	If only mild biliary colic - follow a low-fat diet
•	Medical
o	NBM 
o	IV fluids 
o	Analgesia
o	Anti-emetics 
o	Antibiotics (if infection is present) 
o	NOTE: if symptoms persist despite antibiotic treatment, suspect a localised abscess or empyema, which would require drainage 
o	If there is an obstruction, urgent biliary drainage by ERCP or via a percutaneous route is necessary 
•	Surgical
o	Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy
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85
Q

Identify possible complications of cholecystitis

A
•	Stones within the gallbladder
o	Biliary colic 
o	Cholecystitis 
o	Gallbladder empyema
o	Gallbladder cancer (RARE)
•	Stones outside the gallbladder
o	Obstructive jaundice 
o	Pancreatitis 
o	Ascending cholangitis 
o	Cholecystoduodenal fistula 
o	Gallstone ileus 
o	Bouveret syndrome (gallstones cause gastric outlet obstruction) 
o	Mirizzi syndrome 
•	Complications of cholecystectomy
o	Bleeding 
o	Infection 
o	Bile leak 
o	Post-cholecystectomy syndrome 
o	Port-site hernia
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86
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with cholecystectomy

A
  • Gallstones do NOT cause symptoms most of the time

* Surgery offers an excellent chance of cure if they were to become symptomatic

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87
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

• End-stage of chronic liver damage with replacement of normal liver architecture with diffuse fibrosis and nodules of regenerating hepatocytes.
• Cirrhosis is considered DECOMPENSATED if it becomes complicated by any of:
o Ascites
o Jaundice
o Encephalopathy
o GI bleed
• Decompensation can be precipitated by infection, GI bleeding, constipation, high-protein meal, electrolyte imbalances, alcohol and drugs, tumour development or portal vein thrombosis

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88
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of cirrhosis

A
•	Chronic alcohol misuse (most common in the UK)
•	Chronic viral hepatitis (hep B/C - most common worldwide)
•	Autoimmune hepatitis 
•	Drugs (e.g. methotrexate, hepatotoxic drugs)
•	Inherited
o	1-antitrypsin deficiency
o	Haemochromatosis 
o	Wilson's disease 
o	Galactosaemia 
o	Cystic Fibrosis 
•	Vascular
o	Budd-Chiari Syndrome
o	Hepatic Venous Congestion 
•	Chronic Biliary Diseases
o	PBC
o	PSC 
o	Biliary atresia 
•	Unknown: 5-10%
•	Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
o	Associated with obesity, diabetes, total parenteral nutrition, short bowel syndromes, hyperlipidaemia and drugs (e.g. amiodarone, tamoxifen)
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89
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cirrhosis

A
•	Early non-specific symptoms:
o	Anorexia
o	Nausea 
o	Fatigue 
o	Weakness
o	Weight loss 
•	Symptoms due to decreased liver synthetic function:
o	Easy bruising 
o	Abnormal swelling 
o	Ankle oedema
•	Symptoms due to reduced detoxification function:
o	Jaundice 
o	Personality change 
o	Altered sleep pattern 
o	Amenorrhoea
o	Galactorrhoea
•	Symptoms due to portal hypertension:
o	Abdominal swelling 
o	Haematemesis 
o	PR bleeding or melaena
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90
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cirrhosis

A

• One of the top 10 causes of death worldwide

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91
Q

Recognise the signs of cirrhosis on physical examination

A
These are all signs of chronic liver disease
•	Asterixis
•	Bruises 
•	Clubbing 
•	Dupuytren's contracture
•	Palmar erythema
•	Jaundice 
•	Gynaecomastia 
•	Leukonychia 
•	Parotid enlargement 
•	Spider naevi
•	Scratch mark (from cholestatic pruritis) 
•	Ascites 
•	Enlarged liver (may be shrunken in the later stages) 
•	Testicular atrophy
•	Caput medusae 
•	Splenomegaly
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92
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cirrhosis

A

• Bloods
o FBC: low platelets + Hb = because of hypersplenism as a result of portal hypertension
o LFTs - may be normal but often get:
• High AST, ALT, ALP, GGT and bilirubin
• Low albumin
o Clotting: prolonged PT
o Serum AFP (alpha-fetoprotein = tumour marker for liver cancer):
• Raised in chronic liver disease
• High levels may suggest hepatocellular carcinoma
• Investigations to determine CAUSE
o Viral serology
o 1-antitrypsin
o Caeruloplasmin
• This is a copper-carrying complex that is LOW in Wilson’s disease
o Iron studies: serum ferritin, iron, total iron binding capacity (TIBC) - check for haemochromatosis
o Anti-mitochondrial antibody (PBC)
o ANA, ASMA (autoimmune hepatitis)
• Ascitic Tap
o MC&S - check for infection
o Biochemistry (protein, albumin, glucose, amylase)
o Cytology
o IMPORTANT: ascitic tap with neutrophils > 250/mm3 = spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)
• Liver Biopsy
o Performed either:
• Percutaneously
• Transjugular - if clotting deranged or ascitic
o Histopathological features of cirrhosis:
• Periportal fibrosis
• Loss of normal liver architecture
• Nodular appearance
o Grade - indicates degree of inflammation
o Stage - degree of architectural distortion (from mild portal fibrosis –> cirrhosis)
• Imaging
o US, CT or MRI - to detect complications such as:
• Ascites
• HCC
• Hepatic or portal vein thrombosis
• Exclude biliary obstruction
o MRCP (if PSC suspected)
• Endoscopy
o To examine varices
• Child-Pugh Grading - score for estimating the prognosis in chronic liver disease/cirrhosis. It is based on 5 factors:
o Albumin
o Bilirubin
o PT
o Ascites
o Encephalopathy
• Cirrhosis can be divided into Classes using the Child-Push grading system:
o Class A: 5-6
o Class B: 7-9
o Class C: 10-15

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93
Q

Generate a management plan for cirrhosis

A

• Treat the CAUSE if possible
• Avoid alcohol, sedatives, opiates, NSAIDs and drugs that affect the liver
• Nutrition is important
• Enteral supplements should be given
• NG feeding may be indicated
• Treating Complications:
o Encephalopathy
• Treat infections
• Exclude GI bleed
• Use lactulose and phosphate enemas
 Normally, the liver breaks down ammonia that is absorbed in the GI tract, however, in Cirrhosis the ammonia can go through the liver without being broken down and exert toxic effects on the brain
 IMPORTANT: lactulose reduces the absorption of ammonia from the gut
 This helps prevent encephalopathy caused by ammonia reaching the brain
• Avoid sedation
o Ascites
• Diuretics (spironolactone with/without furosemide)
• Dietary sodium restriction
• Therapeutic paracentesis (with human albumin replacement)
• Monitor weight
• Fluid restrict if plasma sodium < 120 mmol/L
• Avoid alcohol and NSAIDs
o Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
• Antibiotics (e.g. cefuroxime and metronidazole)
• Prophylaxis against recurrent SBP with ciprofloxacin
o Surgical
• Consider TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) - this helps reduce portal hypertension
 However, it may precipitate encephalopathy because it is providing a route for blood from the GI tract to bypass the liver
• Liver transplantation is the only curative method

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94
Q

Identify the possible complications of cirrhosis

A
  • Portal hypertension with ascites
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Variceal haemorrhage
  • SBP
  • HCC
  • Renal failure (hepatorenal syndrome)
  • Pulmonary hypertension (hepatopulmonary syndrome)
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95
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with cirrhosis

A

• Depends on aetiology and complications
• Generally poor prognosis
o Overall 5 year survival = 50%
o If ascites, 2 year survival = 50%

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96
Q

Define coeliac disease

A
  • An inflammatory disease caused by intolerance to GLUTEN, causing chronic intestinal malabsorption.
  • It leads to subtotal villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia
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97
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of coeliac disease

A
  • Due to sensitivity to the GLIADIN component of gluten
  • Exposure to gliadin triggers and immunological reaction in the small intestine leading to mucosal damage and loss of villi
  • 10% risk of first-degree relatives being affected
  • Clear genetic susceptibility associated with HLA-B8, HLA-DR3 and HLA-DQW2 haplotypes
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98
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of coeliac disease

A
  • UK: 1/2000
  • West Ireland: 1/300
  • Rare in East-Asia
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99
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of coeliac disease

A
  • May be asymptomatic
  • Abdominal discomfort, pain and distention
  • Steatorrhoea (pale bulky stool, with offensive smell and difficult to flush away)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Tiredness, malaise, weight loss (despite normal diet)
  • Failure to ‘thrive’ in children
  • Amenorrhoea in young adults
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100
Q

Recognise the signs of coeliac disease on physical examination

A

• Signs of anaemia: pallor
• Signs of malnutrition:
o Short stature
o Abdominal distension
o Wasted buttocks in children
o Triceps skinfold thickness gives indication of fat stores
• Signs of vitamin/mineral deficiencies: osteomalacia, easy bruising
• Intense, itchy blisters on elbows, knees or buttocks (dermatitis herpetiformis)

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101
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for coeliac disease

A

• Blood:
o FBC (low Hb, iron and folate)
o U&E
o Albumin
o Calcium
o Phosphate
• Serology:
o IgG anti-gliadin antibodies, IgA and IgG anti-endomysial tranglutaminase antibodies can be diagnostic
o NOTE: IgA deficiency is quite COMMON (1/50 with coeliac) so Ig levels should be measured to avoid false negatives
• Stool: culture to exclude infection, faecal fat tests for steatorrhoea
• D-xylose test: reduced urinary excretion after oral xylose indicates small bowel malabsorption
• Endoscopy: allows direct visualisation of villous atrophy in the small intestine (mucosa appears flat and smooth)
o Biopsy will show villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia in the duodenum
o The epithelium adopts a cuboidal appearance - there is an inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the lamina propria

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102
Q

Generate a management plan for coeliac disease

A
  • Advice: avoid gluten (wheat, rye and barley products)

* Medical: vitamin and mineral supplements. Oral corticosteroids if disease does not subside with avoidance of gluten

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103
Q

Identify the possible complications of coeliac disease

A
  • Iron, folate and B12 deficiency
  • Osteomalacia
  • Ulcerative jejunoileitis
  • GI lymphoma (particularly T cell)
  • Bacterial overgrowth
  • Cerebellar ataxia (rarely)
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104
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with coeliac disease

A
  • FULL RECOVERY in most patients who strictly adhere to a gluten-free diet
  • Symptoms usually resolve within weeks though histological changes may take longer
  • Gluten-free diet must be followed for life
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105
Q

Define colorectal carcinoma

A
•	Malignant adenocarcinoma of the large bowel
o	Distribution:
•	60% - rectum and sigmoid 
•	30% - descending colon
•	10% - rest of colon
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106
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of colorectal carcinoma

A
•	Environmental and genetic 
•	There is a sequence of genetic changes that go from normal bowel epithelium to cancer (e.g. APC, K-Ras)
•	Risk Factors
o	Western diet (e.g. red meat, alcohol)
o	Colorectal polyps 
o	Previous colorectal cancer
o	Family history 
o	IBD
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107
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of colorectal carcinoma

A
  • SECOND MOST COMMON cause of cancer death in the West
  • UK: 20,000 deaths per year
  • Average age of diagnosis: 60-65 yrs
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108
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of colorectal carcinoma

A

• Depends on the size and location of the tumour

Left-Sided Colon and Rectum
o Change in bowel habit
o Rectal bleeding (blood or mucus mixed with the stools)
o Tenesmus (due to a space-occupying tumour in the rectum)

Right-Sided Colon
o	Presents later
o	Anaemia symptoms (lethargy)
o	Weight loss 
o	Non-specific malaise 
o	Lower abdominal pain (rare) 

IMPORTANT: 20% of tumours will present as an EMERGENCY with pain and distension due to:
o Large bowel obstruction
o Haemorrhage or peritonitis due to perforation

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109
Q

Recognise the signs of colorectal carcinoma on physical examination

A
  • Anaemia
  • Abdominal mass

If metastatic:
o Hepatomegaly
o Ascites (shifting dullness)
• Low-lying rectal tumours may be palpable on DRE

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110
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for colorectal carcinoma and interpret the results

A

Bloods
o FBC - anaemia
o LFTs
o Tumour markers (CEA)

Stools
o FOBT - used as a screening test

Endoscopy
o Sigmoidoscopy
o Colonoscopy
o This can be used to biopsy the tumour

Double-Contrast Barium Enema
o May show ‘apple core’ strictures

Contrast CT
o For staging (Duke’s staging)

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111
Q

Define Crohn’s disease

A

• Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Grouped with ulcerative colitis and known, together, as inflammatory bowel disease.

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112
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Cause unknown but thought to be due to interplay between genetic and environmental factors
  • Though inflammation can occur anywhere from mouth to anus, 40% involves the terminal ileum
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113
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Crohn’s disease

A
  • UK annual incidence: 5-8/100,000
  • UK prevalence: 50-80/100,000
  • Affects any age but peaks in teens, 20s and 40s
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114
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Crampy abdominal pain (due to inflammation, fibrosis or bowel obstruction)
  • Diarrhoea (may be bloody or steatorrhoea)
  • Fever, malaise, weight loss
  • Symptoms of complications
  • Sometimes right iliac fossa pain due to inflammation of terminal ileum
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115
Q

Recognise the signs of Crohn’s disease on physical examination

A
  • Weight loss
  • Clubbing
  • Signs of anaemia
  • Aphthous ulcers in mouth
  • Perianal skin tags, fistulae and abscesses
  • Uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
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116
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Crohn’s disease

A

• Blood:
o FBC - low Hb, high platelets, high WCC
o U&Es
o LFTs - low albumin
o High ESR (suggests chronic inflammation)
o CRP may be high or normal
• Stool microscopy and culture: exclude infective colitis
• AXR: could show evidence of toxic megacolon
• Erect CXR: if there is a risk of perforation
• Small bowel barium follow-through could show:
o Fibrosis/strictures (string sign of Kantor - part of the intestine looks like a piece of string, showing incomplete filling of the intestinal lumen)

o Deep ulceration (rose thorn ulcers)
o Cobblestone mucosa
• Endoscopy (OGD, colonoscopy) and biopsy may show:
o Could help differentiate UC and CD
o Useful for monitoring malignancy and disease progression
o Can show mucosal oedema and ulceration with ‘rose thorn fissures’ (occurs when there is a cobblestone mucosa)
o Fistulae and abscesses
o Transmural chronic inflammation with infiltration of macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells
o Granulomas with epithelioid giant cells may be seen in blood vessels and lymphatics
• Radionucide-labelled neutrophil scan: can localise the inflammation (when other investigations are contraindicated)

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117
Q

Generate a management plan for Crohn’s disease

A

• Acute Exacerbation
o Fluid resuscitation
o IV/oral corticosteroids
o 5-ASA analogues (e.g. mesalazine and olsalazine)
o Analgesia
o Parenteral nutrition may be necessary
o Monitor markers of disease activity e.g. fluid balance, ESR, CRP, platelets, Hb
• Long-Term
o Steroids - for acute exacerbations
o 5-ASA analogues - decreases the frequency of relapses (useful for mild to moderate disease)
• NOTE: more commonly used in UC
o Immunosuppression: using steroid-sparing agents (e.g. azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, methotrexate) reduces the frequency of relapses
o Anti-TNF agents: (e.g. infliximab and adalimumab) - very effective at inducing and maintaining remission. Usually reserved for refractory Crohn’s.
• General Advice:
o Stop smoking
o Dietician referral (low fibre diet necessary if there are stricture present)
• Surgery indicated it:
o Medical treatment fails
o Failure to thrive in children in the presence of complications
o Involves resection of affected bowel and stoma formation - NOTE: there is a risk of disease recurrence

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118
Q

Identify the possible complications of Crohn’s disease

A
•	GI: 
o	Haemorrhage 
o	Strictures 
o	Perforation 
o	Fistulae (between bowel, bladder, vagina) 
o	Perianal fistulae and abscesses 
o	GI cancer 
o	Malabsorption
•	Extraintestinal Features:
o	Uveitis 
o	Episcleritis
o	Gallstones 
o	Kidney stones 
o	Arthropathy
o	Sacroiliitis 
o	Ankylosing spondylitis
o	Erythema nodosum 
o	Pyoderma gangrenosum
o	Amyloidosis
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119
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Crohn’s disease

A
  • It is a chronic relapsing condition
  • 2/3 of patients will require surgery at some stage
  • 2/3 of these patients require more than 1 operation
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120
Q

Define diverticular disease

A

• It is important to distinguish between the different terms used when discussing patients with diverticular disease
o Diverticulosis: the presence of diverticulae outpouchings of the colonic mucosa and submucosa through the muscular wall of the large bowel
o Diverticular Disease: diverticulosis associated with complications e.g. haemorrhage, infection, fistulae
o Diverticulitis: acute inflammation and infection of colonic diverticulae
o Hinchey Classification of Acute Diverticulitis:
• Ia: phlegmon
• Ib and II: localised abscesses
• III: perforation and purulent peritonitis
• IV: faecal peritonitis

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121
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of diverticular disease

A

• Aetiology:
o A low-fibre diet leads to loss of stool bulk
o This leads to the generation of high colonic intraluminal pressures to propel the stool out
o This, in turn, leads to the herniation of the mucosa and submucosa through the muscularis
• Pathogenesis:
o Diveticulae are most commonly found in the sigmoid and descending colon
o However, they can also be right-sided
o Diverticulae are NOT found in the rectum
o Diverticular are found particularly at sites of nutrient artery penetration
o Diverticular obstruction by thickened faeces can lead to bacterial overgrowth, toxin production and mucosal injury
o Which can then lead to diverticulitis, perforation, pericolic phlegmon, abscess, ulceration and fistulation or stricture formation

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122
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of diverticular disease

A
  • Diverticular disease is VERY COMMON
  • 60% of people living in industrialised countries will develop colonic diverticulae
  • Rare < 40 yrs
  • Right-sided diverticulae are more common in Asia
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123
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of diverticular disease

A

• Often ASYMPTOMATIC (80-90%)
• Complications can lead to symptoms such as:
o PR bleeding
o Diverticulitis (causing LIF and lower abdominal pain and fever)
o Diverticular fistulation (causing pneumaturia, faecaluria and recurrent UTI)

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124
Q

Recognise the signs of diverticular disease on physical examination

A

• Diverticulitis - tender abdomen and signs of local or generalised peritonitis if a diverticulum has perforated

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125
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for diverticular disease

A

• Bloods:
o FBC: increased WCC, increased CRP
o Check clotting and cross-match if bleeding
• Barium Enema (with or without air contrast):
o Shows presence of diverticulae (saw-tooth appearance of lumen)
o This reflects pseudohypertrohy of circular muscle
o IMPORTANT: barium enema should NOT be performed in the acute setting because there is a high risk of perforation
• Flexible Sigmoidoscopy and Colonoscopy:

o Diverticulae can be visualised and other pathology (e.g. polyps and tumours) can be excluded
• In ACUTE setting: CT scan for evidence of diverticular disease and complications may be performed

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126
Q

Generate a management plan for diverticular disease

A

• Asymptomatic:
o Soluble high-fibre diet (20-30 g/day)
o Some drugs are under investigation for their use in preventing recurrent flares of diverticulitis (such as probiotics and anti-inflammatories)
• GI Bleed:
o PR bleeding usually managed conservatively with IV rehydration, antibiotics and blood transfusion if necessary
o Angiography and embolisation or surgery if severe
• Diverticulitis:
o IV antibiotics
o IV fluid rehydration
o Bowel rest
o Abscesses ma be drained by radiologically sited drains
• Surgery:
o May be necessary in patients with recurrent attacks or complications (e.g. perforation and peritonitis)
o Open surgery:
• Hartmann’s procedure (proctosigmoidectomy leaving a stoma)
• One-stage resection and anastomosis (risk of leak) - with or without defunctioning stoma
o Laparoscopic drainage, peritoneal lavage and drain placement can be effective

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127
Q

Identify the possible complications of diverticular disease

A
  • Diverticulitis
  • Pericolic abscess
  • Perforation
  • Faecal peritonitis
  • Colonic obstruction
  • Fistula formation (bladder, small intestine, vagina)
  • Haemorrhage
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128
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with diverticular disease

A

• 10-25% have one or more episodes of diverticulitis

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129
Q

Define IBS

A
•	A functional bowel disorder defined as recurrent episodes of abdominal pain/discomfort (in the absence of detectable organic pathology) for > 6 months of the previous year, associated with two of the following:
o	Altered stool passage 
o	Abdominal bloating 
o	Symptoms made worse by eating 
o	Passage of mucous
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130
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors for IBS

A
  • UNKNOWN
  • Could be visceral sensory abnormalities, gut motility abnormalities, psychosocial factors (e.g. stress), food intolerance (e.g. lactose) and many more
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131
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of IBS

A
  • COMMON
  • 10-20% of adults
  • More common in females (2:1 ratio)
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132
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of IBS

A
•	6+ months history of abdominal pain 
o	Pain is often colicky 
o	It is in the lower abdomen 
o	Relieved by defecation or passing of flatus 
•	Altered bowel frequency (> 3 motions per day or < 3 motions per week) 
•	Abdominal bloating
•	Change in stool consistency 
•	Passage with urgency or straining 
•	Tenesmus 

• MAKE SURE YOU SCREEN FOR RED FLAG SYMPTOMS:
o Weight loss
o Anaemia
o PR bleeding
o Late onset (> 60 yrs)
o NOTE: if any of these are present then you must exclude colonic malignancy

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133
Q

Recognise the signs of IBS on physical examination

A
  • Usually NORMAL on examination

* Sometimes the abdomen may appear distended and be mildly tender on palpation in one or both iliac fossae

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134
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for IBS

A
  • Diagnosis is mainly from the history but organic pathology must be excluded
  • Blood: FBC (anaemia), LFT, ESR, CRP, TFT, anti-endomysial/anti-tranglutaminase antibodies (coeliac disease)
  • Stool examination: microscopy and culture for infective cause
  • Ultrasound: exclude gallstone disease
  • Urease breath test: exclude dyspepsia due to Helicobacter pylori
  • Endoscopy: if other pathologies suspected
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135
Q

Generate a management plan for IBS

A

• Advice: dietary modification
• Medical: depends on the main symptoms affecting the patient
o Antispasmodics (e.g. buscopan)
o Prokinetic agents (e.g. domperidone, metaclopramide)
o Anti-diarrhoeals (e.g. loperamide)
o Laxatives (e.g. senna, movicol, lactulose)
o Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants (may reduce visceral awareness)
• Psychological therapy:
o CBT
o Relaxation and psychotherapy

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136
Q

Identify the possible complications of IBS

A
  • Physical and psychological morbidity

* Increased incidence of colonic diverticulosis

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137
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with IBS

A
  • Chronic relapsing and remitting course of disease

* Often exacerbated by psychosocial stresses

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138
Q

Define biliary colic

A

• Pain resulting from obstruction of the gallbladder or common bile duct, usually by a stone. The pain, which is very severe, is usually felt in the upper abdomen (in the midline or to the right) but can also be poorly localised due to its visceral nature.

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139
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of biliary colic

A
•	Occurs due to contractions of the biliary tree in an attempt to relieve an obstruction (e.g. due to a stone) 
•	Risk factors of gallstones:
o	Fair (Caucasian)
o	Fat 
o	Fertile 
o	Forty 
o	Female
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140
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of biliary colic

A
  • 10-15% of people in the adult Western world will develop gallstones
  • Biliary colic is the most common presentation of gallstone disease
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141
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of biliary colic

A
  • Crampy RUQ pain
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Pain may radiate to the right scapula
  • The pain does NOT fluctuate and has a tendency to persist
  • Individuals may present with pain following ingestion of a fatty meal
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142
Q

Recognise the signs of biliary colic on physical examination

A

• RUQ pain and epigastric tenderness

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143
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for biliary colic

A

• Urinalysis, CXR and ECG to exclude other causes (e.g. basal pneumonia, inferior MI)
• Ultrasound
o Look for dilatation of the CBD
o Gallbladder wall may be thickened
• LFT
• ERCP - useful diagnostically and therapeutically
• CT - may be useful if other forms of imaging have been insufficient

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144
Q

Generate a management plan for biliary colic

A
•	Analgesia 
•	IV fluids 
•	NBM
•	Surgical
o	Laparoscopic cholecystectomy 
•	ERCP can also be used to help remove stones or stent a blocked bile duct
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145
Q

Identify possible complications of biliary colic

A

• Complications of surgery
o Injury to the bile duct
o Fat intolerance - due to inability to secrete a large amount of bile into the intestine because the patient no longer has a gallbladder
o Post-cholecystectomy syndrome - presence of abdominal symptoms (e.g. dyspepsia, nausea/vomiting, RUQ pain) after the removal of the gallbladder

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146
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patient with biliary colic

A

• GOOD prognosis with appropriate treatment

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147
Q

Define gastric cancer

A
•	Cancer of the stomach. Most commonly adenocarcinoma
o	Rarer causes of gastric cancer:
•	Lymphoma 
•	Leiomyosarcoma 
•	Stromal tumours
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148
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of gastric cancer

A
•	UNKNOWN
•	Environment and genetics
•	Risk Factors
o	Smoked and processed foods 
o	Smoking 
o	Alcohol
o	Helicobacter pylori infection 
o	Atrophic gastritis 
o	Pernicious anaemia 
o	Partial gastrectomy 
o	Gastric polyps
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149
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of gastric cancer

A
  • COMMON cause of cancer death worldwide
  • Highest incidence in JAPAN (and Asia in general)
  • 6th most common cancer in the UK
  • Usual age of presentation: > 50 yrs
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150
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of gastric cancer

A
  • Often asymptomatic early
  • Early satiety
  • Epigastric discomfort
  • Systemic symptoms: weight loss, anorexia, nausea/vomiting
  • Dysphagia (in tumours of the gastric cardia)
  • Symptoms of metastases (e.g. ascites, jaundice)
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151
Q

Recognise the signs of gastric cancer on physical examination

A
  • Epigastric mass
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Ascites
  • Signs of anaemia
  • Virchow’s Node (aka Troisier’s sign)
  • Sister Mary Joseph’s Nodule (metastatic node on the umbilicus)

• Krukenberg’s Tumour (ovarian metastases)

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152
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for gastric cancer

A

• Upper GI endoscopy

  • Bloods - FBC (check for anaemia), LFTs
  • CT/MRI - for staging
  • Endoscopic USS - assess depth of gastric invasion and lymph node involvement
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153
Q

Define GORD

A

• Inflammation of the oesophagus caused by reflux of gastric acid and/or bile.

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154
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of GORD

A

• Caused by disruption of mechanisms that prevent reflux
• Mechanisms that prevent reflux:
o Lower oesophageal sphincter
o Acute angle of junction
o Mucosal rosette
o Intra-abdominal portion of oesophagus (diaphragm acts as a sphincter)
• Prolonged oesophageal acid clearance contributes to 50% of cases

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155
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of GORD

A
  • COMMON

* 5-10% of adults

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156
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of GORD

A

• Substernal/epigastric burning discomfort or ‘heartburn’
• Aggravated by:
o Lying supine
o Bending
o Large meals
o Drinking alcohol
• Pain is relieved by antacids
• Waterbrash (regurgitation of an excessive accumulation of saliva from the lower part of the oesophagus often with some acid material from the stomach)
• Aspiration - may result in hoarseness, laryngitis, nocturnal cough and wheeze
• Dysphagia - caused by formation of peptic stricture after long-standing reflux

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157
Q

Recognise the signs of GORD on physical examination

A
  • Usually NORMAL

* Occasionally - epigastric tenderness, wheeze on chest auscultation, dysphonia

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158
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for GORD

A

• Often a CLINICAL diagnosis
• Upper GI endoscopy, biopsy and cytological brushings
o Confirms presence of oesophagitis and can exclude malignancy
• Barium Swallow can detect:
o Hiatus hernia
• NOTE: operation to repair hiatus hernia is called Nissen fundoplication
o Peptic stricture
o Extrinsic compression of the oesophagus
• CXR:
o This is NOT specific for GORD
o However, a CXR can lead to the incidental finding of a hiatus hernia (gastric bubble behind the cardiac shadow)
• 24 hr oesophageal pH monitoring:
o pH probe places in lower oesophagus determines the temporal relationship between symptoms and oesophageal pH

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159
Q

Generate a management plan for GORD

A

• Advice:
o Weight loss
o Elevating head of bed
o Avoid provoking factors
o Stop smoking
o Lower fat meals
o Avoid large meals late in the evening
• Medical:
o Antacids
o Alginates
o H2 antagonists (e.g. ranitidine)
o Proton pump inhibitors (e.g. lansoprazole, omeprazole)
• Endoscopy:
o Annual endoscopic surveillance - looking for Barrett’s Oesophagus
o May be necessary for stricture dilation or stenting
• Surgery:
o Antireflux surgery if refractory to medical treatment
• Nissen Fundoplication:
o Fundus of the stomach is wrapped around the lower oesophagus - helps reduce the risk of hiatus hernia and reduce reflux

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160
Q

Identify the possible complications of GORD

A
  • Oesophageal ulceration
  • Peptic stricture
  • Anaemia
  • Barrett’s oesophagus
  • Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  • Associated with asthma and chronic laryngitis
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161
Q

Summarise the prognosis of patients with GORD

A
  • 50% respond to lifestyle measures alone
  • In patients that require drug therapy, withdrawal is often associated with relapse
  • 20% of patients undergoing endoscopy for GORD have Barrett’s oesophagus
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162
Q

Define gastroenteritis

A

• Acute inflammation of the lining of the GI tract, manifested by nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort.

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163
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of gastroenteritis

A
•	Caused by viruses, bacteria, protozoa or toxins contained in contaminated food or water (faecal-oral route) 
•	Viral:
o	Rotavirus 
o	Adenovirus 
o	Astrovirus 
o	Calcivirus 
o	Norwalk virus 
o	Small round structures viruses 
•	Bacterial:
o	Campylobacter jejuni
o	Escherichia coli (particularly O157)
o	Salmonella
o	Shigella 
o	Vibrio cholerae 
o	Listeria 
o	Yersinia enterocolitica
•	Protozoal:
o	Entamoeba histolytica
o	Cryptosporidium parvum
o	Giardia lamblia
•	Toxins from:
o	Staphylococcus aureus
o	Clostridium botulinum
o	Clostridium perfringens 
o	Bacillus cereus 
o	Mushrooms 
o	Heavy metals 
o	Seafood 
•	Commonly contaminated foods:
o	Improperly cooked meat 
o	Old rice 
o	Eggs and poultry 
o	Milk and cheeses 
o	Canned food
164
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of gastroenteritis

A
  • COMMON

* Serious cause of morbidity and mortality in the developing world

165
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of gastroenteritis

A

• Sudden onset nausea, vomiting, anorexia
• DIARRHOEA (bloody or watery)
• Abdominal pain or discomfort
• Fever and malaise
• IMPORTANT: enquire about recent travel, antibiotic use and recent food intake (how the food was cooked, sourced and whether anyone else is ill)
• Time of Onset:
o Toxins = early (1-24 hours)
o Bacterial/viral/protozoal = 12+ hours
• Pay attention to the other effects of toxins:
o Botulinum causes paralysis
o Mushrooms can cause fits, renal or liver failure

166
Q

Recognise the signs of gastroenteritis on physical

A
  • Diffuse abdominal tenderness
  • Abdominal distension
  • Bowel sounds are often INCREASED
  • In SEVERE gastroenteritis: pyrexia, dehydration, hypotension and peripheral shutdown

IMPORTANT: ANY DIARRHOEAL CONDITION CAN LEAD TO DEHYDRATION so assess and address the patient’s hydration status immediately

167
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for gastroenteritis

A
  • Bloods: FBC, blood culture (identify bacteraemia), U&Es (dehydration)
  • Stool: faecal microscopy and analysis for toxins (particularly for the toxin causing pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile toxin)
  • AXR or ultrasound: exclude other causes of abdominal pain (e.g. bowel perforation)
  • Sigmoidoscopy: usually unnecessary unless inflammatory bowel disease needs to be excluded
168
Q

Generate a management plan for gastroenteritis

A
  • Bed rest
  • Fluid and electrolyte replacement with oral rehydration solution (contains glucose and salt)
  • IV rehydration may be necessary in those with severe vomiting
  • Most infections are self-limiting (so will go away with time)
  • Antibiotic treatment is only used if severe or if infective agent has been identified
  • NOTE: if botulism is present (due to Clostridium botulinum) treat with botulinum antitoxin (IM) and manage in ITU
  • NOTE: this is often a notifiable disease and is an important public health issue
169
Q

Identify the possible complications of gastroenteritis

A
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Prerenal failure (due to dehydration)
  • Secondary lactose intolerance (particularly in infants)
  • Sepsis and shock
  • Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (associated with toxins from E. coli O157)
  • Guillain-Barre Syndrome may occur weeks after recovery from Campylobacter gastroenteritis
  • NOTE: botulism can lead to respiratory muscle weakness or paralysis
170
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with gastroenteritis

A

• Good prognosis because most cases are self-limiting

171
Q

Define gastrointestinal perforation

A

• Perforation of the wall of the GI tract with spillage of bowel contents

172
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of gastrointestinal perforation

A
•	Large Bowel
o	COMMON:
•	Diverticulitis 
•	Colorectal cancer 
•	Appendicitis 
o	Others: volvulus, ulcerative colitis (toxic megacolon) 
•	Gastroduodenal
o	COMMON: 
•	Perforated duodenal or gastric ulcer 
o	Others: gastric cancer 
•	Small Bowel (RARE)
o	Trauma 
o	Infection (e.g. TB) 
o	Crohn's disease 
•	Oesophagus
o	Boerhaave's perforation - rupture of the oesophagus following forceful vomiting
•	Risk Factors
o	Risk factors of cause (e.g. gastroduodenal - NSAIDs, steroids, bisphosphonates)
173
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of gastrointestinal perforation

A

• Incidence depends on cause

174
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of gastrointestinal perforation

A

• Depends on CAUSE
• Large Bowel
o Peritonitic abdominal pain
o IMPORTANT: make sure you rule out ruptured AAA
• Gastroduodenal
o Sudden-onset severe epigastric pain - worse on movement
o Pain becomes generalised
o Gastric malignancy - may have accompanying weight loss and nausea/vomiting
• Oesophageal
o Severe pain following an episode of violent vomiting
o Neck/chest pain and dysphagia develop soon afterwards

175
Q

Recognise the signs of gastrointestinal perforation on clinical examination

A
  • Very UNWELL
  • Signs of shock
  • Pyrexia
  • Pallor
  • Dehydration
  • Signs of peritonitis (guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness, absent bowel sounds)
  • Loss of liver dullness (due to overlying gas)
176
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for gastrointestinal perforation

A

• Bloods
o FBC, U&E, LFTs
o Amylase - will be raised with perforation (but should not be astronomical (as seen in pancreatitis))
• Erect CXR

o	Shows air under the diaphragm
•	AXR
o	Shows abnormal gas shadowing 
•	Gastrograffin Swallow
o	For suspected oesophageal perforations
177
Q

Generate a management plan for gastrointestinal perforation

A
•	Resuscitation
o	Correct fluid and electrolytes 
o	IV antibiotics (with anaerobic cover)
•	Surgical
o	Large Bowel
•	Identify site of perforation 
•	Peritoneal lavage 
•	Resection of perforated section (usually as part of a Hartmann's procedure)
o	Gastroduodenal
•	Laparotomy
•	Peritoneal lavage 
•	Perforation is closed with an omental patch
•	Gastric ulcers are biopsied 
•	Helicobacter pylori eradication if positive for H. pylori
o	Oesophageal
•	Pleural lavage 
•	Repair of ruptured oesophagus
178
Q

Identify possible complications of gastrointestinal perforation

A
  • Large and Small Bowel - peritonitis

* Oesophagus - mediastinitis, shock, overwhelming sepsis and death

179
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with gastrointestinal perforation

A

• Gastroduodenal
o Gastric ulcers have higher morbidity and mortality than duodenal ulcers
o POOR prognosis for perforated gastric carcinomas
• Large Bowel
o High risk of faecal peritonitis if left untreated
o This can lead to DEATH from septicaemia and multiorgan failure

180
Q

Define haemochromatosis

A

• An autosomal recessive disease in which increased intestinal absorption of iron causes accumulation of iron in tissues, which may lead to organ damage.

181
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of haemochromatosis

A
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Caused be a defect in the HFE gene
  • NOTE: the genetic penetrance of haemochromatosis is complex - not everyone who is homozygous will develop the clinical disease
182
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemochromatosis

A

• RARE

183
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of haemochromatosis

A
•	Often ASYMPTOMATIC until the late stages of the disease 
•	Symptoms usually start between 40-60 yrs
•	EARLY symptoms are vague:
o	Fatigue 
o	Weakness 
o	Arthropathy
o	Erectile dysfunction 
o	Heart problems 
•	May be an incidental finding (e.g. LFTs, serum ferritin) 
•	LATE symptoms:
o	Diabetes mellitus 
o	Bronzed skin 
o	Hepatomegaly
o	Impotence
o	Amenorrhoea
o	Hypogonadism
o	Cirrhosis 
o	Cardiac - arrhythmias and cardiomyopathy 
o	Neurological and psychiatric problems
184
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for haemochromatosis

A

• Haematinics - serum ferritin (HIGH), transferrin (LOW), transferrin saturation (HIGH), TIBC (LOW)
o NOTE: serum ferritin is NOT very specific because it is an acute phase protein
o Serum iron concentration and transferrin saturation do NOT accurately reflect total body iron stores
• Tests to exclude other causes of high ferritin:
o CRP - inflammation
o Chronic alcohol consumption
o ALT - liver necrosis
• LFTs
• Other investigations for abnormal liver function (e.g. hepatitis serology)
• Genetic testing
• Liver biopsy (rarely required)

185
Q

Define haemorrhoids

A
  • Anal vascular cushions become enlarged and engorged with a tendency to protrude, bleed or prolapse in the anal canal
  • Classification of Haemorrhoids

o Internal
• Arise from the superior haemorrhoidal plexus
• Lie ABOVE the dentate line
o External
• Lie BELOW the dentate line
o NOTE: dentate line = a line that divides the upper 2/3 and the lower 1/3 of the anal canal and represents the hindgut-proctodeum junction
• Degrees of Haemorrhoids

o 1st Degree - haemorrhoids that do NOT prolapse
o 2nd Degree - prolapse with defecation but reduce spontaneously
o 3rd Degree - prolapse and require manual reduction
o 4th Degree - prolapse that CANNOT be reduced

186
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of haemorrhoids

A
•	Exact cause is disputed 
•	Caused by disorganisation of the fibromuscular stroma of the anal cushions 
•	Risk Factors
o	Constipation 
o	Prolonged straining 
o	Derangement of the internal anal sphincter 
o	Pregnancy
o	Portal hypertension
187
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemorrhoids

A
  • COMMON

* Peak age: 45-65 yrs

188
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of haemorrhoids

A

• Usually ASYMPTOMATIC
• Bleeding
o Bright red blood that is on the toilet paper and drips into the pan after passage of stool
o Blood will NOT be mixed with the stool
• ABSENCE of alarm symptoms (weight loss, anaemia, change in bowel habit, passage of clotted or dark blood, mucus mixed with the stool)
• Other symptoms:
o Itching
o Anal lumps
o Prolapsing tissue
• NOTE: external haemorrhoids that have thrombosed can be very PAINFUL

189
Q

Recognise the signs of haemorrhoids on physical examination

A

• 1st or 2nd degree haemorrhoids are NOT usually visible on external inspection
• Internal haemorrhoids are NOT normally palpable on DRE unless they are thrombosed
• Haemorrhoids are usually visible on proctoscopy
• Differential Diagnosis
o Anal tags
o Anal fissures
o Rectal prolapse
o Polyps
o Tumours

190
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for haemorrhoids

A

• DRE
• Proctoscopy
• Rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopy
o Important to exclude a rectal or sigmoid source of bleeding
o IMPORTANT: haemorrhoids are common so the presence of haemorrhoids does NOT mean that you shouldn’t consider any other source of bleeding

191
Q

Generate a management plan for haemorrhoids

A

• Conservative
o High-fibre diet
o Increase fluid intake
o Bulk laxatives
o Topical creams (e.g. local anaesthetics)
• Injection Sclerotherapy
o Induces fibrosis of the dilated veins
• Banding
o Barron’s bands are applied proximal to the haemorrhoids
o The haemorrhoid will then fall off after a few days
o Higher cure rate but may be more painful than injection sclerotherapy
• Surgery
o Reserved for symptomatic 3rd and 4th degree haemorrhoids
o Milligan-Morgan haemorrhoidectomy - excision of three haemorrhoidal cushions
o Stapled haemorrhoidectomy is an alternative method
o Post-operatively the patient should be given laxatives to avoid constipation

192
Q

Identify possible complications of haemorrhoids

A
•	Bleeding 
•	Prolapse 
•	Thrombosis 
•	Gangrene 
•	Injection Sclerotherapy Complications
o	Prostatitis 
o	Perineal sepsis 
o	Impotence 
o	Retroperitoneal sepsis 
o	Hepatic abscess 
•	Haemorrhoidectomy Complications
o	Pain
o	Bleeding 
o	Incontinence 
o	Anal stricture
193
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with haemorrhoids

A
  • Often CHRONIC
  • High rate of recurrence
  • Surgery can provide long-term relief
194
Q

Define hepatocellular carcinoma

A

• Primary malignancy of the liver parenchyma

195
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of hepatocellular carcinoma

A
•	Associated with:
o	Chronic liver damage 
•	Alcoholic liver disease 
•	Hepatitis C 
•	Autoimmune disease 
o	Metabolic disease 
•	E.g. haemochromatosis 
o	Aflatoxins 
•	E.g. cereals contaminated with fungi
196
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hepatocellular carcinoma

A
  • COMMON
  • 1-2% of all malignancies
  • LESS common than liver metastases
  • High incidence in regions where hepatitis B and C are endemic
197
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma

A
•	Symptoms of Malignancy
o	Malaise 
o	Weight loss 
o	Loss of appetite 
•	History of Exposure to Carcinogens
o	High alcohol intake 
o	Hepatitis B or C (e.g. sexual activity, IV drug use) 
o	Aflatoxins 
•	Abdominal distention 
•	Jaundice
198
Q

Recognise the signs of hepatocellular carcinoma on physical examination

A
•	Signs of Malignancy
o	Cachexia 
o	Lymphadenopathy
•	Hepatomegaly (may be nodular) 
•	Jaundice 
•	Ascites 
•	Bruit over the liver
199
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for hepatocellular carcinoma

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC 
o	ESR 
o	LFTs 
o	Clotting 
o	-fetoprotein - tumour marker for liver cancer 
o	Hepatitis serology
•	Imaging
o	Abdominal US 
o	CT/MRI - GOLD STANDARD for staging 
•	Histology/Cytology
o	Ascitic tap my be sent for cytological analysis 
•	Staging
o	CT scan (chest/abdo/pelvis)
200
Q

Define inguinal hernia

A

• The abnormal protrusion of a peritoneal sac through a weakness of the abdominal wall in the inguinal region
o Direct Inguinal Hernia
• Protrusion of the hernial sac directly through a weakness in the transversalis fascia and posterior wall of the inguinal canal
• Arises medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
• Appear through Hesselbach’s triangle (BORDERS: lateral border of rectus abdominis, inferior epigastric vessels, inguinal ligament)
o Indirect Inguinal Hernia
• Protrusion of the hernial sac through the deep inguinal ring, following the path of the inguinal canal
o NOTE: if indirect and direct inguinal hernias coexist = pantaloon hernia

201
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of inguinal hernias

A

• Congenital - abdominal contents enter the inguinal canal through a patent processus vaginalis
• Acquired - due to increased intra-abdominal pressure along with muscle and transversalis fascia weakness
• Risk Factors
o Male
o Prematurity
o Age
o Obesity
o Raised intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. chronic cough)
o Constipation
o Bladder outflow obstruction
o Intraperitoneal fluid (e.g. ascites)

202
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of inguinal hernias

A
  • COMMON
  • Peak age in adults: 55-85 yrs
  • 9 x more common in MALES
203
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of inguinal hernias

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Patient notices a ‘lump in the groin’
  • May cause discomfort and pain
  • May be irreducible
  • May present because it has increased in size
  • May present because of complications (e.g. bowel obstruction)
204
Q

Recognise the signs of inguinal hernias on physical examination

A

• Groin lump that extends to the scrotum (males) or labia (women)
• Distinguishing inguinal and femoral hernias:
o Inguinal - superior and medial to the pubic tubercle
o Femoral - inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle
• Check for cough impulse
• Indirect hernias can be reduced and controlled by applying pressure over the deep inguinal ring
• Auscultation - there may be bowel sounds over the hernia
• Hernia may be irreducible
• Tenderness if strangulated
• Check for signs of complications
o Bowel obstruction and systemic upset (pyrexia, tachycardia etc.)

205
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for inguinal hernias

A

• If ACUTE with painful irreducible hernia
o Bloods
• FBC
• U&Es
• CRP
• Clotting
• Group and save (if operation is likely)
• ABGs - may show lactic acidosis from bowel ischaemia
o Imaging
• Erect CXR - check for perforation
• USS - exclude other causes of groin lump
• AXR - check for obstruction

206
Q

Generate a management plan for inguinal hernias

A

• Surgical
o Usually elective repair of uncomplicated hernias
o Mesh Repair

• The hernia is surgically reduced and a mesh is inserted to reinforce the defect in the transversalis fascia
o Laparoscopic Mesh Repair
o EMERGENCY
• If obstructed or strangulated
• Laparotomy with bowel resection may be indicated if the bowel is gangrenous

207
Q

Identify possible complications of inguinal hernias

A
•	Incarceration 
•	Strangulation 
•	Bowel obstruction 
•	Maydl's hernia (image on the right - strangulated W-shaped loop of small bowel) 
•	Richter's hernia (strangulation of only part of the bowel circumference) 
•	Surgery Complications
o	Pain 
o	Wound infection 
o	Haematoma 
o	Penile/scrotal oedema 
o	Mesh infection 
o	Testicular ischaemia
208
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with inguinal hernias

A
  • Slowly enlarge if left alone

* Surgical mesh repair has a GOOD outcome

209
Q

Define hiatus hernia

A

• Prolapse of the upper stomach through the diaphragmatic oesophageal hiatus

210
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of hiatus hernia

A
•	Congenital
•	Traumatic 
•	Non-traumatic
o	Sliding - the hernia moves in and out of the chest 
o	Paraoesophageal (rolling) - the hernia goes through a whole in the diaphragm next to the oesophagus
o	Mixed 
•	Risk Factors
o	Obesity 
o	Low-fibre diet 
o	Chronic oesophagitis 
o	Ascites 
o	Pregnancy
211
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hiatus hernia

A
  • Common in WESTERN countries
  • Increased frequency with age
  • 70% of patients are > 70 yrs
212
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of hiatus hernia

A

• Most are ASYMPTOMATIC
• Sliding hernias are more likely to cause symptoms
• Patients may present with symptoms of GORD
o Heartburn
o Waterbrash
• NO correlation between the size of the hernia and severity of the symptoms

213
Q

Recognise the signs of hiatus hernia on physical examination

A

• Usually NO SIGNS

214
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for hiatus hernia

A

• Bloods
o FBC - check for iron deficiency anaemia
• Radiology
o CXR - gastric air bubble may be seen above the diaphragm
o Barium swallow
• Endoscopy

215
Q

Generate a management plan for hiatus hernia

A
•	Medical
o	Modify lifestyle factors (e.g. lose weight) 
o	Inhibit acid production (e.g. PPIs) 
o	Enhance upper GI motility 
•	Surgical
o	Necessary in a MINORITY of patients 
o	Usually performed in patients with complications of reflux disease despite aggressive medical treatment or pulmonary complications (e.g. aspiration pneumonia) 
o	Nissen Fundoplication

• The stomach is pulled down through the oesophageal hiatus and part of the stomach is wrapped (360 degrees) around the oesophagus to make a new sphincter and reduce the likelihood of herniation
o Belsey Mark IV Fundoplication
• 270 degree wrap
o Hill Repair
• Gastric cardia is anchored to the posterior abdominal wall

216
Q

Identify possible complication of hiatus hernia

A
•	Oesophageal 
o	Intermittent bleeding 
o	Oesophagitis 
o	Erosions 
o	Barrett's oesophagus 
o	Oesophageal strictures 
•	Non-Oesophageal
o	Incarceration of hiatus hernia (only with paraoesophageal hernias) 
o	This can lead to strangulation and perforation
217
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with hiatus hernia

A
  • Generally GOOD

* Sliding hernias have a better prognosis than rolling hernias

218
Q

Define intestinal ischaemia

A

• Obstruction of a mesenteric vessel leading to bowel ischaemia and necrosis

219
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of intestinal ischaemia

A
•	Embolus (60%)
•	Thrombosis (40%)
•	Can be a consequence of:
o	Volvulus 
o	Intussusception
o	Bowel strangulation
o	Failed surgical resection
•	Risk Factors
o	AF
o	Endocarditis (can throw emboli)
o	Arterial Thrombosis: hypercholesterolaemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, smoking
o	Venous Thrombosis: portal hypertension, splenectomy, septic thrombophlebitis, OCP, thrombophilia
220
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of intestinal ischaemia

A
  • UNCOMMON

* More common in the ELDERLY

221
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of intestinal ischaemia

A
•	Severe acute colicky abdominal pain
•	Vomiting 
•	Rectal bleeding 
•	History of chronic mesenteric artery insufficiency
o	Gross weight loss 
o	Post-prandial abdominal pain
•	History of heart or liver disease
222
Q

Recognise the signs of intestinal ischaemia on physical examination

A
  • Diffuse abdominal tenderness
  • Abdominal distension
  • Tender palpable mass (ischaemic bowel)
  • Bowel sounds may be absent
  • Disproportionate degree of cardiovascular collapse
223
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for intestinal ischaemia

A
•	Diagnosis based on clinical suspicion or after laparotomy 
•	AXR - thickening of small bowel folds and signs of obstruction 
•	Bloods
o	ABG - lactic acidosis 
o	FBC
o	U&Es
o	LFTs 
o	Clotting 
o	Cross-match 
•	Mesenteric Angiography
o	Only if stable 

NOTE: the ‘watershed zone’ (the area between the supply of the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries - near the splenic flexure) is most vulnerable to intestinal ischaemia

224
Q

Define intestinal obstruction

A

• Obstruction of the normal movement of bowel contents. Classified according to the site:
o Small or Large bowel
o Partial or Complete obstruction
o Simple or Strangulated

225
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of intestinal obstruction

A
•	Extramural
o	Hernia 
o	Adhesions 
o	Bands 
o	Volvulus 
•	Intramural
o	Tumours 
o	Inflammatory strictures (e.g. Crohn's strictures, diverticulitis)
•	Intraluminal
o	Pedunculated tumours 
o	Foreign body (e.g. bezoars, gallstones)
226
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of intestinal obstruction

A
  • COMMON

* More common in the ELDERLY due to increasing incidence of adhesions, hernias and malignancy

227
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of intestinal obstruction

A
  • Severe gripping colicky pain with periods of ease
  • Abdominal distension
  • Frequent vomiting (it may be bile-stained or faeculent)
  • Absolute constipation
228
Q

Recognise the signs of intestinal obstruction on physical examination

A
  • Abdominal distension with generalised tenderness
  • May see visible peristalsis
  • Tinkling bowel sounds
  • Peritonitis - absent bowel sounds, guarding and rebound tenderness
  • Inspect for hernias
  • Look for abdominal scars - previous abdominal surgery increases the risk of adhesions
  • Inspect for abdominal mass (e.g. intussusception, carcinoma)
229
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for intestinal obstruction

A

• AXR

o Assists diagnosis and localisation
o Check for valvulae conniventes (small bowel) or haustra (large bowel)
• Water-Soluble Contrast Enema
• Barium follow through

230
Q

Generate a management plan for intestinal obstruction

A

• General
o Gastric aspiration via NG tube if the patient is vomiting
o IV fluids
o Electrolyte replacement
o Monitor vital signs, fluid balance and urine output
• Surgical
o Emergency laparotomy in acute obstruction

231
Q

Identify possible complications of intestinal obstruction

A
  • Dehydration
  • Bowel perforation
  • Peritonitis
  • Toxaemia
  • Gangrene of ischaemic bowel wall
232
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with intestinal obstruction

A
  • Variable

* Dependent on the general state of the patient and the prevalence of complications

233
Q

Define Liver Abscess and Liver Cyst

A
  • Abscess: liver infection resulting in a walled off collection of pus
  • Cyst: liver infection resulting in a walled off collection of cyst fluid
234
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of liver abscesses and cysts

A
•	Pyogenic (producing pus)
o	Escherichia coli
o	Klebsiella
o	Enterococcus
o	Bacteriodes
o	Streptococci
o	Staphylococci
o	60% are caused by biliary tract disease (e.g. gallstones, strictures, congenital cysts)
o	15% have unknown cause
•	Amoebic abscess
o	Caused by Entamoeba histolytica
•	Hydatid cyst:
o	Caused by tapeworm Echinococcus granulosis
•	Other causes: TB

NOTE: hydatid = a cyst containing watery fluid

235
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of liver abscesses and cysts

A
  • Pyogenic is the most common type of liver abscess in the industrialised world
  • Amoebic liver abscess - most common WORLDWIDE
  • Hydatid cysts - common in sheep-rearing countries
236
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of liver abscesses and cysts

A
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • RUQ/epigastric pain that may be referred to the shoulder (due to irritation of the diaphragm)
  • Jaundice
  • Diarrhoea
  • Pyrexia of unknown origin
  • IMPORTANT: make sure you ask about foreign travel
237
Q

Recognise the signs of liver abscesses and cysts on physical examination

A
•	Fever - continuous or spiking 
•	Jaundice 
•	Tender hepatomegaly (right lobe affected more than left)
•	Right lung base:
o	Dullness to percussion 
o	Reduced breath sounds 
o	Due to reactive pleural effusion
238
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for liver abscesses and cysts

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC
•	Mild anaemia 
•	Leukocytosis 
•	High eosinophils (if hydatid disease)
o	LFTs
•	High ALP
•	High bilirubin
o	High ESR and CRP
o	Blood cultures 
o	Amoebic and hydatid serology
•	Stool MC&S - for E. histolytica
•	Liver US or CT/MRI - localises structure of mass

• CXR - check for right pleural effusion or atelectasis, raised hemidiaphragm
• Aspiration and culture of the abscess material
o Most pyogenic liver abscesses are polymicrobial
o Amoebic abscesses have fluid of necrotic hepatocytes and trophozoites

239
Q

Define liver failure

A

• Severe liver dysfunction leading to jaundice, encephalopthy and coagulopathy
• It is classified based on the time interval between the onset of jaundice and the development of hepatic encephalopathy
o Hyperacute = < 7 days
o Acute = 1-4 weeks
o Subacute = 4-12 weeks
• Acute-on-Chronic Liver Failure = acute deterioration (decompensation) in patients with chronic liver disease

240
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of liver failure

A

• Viral
o Hepatitis A, B, C, D and E
• Drugs
o Paracetamol overdose
o Idiosyncratic drug reactions
• Less common causes
o Autoimmune hepatitis
o Budd-Chiari syndrome
o Pregnancy-related
o Malignancy (e.g. lymphoma)
o Haemochromatosis
o Mushroom poisoning (Amanita phalloides)
o Wilson’s disease
• Pathogenesis of the manifestations of liver failure
o Jaundice - due to decreased secretion of conjugated bilirubin
o Encephalopathy
• Nitrogenous products (e.g. ammonia) is absorbed in the gut and goes via the portal circulation to the liver
• A normal liver would be able extract these harmful substances
• However, if the liver is failing, these toxic products can go through the liver and reach the brain and exert its effects
o Coagulopathy
• Reduced synthesis of clotting factors
• Reduced platelets
• Platelet functional abnormalities associated with jaundice or renal failure

241
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of liver failure

A

• Paracetamol overdose counts for 50% of acute liver failure in the UK

242
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of liver failure

A
  • May be asymptomatic
  • Fever
  • Nausea
  • Jaundice (not always)
243
Q

Recognise the signs of liver failure on physical examination

A
  • Jaundice
  • Encephalopathy
  • Asterixis
  • Fetor hepaticus
  • Ascites and splenomegaly (less common if acute or hyperacute)
  • Bruising or bleeding
  • Signs of secondary causes (e.g. bronze skin colour, Kayser-Fleisher rings)
  • Pyrexia - may indicate infection or liver necrosis
244
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for liver failure

A
•	Identify the cause
o	Viral serology 
o	Paracetamol levels 
o	Autoantibodies (e.g. ASM, Anti-LKM)
o	Ferritin (haemochromatosis)
o	Caeruloplasmin and urinary copper (Wilson's disease)
•	Bloods
o	FBC
•	Low Hb (if GI bleed)
•	High WCC (if infection)
o	U&Es
•	May show renal failure (hepatorenal syndrome) 
o	Glucose 
o	LFTs
•	High bilirubin
•	High AST, ALT, ALP, GGT
•	Low albumin 
o	ESR/CRP
o	Coagulation screen 
o	ABG - to determine blood pH 
o	Group and save 
•	Liver US/CT
•	Ascitic Tap
o	Send for MC&S
o	If neutrophils > 250/mm3 = spontaneous bacterial peritonitis 
•	Doppler scan of hepatic or portal veins - check for Budd-Chiari syndrome 
•	EEG - monitor encephalopathy
245
Q

Generate a management plan for liver failure

A

• Resuscitation - ABC
• Treat the cause if possible:
o N-acetylcysteine - treatment for paracetamol overdose
• Treatment/prevention of complications (invasive ventilation and cardiovascular support is often required)
o Monitor - vital signs, PT, pH, creatinine, urine output, encephalopathy
o Manage encephalopathy: lactulose and phosphate enemas
o Antibiotic and antifungal prophylaxis
o Hypoglycaemia treatment
o Coagulopathy treatment - IV vitamin K, FFP, platelet infusions
o Gastric mucosa protection - PPIs or sucralfate
o AVOID sedatives or drugs metabolised by the liver
o Cerebral oedema - decrease ICP with mannitol
• Renal Failure
o Haemodialysis
o Nutritional support
• Surgical - liver transplant

246
Q

Identify the possible complications of liver failure

A
  • Infection
  • Coagulopathy
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Disturbance of electrolyte balance and acid-base balance
  • Disturbance of cardiovascular system
  • Hepatorenal syndrome
  • Cerebral oedema (causing raised ICP)
  • Respiratory failure
247
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with liver failure

A

• Depends on severity and aetiology

248
Q

Define Mallory-Weiss tear

A

• Tearing of the lining of the oesophagus around the junction with the stomach as a result of violent vomiting or straining to vomit.

249
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Mallory-Weiss tears

A
•	Caused by prolonged violent vomiting 
•	Risk Factors
o	Chronic alcohol abuse 
o	Bulimia
o	Other causes: trauma, intense coughing, gastritis
250
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Mallory-Weiss tears

A

• Quite rare

251
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Mallory-Weiss tears

A
  • Most cases do not cause any symptoms
  • Abdominal pain
  • Severe vomiting
  • Haematemesis
  • Involuntary retching
  • Black/tarry stools
  • Symptoms of hypovolaemia if SEVERE blood loss (e.g. light-headedness)
252
Q

Recognise the signs of Mallory-Weiss tears on physical examination

A
  • Melaena

* See above

253
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Mallory-Weiss tears

A
  • OGD

* Bloods - FBC to check for anaemia

254
Q

Generate a management plan for Mallory-Weiss tears

A

• 80-90% of the time, the bleeding from a Mallory-Weiss tear will stop on its own
• Surgery may be necessary if the bleeding does NOT stop
o Injection sclerotherapy
o Coagulation therapy
o Arteriography
• NOTE: transfusions may be required if blood loss has been severe
• Anti-reflux medications may also be prescribed

255
Q

Identify possible complications of Mallory-Weiss tears

A

• Boerhaave’s perforation

256
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Mallory-Weiss tears

A

• GOOD prognosis

257
Q

Define NASH

A

• A term used to describe a range of conditions caused by the build-up of fat in the liver due to causes other than excessive alcohol use.

258
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of NASH

A
•	A liver may initially become fatty due to alcohol abuse, however, these fatty deposits tend to resolve over a matter of days 
•	If the fat persists, it can cause inflammation and fibrosis (steatohepatitis) 
•	NASH also increases the risk of:
o	Diabetes mellitus 
o	MI
o	Stroke 
•	Risk Factors
o	Obesity
o	Type 2 diabetes mellitus 
o	Hypertension 
o	Hypercholesterolaemia
o	Age > 50 yrs 
o	Smoking
259
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of NASH

A
  • MOST COMMON liver disorder in developed countries

* 1/3 people in the UK have the early stages of NASH

260
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of NASH

A

• Usually NO SYMPTOMS in the early stages
• Usually found as an incidental finding
• Occasional symptoms include:
o Dull or aching RUQ pain
o Fatigue
o Unexplained weight loss
o Weakness
• Symptoms of cirrhosis will be experienced in the most advanced stages of NASH

261
Q

Recognise the signs of NASH on physical examination

A
  • RUQ pain/tenderness

* Signs of cirrhosis (e.g. jaundice, ascites, pruritus - in advanced stages of NASH)

262
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for NASH

A
  • LFTs - showing elevated AST and ALT
  • Liver Ultrasound - may show steatosis
  • Liver Biopsy
263
Q

Generate a management plan for NASH

A
•	Conservative - controlling risk factors:
o	Blood pressure 
o	Diabetes 
o	Cholesterol 
o	Lose weight 
o	Stop smoking 
o	Exercise regularly 
o	Reduce alcohol consumption (although it is NOT caused by excessive alcohol, drinking can make it worse)
264
Q

Identify possible complications of NASH

A
•	CIRRHOSIS
o	Ascites 
o	Oesophageal varices 
o	Hepatic encephalopathy 
o	Hepatocellular carcinoma 
o	End-stage liver failure
265
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with NASH

A

• 20% with NASH will develop cirrhosis

266
Q

Define oesophageal cancer

A

• Malignant tumour arising in the oesophagus. There are TWO major histological types:
o Squamous cell carcinoma
o Adenocarcinoma

267
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of oesophageal cancer

A
•	Squamous Cell Carcinoma
o	Alcohol 
o	Tumour 
o	Plummer-Vinson syndrome
o	Achalasia
o	Scleroderma
o	Coeliac disease 
o	Nutritional deficiencies
o	Dietary toxins (e.g. nitrosamines) 
•	Adenocarcinoma
o	GORD
o	Barrett's oesophagus
268
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of oesophageal cancer

A
  • 8th most common cancer
  • 3 x more common in MALES
  • Squamous cell carcinoma is more common in DEVELOPING COUNTRIES
  • Adenocarcinoma is more prevalent in the WESTERN WORLD
269
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of oesophageal cancer

A
  • Often ASYMPTOMATIC
  • Progressive dysphagia (initially worse for solids)
  • Regurgitation
  • Cough
  • Choking after food
  • Voice hoarseness
  • Odynophagia (painful swallowing)
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue (due to iron deficiency anaemia)
270
Q

Recognise the signs of oesophageal cancer on physical examination

A
•	There may be NO SIGNS 
•	Metastatic disease may cause:
o	Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy 
o	Hepatomegaly
o	Hoarseness 
o	Signs of bronchopulmonary involvement
271
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for oesophageal cancer

A
  • Endoscopy - brushings and biopsy
  • Imaging - barium swallow and CXR
  • Staging - CT chest and abdomen
  • Other - bronchoscopy, lung function tests and ABGs
272
Q

Define pancreatic cancer

A

• Malignancy arising from the exocrine or endocrine tissues of the pancreas

273
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of pancreatic cancer

A
•	UNKNOWN
•	5-10% are hereditary (e.g. MEN, HNPCC, FAP, Von-Hippel Lindau syndrome)
•	Risk Factors
o	Age 
o	Smoking
o	Diabetes mellitus 
o	Chronic pancreatitis 
o	Dietary (low intake of fresh fruit and vegetables)
274
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of pancreatic cancer

A
  • Increasing incidence
  • 2 x more common in MALES
  • Peak age: 60-80 yrs
275
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of pancreatic cancer

A
  • Initial symptoms are often NON-SPECIFIC
  • Anorexia
  • Malaise
  • Nausea
  • Epigastric pain
  • Weight loss
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Jaundice
276
Q

Recognise the signs of pancreatic cancer on physical examination

A
  • Weight loss
  • Epigastric tenderness or mass
  • Jaundice and a palpable gallbladder (Courvoisier’s law - a palpable gallbladder with painless jaundice is unlikely to be due to gallstones)
  • If metastatic spread –> hepatomegaly
  • Trousseau’s Sign of Malignancy - superficial thrombophlebitis
277
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for pancreatic cancer

A
•	Bloods
o	CA 19-9 
o	CEA is also elevated 
o	Obstructive jaundice features:
•	High bilirubin 
•	High ALP
•	Deranged clotting 
•	Imaging
o	Ultrasound 
o	CT with/without guided biopsy
o	MRI/MRCP
o	ERCP - may allow biopsy, bile cytology and stenting
278
Q

Define pancreatitis

A

• An acute inflammatory process of the pancreas with variable involvement of other regional tissues or remote organ systems.
• It can be classified as:
o Mild: minimal organ dysfunction and uneventful recovery
o Severe: organ failure and/or local complications such as necrosis, abscesses and pseudocysts

279
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of pancreatitis

A
•	An insult will result in the activation of pancreatic proenzymes within the pancreatic duct/acini leading to tissue damage and inflammation 
•	Causes of Pancreatitis: GET SMASHED
o	Gallstones 
o	Ethanol
o	Trauma
o	Steroids
o	Mumps/HIV/Coxsackie
o	Autoimmune
o	Scorpion Venom
o	Hypercalcaemia/hypercalcaemia/hypothermia
o	ERCP
o	Drugs (e.g. sodium valproate, steroids, thiazides and azathioprine)
280
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of pancreatitis

A
•	COMMON
•	UK Annual Incidence: 10/10,000
•	Peak age: 60 yrs 
•	Most common cause in:
o	Males = alcohol 
o	Females = gallstones
281
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of pancreatitis

A
  • Severe epigastric pain
  • Radiating to the back
  • Relieved by sitting forward
  • Aggravated by movement
  • Associated with anorexia, nausea and vomiting
  • IMPORTANT: check whether the patient has a history of high alcohol intake or gallstones
282
Q

Recognise the signs of pancreatitis on physical examination

A
•	Epigastric tenderness 
•	Fever 
•	Shock (includes tachycardia and tachypnoea) 
•	Decreased bowel sounds (due to ileus) 
•	In severe pancreatitis: 
o	Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising)
o	Grey-Turner sign (flank bruising)
283
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for pancreatitis

A

• Blood:
o VERY HIGH SERUM AMYLASE (this does not correlate with severity)
o High WCC
o U&Es (to check for dehydration)
o High glucose
o High CRP
o Low Calcium (saponification - calcium binds to digested lipids from the pancreas to form soap)
o LFTs (may be deranged if gallstone pancreatitis or alcohol)
o ABG (for hypoxia or metabolic acidosis)
• USS: check for evidence of gallstones in biliary tree
• Erect CXR: may be pleural effusion. Also to check for bowel perforation
• AXR: exclude other causes of acute abdomen
• CT Scan: if diagnosis is uncertain or if persisting organ failure

284
Q

Generate a management plan for pancreatitis

A

• Assessment of severity has TWO main scales:
o Modified Glasgow Score (combined with CRP (> 210 mg/L)
o APACHE-II Score
o NOTE: In the USA, the Ranson score is often used (this is specific for alcoholic pancreatitis)
• Medical Management:
o Fluid and electrolyte resuscitation
o Urinary catheter and NG tube if vomiting
o Analgesia
o Blood sugar control
o HDU and ITU care
o Prophylactic antibiotics may be useful in reducing mortality
• ERCP and Sphincterotomy:
o Used for gallstone pancreatitis, cholangitis, jaundice or dilated common bile duct
o Ideally performed within 72 hours
o All patients presenting with gallstone pancreatitis should undergo definitive management of gallstones during the same admission or within 2 weeks
• Early detection and treatment of complications:
o For example if there are persistent symptoms or > 30% pancreatic necrosis or signs of sepsis –> image guided fine needle aspiration for culture
• Surgical:
o Necrotising pancreatitis should be managed by specialists
o Necresectomy (drainage and debridement of necrotic tissue) may be necessary

285
Q

Identify the possible complications of pancreatitis

A
•	Local:
o	Pancreatic necrosis 
o	Pseudocyst (peripancreatic fluid collection lasting > 4 weeks) 
o	Abscess 
o	Ascites 
o	Pseudoaneurysm
o	Venous thrombosis 
•	Systemic:
o	Multiorgan dysfunction 
o	Sepsis 
o	Renal failure 
o	ARDS 
o	DIC 
o	Hypocalcaemia 
o	Diabetes 
•	Long-Term: could result in chronic pancreatitis
286
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with pancreatitis

A
  • 20% follow severe fulminating course with high mortality
  • Infected pancreatic necrosis has a 70% mortality
  • 80% follow a milder course (but this still has 5% mortality)
287
Q

Define chronic pancreatitis

A

• Chronic inflammatory disease of the pancreas characterised by irreversible parenchymal atrophy and fibrosis leading to impaired endocrine and exocrine function and recurrent abdominal pain.

288
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of chronic pancreatitis

A

• ALCOHOL - 70%
• Idiopathic - 20%
• RARE: recurrent acute pancreatitis, ductal obstruction, pancreas divisum, hereditary pancreatitis, tropical pancreatitis, autoimmune pancreatitis, hyperparathyroidism
• EXTRA information about pathology/pathogenesis:
o Chronic pancreatitis is caused by disruption of normal pancreatic glandular architecture due to chronic inflammation and fibrosis, calcification, parenchymal atrophy, ductal dilation and cyst and stone formation
o Pain is associated with raised intraductal pressures

289
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of chronic pancreatitis

A
  • Annual UK incidence: 1/100,000
  • Prevalence: 3/100,000
  • Mean age: 40-50 yrs (in alcohol-associated disease)
290
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of chronic pancreatitis

A
  • Recurrent severe epigastric pain
  • Pain radiates to the back
  • Pain relieved by sitting forward
  • Pain can be aggravated by eating or drinking alcohol
  • Over many years –> weight loss, bloating and steatorrhoea
291
Q

Recognise the signs of chronic pancreatitis on physical examination

A
  • Epigastric tenderness

* Signs of complications e.g. weight loss, malnutrition

292
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for chronic pancreatitis

A

• Bloods:
o High glucose (endocrine dysfunction) - glucose tolerance test may be performed
o Amylase and lipase usually normal
o High Ig (especially IgG4 in autoimmune pancreatitis)
• Ultrasound
• ERCP or MRCP:
o Early changes that can be seen include main duct dilatation and stumping of branches
o Late manifestations include duct strictures with alternating dilatation
• Abdominal X-Ray:
o May show pancreatic calcification
• CT Scan:
o May show pancreatic calcification and pancreatic cysts
• Tests of pancreatic exocrine function:
o Faecal elastase (reflects pancreatic exocrine function)

293
Q

Generate a management plan for chronic pancreatitis

A

• General:
o Treatment is mainly symptomatic and supportive (e.g. dietary advice, stop smoking/drinking, treat diabetes, oral pancreatic enzyme replacement, analgesia)
o Chronic pain management may need specialist input
• Endoscopy Therapy:
o Sphincterotomy
o Stone extraction
o Dilatation and stenting of strictures
o Extracorporial shock-wave lithotripsy (ESWL) is sometimes used to fragment larger pancreatic stones before removal
• Surgical:
o May be indicated if medical management fails
o Lateral pancreaticojejunal drainage (modified Puestow procedure)
o Pancreatic resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy or Whipple’s procedure)
o Limited resection of pancreatic head (Beger procedure)
o Combining opening of the pancreatic duct and excavation of the pancreatic head (Frey procedure)

294
Q

Identify the possible complications of chronic pancreatitis

A
•	Local:
o	Pseudocysts 
o	Biliary duct stricture 
o	Duodenal obstruction 
o	Pancreatic ascites 
o	Pancreatic carcinoma
•	Systemic:
o	Diabetes 
o	Steatorrhoea
o	Chronic pain syndromes 
o	Dependence on strong analgesics
295
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with chronic pancreatitis

A
  • Difficult to predict
  • Surgery improves symptoms in 60-70% but results are often not sustained
  • Life expectancy may be reduced by 10-20 years
296
Q

Define peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Ulceration of areas of the GI tract caused by exposure to gastric acid and pepsin. Peptic ulcers are most commonly gastric and duodenal (but they can also occur in the oesophagus and Meckel’s diverticulum).

297
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Caused by an imbalance between the damaging action of acid and pepsin penis and the mucosal protective mechanisms
• There is a strong correlation with Helicobacter pylori
• COMMON CAUSES of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis:
o Helicobacter pylori
o NSAIDs
• RARE cause: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (a condition in which a gastrin-secreting tumour or hyperplasia of the islet cells in the pancreas cause overproduction of gastric acid, resulting in recurrent peptic ulcers)

298
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A
•	COMMON
•	Annual incidence: 1-4/1000
•	More common in males
•	Mean age:
o	Duodenal ulcer: 30s
o	Gastric ulcers: 50s
•	Helicobacter pylori is usually acquired in childhood and prevalence is roughly equal to age in years
299
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Epigastric pain
• Relieved by antacids
• Symptoms have a variable relationship to food intake:
o Gastric - pain is worse soon after eating
o Duodenal - pain is worse several hours after eating
• Patients may present with complications e.g. haematemesis, melaena

300
Q

Recognise the signs of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis on physical examination

A
  • There may be NO physical findings
  • Epigastric tenderness
  • Signs of complications e.g. anaemia
301
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Bloods:
o FBC (for anaemia)
o Serum amylase (to exclude pancreatitis)
o U&Es
o Clotting screen
o LFT
o Cross-match if active bleeding
o Secretin test (if Zollinger-Ellison syndrome suspected) - IV secretin causes a rise in serum gastrin in ZE patients but not in normal patients)
• Endoscopy:
o Biopsies of gastric ulcers can be taken to rule out malignancy
o Duodenal ulcers do NOT need to be biopsied
• Rockall Scoring:
o Scores the severity after a GI bleed
o Score < 3 carries good prognosis
o Score > 8 carries high risk of mortality
• Testing for H. pylori:
o C13-urea breath test :
• Radio-labelled urea is given by mouth
• C13 is detected in the expelled air
o Serology:
• IgG antibody against H. pylori confirms exposure to H. pylori but NOT eradication
o Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test:
• Gastric biopsy is placed with a substrate of urea and a pH indicator
• If H. pylori is present, ammonia is produced from the urea and there is a colour change from yellow to red

302
Q

Generate a management plan for peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Acute:
o Fluid resuscitation needed if the ulcer is perforated or bleeding (IV colloids/crystalloids)
o Close monitoring of vital signs
o Endoscopy
o Surgical treatment
o NOTE: patients with upper GI bleeding should be treated with IV PPIs at presentation until the cause of bleeding is identified
• Endoscopy:
o If the ulcer is bleeding, haemostasis can be achieved with:
• Injection sclerotherapy
• Laser coagulation
• Electrocoagulation
• Surgery:
o Indicated if the ulcer has perforated or if the bleeding ulcer can’t be controlled
• Helicobacter pylori eradication:
o Triple therapy for 1-2 weeks
o Various combinations may be recommended - usually a combination of 2 antibiotics + PPI (e.g. clarithromycin + amoxicillin + omeprazole)
• If peptic ulcer disease is NOT associated with H. pylori:
o Treat with PPIs or H2 antagonists
o Stop NSAID use
o Use misoprostol (prostoglandin E1 analogue) if NSAID use is necessary

303
Q

Identify the possible complications of peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A

• Rate of major complication = 1 % per year
• Major complications:
o Haemorrhage (haematemesis, melaena, iron-deficiency anaemia)
o Perforation
o Obstruction/pyloric stenosis (due to scarring, penetration, pancreatitis)

304
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with peptic ulcer disease and gastritis

A
  • Overall lifetime risk = 10%

* Outlook is generally good because peptic ulcers associated with H. pylori can be cured by eradication

305
Q

Define perineal abscesses and fistulae

A
  • Perineal Abscess: a pus collection in the perineal region
  • Perineal Fistula: an abnormal chronically infected tract communicating between the perineal skin and either the anal canal or the rectum
306
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of anal abscesses and fistulae

A

• Bacterial infection
• Fistulae develop as a complication of an abscess
• Fistulae can develop as a complications of Crohn’s disease
o The development of multiple perineal fistulae in Crohn’s disease is called pepper pot perineum
• Risk Factors
o IBD
o Diabetes mellitus
o Malignancy

307
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of anal abscesses and fistulae

A

• COMMON

308
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of anal abscesses and fistulae

A
  • Constant throbbing pain in the perineum
  • Intermittent discharge (mucus or faecal staining) near the anal region
  • Personal or family history of IBD
309
Q

Recognise the signs of anal abscesses and fistulae on physical examination

A

• Localised tender perineal mass (may be fluctuant)
• Small skin lesion near the anus (opening of the fistula)
• DRE
o A thickened area over the abscess/fistula may be felt
o DREs are not always possible due to pain and anal sphincter spasm
• Goodsall’s Law

o This is a rule that allows you to correlate the location of the internal fistula opening based on the location of the external fistula opening
o If the external fistula opening is ANTERIOR to the anal canal (i.e. lies anterior to the transverse anal line), the fistula runs radially and directly into the anal canal
o A fistula that is 3 cm away and any fistula that has an external fistula opening lying posterior to the transverse anal line will follow a curved path and open internally in the posterior midline

310
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for perianal abscesses and fistulae

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC 
o	CRP
o	ESR 
o	Blood culture 
•	Imaging
o	MRI
•	Endoanal Ultrasound
o	Less useful than MRI
311
Q

Generate a management plan for perianal abscesses and fistulae

A

• Requires SURGICAL treatment
• Open Drainage of Abscess
• Laying Open of Fistula
o A probe is inserted to explore the fistula
o A dye can be inserted into the external opening to allow you to find the internal opening
o Low Fistula
• Fistulotomy
• Care must be taken to prevent damage to the anal sphincter
o High Fistula
• Fistulotomy would cause INCONTINENCE so is NOT performed
• Seton - a non-absorbable suture that is threaded through the fistula and allows drainage
• Antibiotics

312
Q

Identify possible complications of perianal abscesses and fistulae

A
  • Recurrence
  • Damage to internal anal sphincter
  • Incontinence
  • Persisting pain
313
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with perianal abscesses and fistulae

A

• High recurrence rate without complete excision

314
Q

Define peritonitis

A

• Inflammation of the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity. It can be localised to one part of the peritoneum or generalised.

315
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of peritonitis

A

• Localised Peritonitis
o Appendicitis
o Cholecystitis
o Diverticulitis
o Salpingitis
• Primary Generalised Peritonitis
o Bacterial infection of the peritoneal cavity without an obvious source
• Could be via haematogenous or lymphatic spread or ascending infection from the female genital tract)
o Risk Factors
• Ascites
• Nephrotic syndrome
• Secondary Generalised Peritonitis
o Caused by bacterial translocation from a localised focus
o Could be non-bacterial due to spillage of bowel contents, bile and blood (e.g. perforated peptic ulcer)

316
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of peritonitis

A
  • Primary peritonitis is RARE
  • Primary peritonitis is usually seen in adolescent females
  • Localised and secondary generalised peritonitis is COMMON in surgical patients
317
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of peritonitis

A
  • Do a full SOCRATES for peritonitis
  • Inflammation of the parietal peritoneum is usually continuous, sharp, localised, exacerbated by movement and coughing
  • Symptoms may be vague in those with liver disease and ascites (due to confusion caused by encephalopathy)
318
Q

Recognise the signs of peritonitis on physical examination

A

• Check vital signs and look for signs of dehydration or compromised perfusion (e.g. due to sepsis or hypovolaemia)
• Localised Peritonitis
o Tenderness on examination
o Guarding
o Rebound tenderness
• Generalised Peritonitis
o Very unwell
o Systemic signs of toxaemia or sepsis (e.g. fever, tachycardia)
o The patient will lie still
o Shallow breathing
o Rigid abdomen
o Generalised abdominal tenderness
o Reduced bowel sounds (may be absent due to paralytic ileus)
o DRE may show anterior tenderness (suggests pelvic peritonitis)

319
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for peritonitis

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC
o	U&Es
o	LFTs
o	Amylase 
o	CRP 
o	Clotting 
o	Group & Save or Cross-match 
o	Blood cultures 
o	Pregnancy test 
o	ABG
•	Imaging
o	Erect CXR (check for air under the diaphragm)
o	AXR (check for bowel obstruction)
o	USS or CT abdomen 
o	Laparoscopy 
•	If Ascites
o	Ascitic tap and cell count 
o	SBP = > 250 neutrophils/mm3
o	Gram stain and culture
320
Q

Generate a management plan for peritonitis

A

• Localised Peritonitis
o Depends on CAUSE
o Some causes may require surgery (e.g. appendicitis)
o Some causes can be treated with antibiotics (e.g. salpingitis)
• Generalised Peritonitis
o Patient may be at risk of DEATH from sepsis or shock
o IV fluids
o IV antibiotics
o Urinary catheter
o NG tube
o Central venous line (to monitor fluid balance)
o Laparotomy
• Remove the infected or necrotic tissue
• Treat cause
• Peritoneal lavage
o Primary Peritonitis - should be treated with antibiotics
• Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)
o Quinolone antibiotics
OR
o Cefuroxime + Metronidazole

321
Q

Identify possible complications of peritonitis

A
•	Early
o	Septic shock 
o	Respiratory failure 
o	Multiorgan failure 
o	Paralytic ileus 
o	Wound infection 
o	Abscesses 
•	Late
o	Incisional hernia 
o	Adhesions
322
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with peritonitis

A
  • Localised peritonitis usually resolves with treatment of the underlying cause
  • Generalised peritonitis has a much higher mortality (30-50%)
  • Primary peritonitis has a good prognosis with antibiotic treatment
  • SBP has a mortality > 30% if diagnosis and treatment is delayed
323
Q

Define pilonidal sinus

A

• An abnormal epithelium-lined tract filled with hair that opens onto the skin surface, most commonly in the natal cleft

324
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of pilonidal sinus

A

• Caused by shed or sheared hairs penetrating the skin and inciting and inflammatory reaction and sinus development
• Intermittent negative pressure will draw in more hair and perpetuate the cycle
• Risk Factors
o Hirsutism
o Spending a long time sitting down
o Occupational (e.g. hairdressers may develop interdigital pilonidal sinus)

325
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of pilonidal sinus

A
  • COMMON

* Affects 0.7% of young adults

326
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of pilonidal sinus

A
  • Painful natal cleft
  • Discharging swelling
  • Often recurrent
327
Q

Recognise the signs of pilonidal sinus on physical examination

A
  • Midline openings or pits between the buttocks
  • Hairs may protrude from the swelling
  • If infection or abscess, the swelling will become tender
  • It may be fluctuant and discharge pus or blood-stained fluid on compression
328
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for pilonidal sinus

A

• NONE needed
• Bloods - to check for signs of infection
o Raised WCC
o Fasting glucose (diabetics are at risk)

329
Q

Generate a management plan for pilonidal sinus

A
•	Acute Pilonidal Abscess
o	Incision and drainage 
•	Chronic Pilonidal Sinus
o	Excision under general anaesthesia with exploration 
•	Prevention
o	Good hygiene 
o	Shaving
330
Q

Identify possible complications of pilonidal sinus

A
  • Pain
  • Infection
  • Abscess
  • Recurrence
331
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with pilonidal sinus

A
  • Good with drainage
  • Shaving will cure in most cases
  • Usually resolves by the age of 40
332
Q

Define portal hypertension

A

• Abnormally high pressure within the hepatic portal vein.

o NOTE: clinically significant portal hypertension is defined as a hepatic venous pressure gradient > 10 mm Hg

333
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of portal hypertension

A
•	CIRRHOSIS is the most common cause 
•	Other causes can be divided as follows:
o	Pre-Hepatic - blockage of the portal vein before the liver
•	Congenital stenosis 
•	Portal vein thrombosis 
•	Splenic vein thrombosis 
•	Extrinsic compression
o	Hepatic
•	CIRRHOSIS
•	Chronic hepatitis 
•	Schistosomiasis
•	Myeloproliferative disease
o	Post-Hepatic - blockage of hepatic veins or venules
•	Budd-Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein obstruction)
•	Constrictive pericarditis 
•	Right heart failure
334
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of portal hypertension

A

• A common consequence of cirrhosis

335
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of portal hypertension

A

• Features of Liver Disease (likely to coexist with portal hypertension)
o Jaundice
o History of alcohol abuse
o Risk factors for viral hepatitis (e.g. tattoos, unprotected sex, IV drug use, travel abroad and blood transfusion)
o Family history (e.g. haemochromatosis)
• Complications of Portal Hypertension
o Haematemesis or melaena
o Lethargy, irritability, changes in sleep (hepatic encephalopathy)
o Abdominal distension (ascites)
o Abdominal pain and fever (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis)
o Pulmonary involvement

336
Q

Recognise the signs of portal hypertension on physical examination

A
•	Signs of Portal Hypertension
o	Caput medusae 
o	Splenomegaly
o	Ascites 
•	Signs of Liver Failure
o	Jaundice 
o	Spider naevi
o	Palmar erythema
o	Confusion 
o	Asterixis 
o	Fetor hepaticus 
o	Enlarged or small liver 
o	Gynaecomastia 
o	Testicular atrophy
337
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for portal hypertension

A

• Bloods
o LFTs
o U&Es
o Blood glucose
o FBC
o Clotting screen (prolongation of PT is one of the earliest signs of liver failure)
• Specific Tests
o Ferritin - haemochromatosis
o Hepatitis serology
o Autoantibodies (e.g. anti-smooth muscle antibodies in autoimmune hepatitis)
o 1-antitrypsin levels
o Caeruloplasmin - Wilson’s disease
• Imaging
o Abdominal ultrasound - check liver and spleen size and assess portal blood flow
o Doppler ultrasound - assess direction of blood flow in vessels
o CT/MRI - if other imaging methods are inconclusive
o Endoscopy - to check for oesophageal varices
• Measure hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG)
• Liver Biopsy - if indicated

338
Q

Generate a management plan for portal hypertension

A

• Difficult to treat portal hypertension specifically
• Treatment is mainly focused on treating the underlying cause where possible
• Conservative
o Salt restriction
o Diuretics
• Treatment of oesophageal varices if present
• Non-selective beta-blockers - reduces portal pressure and reduces risk of variceal bleeding
• Terlipressin - can reduce portal venous pressure
• Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) - surgical shunt placed between the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein to ease congestion in the portal vein
• Liver transplant

339
Q

Identify possible complications of portal hypertension

A
•	Bleeding from oesophageal varices 
•	Ascites + complications of ascites:
o	Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis 
o	Hepatorenal syndrome 
•	DEFINITION: a life-threatening condition that consists of a rapid deterioration in kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure
o	Hepatic hydrothorax
•	DEFINITION: a transudative pleural effusion in patients with portal hypertension without any underlying primary cardiopulmonary cause
•	Pulmonary complications 
o	Portopulmonary hypertension
o	Hepatopulmonary syndrome - triad of:
•	Hepatic dysfunction
•	Hypoxaemia
•	Extreme vasodilation (intrapulmonary vascular dilatation)
•	Liver failure 
•	Hepatic encephalopathy
•	Cirrhotic cardiomyopathy
340
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with portal hypertension

A
  • Depends on the underlying CAUSE

* Variceal haemorrhages have a 1-year mortality of 40%

341
Q

Define primary biliary cirrhosis

A

• A chronic inflammatory liver disease involving progressive destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, leading to cholestasis, and, ultimately, cirrhosis

342
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of primary biliary cirrhosis

A
  • UNKNOWN
  • Likely to be autoimmune
  • Genetic and environmental factors are involved
  • An environmental trigger may cause bile duct epithelial injury, which then leads to a T-cell mediated autoimmune response directed against bile duct epithelial cells
343
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of primary biliary cirrhosis

A

• Mainly affects middle-aged women (9:1 female: male)

344
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis

A

• May be an incidental finding on blood tests
• Insidious onset with vague symptoms such as:
o Fatigue
o Weight loss
o Pruritis
• Rarely, it may cause discomfort in the RUQ
• May present with a complication of liver decompensation (e.g. jaundice, ascites, variceal haemorrhage)
• May present with symptoms of associated conditions (e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome, arthritis, Raynaud’s phenomenon)

345
Q

Recognise the signs of primary biliary cirrhosis on physical examination

A
•	Early - may be no signs 
•	Late:
o	Jaundice 
o	Skin pigmentation 
o	Scratch marks 
o	Xanthomas (secondary to hypercholesterolaemia)
o	Hepatomegaly 
o	Ascites 
o	Signs of chronic liver disease
346
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for primary biliary cirrhosis

A

• Bloods
o LFT:
• High ALP + GGT
• Bilirubin may be high or normal
• ALT and AST are normal initially but will increase as the disease progresses and cirrhosis develops
o Clotting: prolongation of PT
o Typical features of PBC:
• Antimitochondrial antibodies (typical feature of PBC)
• High IgM
• High Cholesterol
o TFTs - because PBC is associated with autoimmune thyroid disease
• Ultrasound
o Exclude extrahepatic biliary obstruction (e.g. gallstones)
• Liver Biopsy
o In PBC, it will show chronic inflammatory cells and granulomas around the intrahepatic bile ducts, destruction of bile ducts, fibrosis and regenerating nodules of hepatocytes

347
Q

Define primary sclerosing cholangitis

A
•	A chronic cholestatic liver disease characterised by progressive inflammatory fibrosis and obliteration of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts
•	Pathology/Pathogenesis
o	Periductal inflammation with periductal concentric fibrosis 
o	Portal oedema
o	Bile duct proliferation 
o	Expansion of portal tracts 
o	Progressive fibrosis 
o	Development of biliary cirrhosis
348
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of primary sclerosing cholangitis

A
  • UNKNOWN
  • Possible immune and genetic predisposition with environmental triggers
  • Close association with inflammatory bowel disease (especially ulcerative colitis)
  • IMPORTANT: ulcerative colitis is present in about 70% of patients with PSC
349
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

• Usually presents between 25-40 years of age

350
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

• May be asymptomatic and diagnosed after persistently raised ALP
• May present with:
o Intermittent jaundice
o Pruritis
o RUQ pain
o Weight loss
o Fatigue
• May present with episodes of fever and rigors caused by acute cholangitis (but this is less common)
• IMPORTANT: check for a history of ulcerative colitis

351
Q

Recognise the signs of primary sclerosing cholangitis on examination

A
  • May have no signs
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Spider naevi
  • Palmar erythema
  • Ascites
352
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

• Bloods
o LFTs:
• High ALP + GGT
• Mildly elevated ALT + AST
• Low albumin + high bilirubin (later stages)
• Serology
o IgG high in children
o IgM high in adults
o ASMA and ANA present in 30%
o Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) usually ABSENT
o Perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) present in 70%
• ERCP
o Shows stricturing and interspersed dilation of intrahepatic and (occasionally) extraheptic bile ducts
o Small diverticuli on the common bile duct may be seen
• MRCP
o Enables non-invasive imaging of the biliary tree
• Liver Biopsy
o Confirm diagnosis and allows staging

353
Q

Define rectal prolapse

A

• The abnormal protrusion of the full thickness (or only the mucosal layer) of rectum through the anus

354
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of rectal prolapse

A
•	Straining 
•	Abnormal rectal anatomy or physiology (e.g. pelvic floor weakness, poor fixation of rectum to sacrum or reduced anal sphincter pressure) 
•	Risk Factors
o	Constipation 
o	Causes of increased straining 
o	Cystic fibrosis (in children)
o	Previous trauma to the anus/perineum
o	Neurological conditions (e.g. cauda equina syndrome, MS)
355
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of rectal prolapse

A
  • Relatively COMMON

* Most commonly affected: CHILDREN (< 3 yrs) and the ELDERLY

356
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of rectal prolapse

A
  • Protruding anal mass
  • Initially associated with defecation
  • May require digital replacement
  • Constipation
  • Faecal incontinence
  • PR mucus or bleeding
  • May be an EMERGENCY - irreducible or strangulated prolapse
357
Q

Recognise the signs of rectal prolapse on physical examination

A
  • Prolapse may be seen on straining
  • May be ulcerated or necrotic if the vascular supply is compromised
  • Reduced anal sphincter tone
358
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for rectal prolapse

A
•	Imaging
o	Proctosigmoidoscopy 
o	Defecating proctogram or barium enema 
•	Other
o	Anal sphincter manometry
o	Pudendal nerve studies 
•	Sweat Chloride Test
o	Performed in children to test for cystic fibrosis
359
Q

Define ulcerative colitis

A

• Chronic relapsing and remitting inflammatory disease affecting the large bowel

360
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors for ulcerative colitis

A

• UNKNOWN
• Possible genetic susceptibility
• Other factors involved: immune response to bacterial or self-antigens, environmental factors, altered neutrophil function and abnormality in epithelial cell integrity
• Positive family history - 15% of patients
• Associations:
o pANCA
o Primary sclerosing cholangitis (70% of patients with PSC have UC)

361
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of ulcerative colitis

A
•	Higher prevalence in: 
o	Ashkenazi jews 
o	Caucasians
•	Uncommon before the age of 10 yrs
•	Peak onset: 20-40 yrs
•	Equal sex ratio up to the age of 40 yrs (higher in males from then on)
362
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Bloody or mucous diarrhoea (stool frequency depends on severity of disease)
  • Tenesmus and urgency
  • Crampy abdominal pain before passing stool
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
  • Extra-GI manifestations (e.g. uveitis, scleritis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum)
363
Q

Recognise the signs of ulcerative colitis on physical examination

A
  • Signs of iron deficiency anaemia (e.g. conjunctival pallor)
  • Dehydration
  • Clubbing
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Tachycardia
  • Blood, mucus and tenderness on PR examination
  • Extra-GI manifestations (listed above)
364
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for ulcerative colitis

A

• Bloods
o FBC:
• Low Hb
• High WCC
o High ESR or CRP
o Low albumin
o NOTE: X-match if there is severe blood loss
• Stool
o Infectious colitis is a differential diagnosis so a stool culture maybe useful
o Faecal calprotectin allows differentiation of IBS from IBD
• It is raised in inflammatory processes (i.e. IBD)
• Both IBS and IBD can present with long-term diarrhoea
• AXR
o Rule out toxic megacolon

• Flexible Sigmoidoscopy or Colonoscopy (and biopsy)
o Determines severity
o Histological confirmation
o Detection of dysplasia
• Barium Enema
o Shows mucosal ulceration with granular appearance and filling defects (due to pseudopolyps)
o Narrowed colon
o Loss of haustral pattern - leadpipe appearance (right)
o Colonoscopy and barium enema may be DANGEROUS during an acute exacerbation - risk of perforation

365
Q

Generate a management plan for ulcerative colitis

A
•	Markers of disease activity
o	Decreased Hb
o	Decreased albumin
o	Increased ESR and CRP
o	Diarrhoea frequency:
•	< 4 = mild 
•	4-6 = moderate 
•	6+ = severe 
o	Bleeding 
o	Fever 
•	Management of an Acute Exacerbation
o	IV rehydration 
o	IV corticosteroids 
o	Antibiotics 
o	Bowel rest 
o	Parenteral feeding may be necessary 
o	DVT prophylaxis 
o	If toxic megacolon - the patient is likely to need a proctocolectomy because toxic megacolon has a high mortality 
•	Management of Mild Disease
o	Oral or rectal 5-ASA derivatices (e.g. mesalazine, olsalazine, sulphasalazine) and/or rectal steroids 
•	Management of Moderate to Severe Disease
o	Oral steroids 
o	Oral 5-ASA
o	Immunosuppression (with azathioprine, cyclosporine, 6-mercaptopurine or infliximab (anti-TNF monoclonal antibody))
•	Advice
o	Patient education and support 
o	Treat complications 
o	Regular colonoscopic surveillance 
•	Surgical
o	If medical treatment fails, presence of complications or to prevent colonic carcinoma 
o	Procedures:
•	Proctocolectomy with ileostomy 

• Ileo-anal pouch formation

366
Q

Identify the possible complications of ulcerative colitis

A
•	Gastrointestinal Complications
o	Haemorrhage 
o	Toxic megacolon
o	Perforation
o	Colonic carcinoma 
o	Gallstones 
o	Primary sclerosing cholangitis 
•	Extra-gastrointestinal Manifestations
o	Uveitis 
o	Renal calculi
o	Arthropathy
o	Sacroiliitis 
o	Ankylosing spondylitis 
o	Erythema nodosum
o	Pyoderma gangrenosum 
o	Osteoporosis (from chronic steroid use) 
o	Amyloidosis
367
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with ulcerative colitis

A
•	Normal life expectancy 
•	Poor prognostic factors:
o	Low albumin (< 30 g/L)
o	PR blood 
o	Raised CRP
o	Dilated loops of bowel 
o	8+ bowel movements per day 
o	Fever
368
Q

Define viral hepatitis A and E

A

• Hepatitis caused by infection with the RNA viruses, hepatitis A or hepatitis E virus, that follow an acute course without progression to chronic carriage

369
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of viral hepatitis A and E

A

• HAV = picornavirus
• HEV = calicivirus
• Transmission = faecal-oral route
• Both viruses replicate within hepatocytes and are secreted into bile
• Liver inflammation and hepatocyte necrosis is caused by the immune response
• Infected cells are targeted by CD8+ T cells and NK cells
• Histological features:
o Inflammatory cell infiltration of portal tracts
o Zone 3 necrosis
o Bile duct proliferation

370
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of viral hepatitis A and E

A
  • HAV is endemic in the developing world
  • Infection often occurs sub-clinically
  • Better sanitation in the developed world means that it is less common, age of exposure is higher and, hence, patients are more likely to be symptomatic
  • HEV is endemic in Asia, Africa and Central America
371
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of viral hepatitis A and E

A
•	Incubation period of HAV and HEV: 3-6 weeks
•	Prodromal period symptoms:
o	Malaise 
o	Anorexia 
o	Fever 
o	Nausea and vomiting 
•	Hepatitis symptoms:
o	Dark urine 
o	Pale stools 
o	Jaundice lasting around 3 weeks 
o	Occasionally, itching and jaundice may last several weeks in HAV infection
372
Q

Recognise the signs of viral hepatitis A and E on physical examination

A
  • Pyrexia
  • Jaundice
  • Tender hepatomegaly
  • Spleen may be palpable
  • ABSENCE of stigmata of chronic liver disease (although some spider naevi may appear transiently)
373
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for viral hepatitis A and E

A

• Bloods
o LFTs - high AST, ALT, ALP and bilirubin
o High ESR
o Low albumin + high platelets (if severe)
• Vital Serology
o Hepatitis A:
• Anti-HAV IgM (during acute illness, disappears after 3-5 months)
• Anti- HAV IgG (recovery phase and lifelong persistence)
o Hepatitis E:
• Anti-HEV IgM (raised 1-4 weeks after onset)
• Anti-HEV IgG
• Urinalysis
o Positive for bilirubin
o Raised urobilinogen

374
Q

Generate a management plan for viral hepatitis A and E

A

• There is no specific management other than bed rest and symptomatic treatment (e.g. antipyretics, antiemetics or cholestyramine (for severe pruritus))
• Prevention and Control
o Public Health - safe water, sanitation and food hygiene
o These are notifiable diseases
o Immunisation is available for HAV
• Passive immunisation with IM human immunoglobulin (effective for a short time)
• Active immunisation with attenuated HAV vaccine offers safe and effective immunity for those travelling to endemic areas and high-risk individuals

375
Q

Identify the possible complications of viral hepatitis A and E

A
  • Fulminant hepatic failure (in a very small proportion of patients but is more common in pregnant women)
  • Cholestatic hepatitis with prolonged jaundice and pruritus can develop after HAV infection
  • Post-hepatitis syndrome: continued malaise for weeks to months
376
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with viral hepatitis A and E

A
  • Recovery is usually within 3-6 weeks
  • Occasionally patients may relapse during recovery
  • There is no chronic sequelae
  • Fulminant hepatic failure has a mortality of 80%
377
Q

Define viral hepatitis B and D

A

• Hepatitis caused by infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV), which may follow an acute or chronic course
o Chronic is defined as viraemia and hepatic inflammation continuing for > 6 months
• Hepatitis D virus (HDV) is a defective virus, that may only co-infect with HBV or superinfect people who are already carriers of HBV

378
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors for viral hepatitis B and D

A

• HBV is an enveloped, partially double-stranded DNA virus
• Transmission: sexual contact, blood and vertical transmission (from mother to baby)
• Various viral proteins are produced such as:
o Core antigen (HBcAg)
o Surface antigen (HBsAg)
o e antigen (HBeAg)
• This is a marker of high infectivity
• HDV is a single-stranded RNA virus coated with HBsAg
• Antibody and cell-mediated immune response to viral replication leads to liver inflammation and hepatocyte necrosis
• Histology can show mild to severe inflammation and changes to cirrhosis
• Risk Factors
o IV drug use
o Unscreened blood and blood products
o Infants of HBeAg-positive mothers
o Sexual contact with HBV carriers
o Younger individuals (particularly babies) are more likely to become chronic carriers
o Genetic factors are associated with varying rates of viral clearance

379
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of viral hepatitis B and D

A
  • Common
  • 1-2 million deaths annually
  • Common in Southeast Asia, Africa and Mediterranean countries
  • HDV is also found worldwide
380
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of viral hepatitis B and D

A
•	Incubation period: 3-6 months
•	1-2 week prodrome consisting of:
o	Malaise 
o	Headache 
o	Anorexia 
o	Nausea and vomiting 
o	Diarrhoea 
o	RUQ pain 
o	Serum-sickness type illness (e.g. fever, arthralgia, polyarthritis, urticaria, maculopapular rash) 
•	Jaundice develops with dark urine
•	Recovery: 4-8 weeks
•	1% develop fulminant liver failure
•	Chronic carriage may be diagnosed after routine LFT testing or if cirrhosis or decompensation develops
381
Q

Recognise the signs of viral hepatitis B and D on physical examination

A

• Acute
o Jaundice
o Pyrexia
o Tender hepatomegaly
o Splenomegaly
o Cervical lymphadneopathy (in 10-20% of patients)
o Occasionally: urticaria and maculopapular rash
• Chronic
o May be no findings
o May have signs of chronic liver disease or decompensation

382
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for viral hepatitis B and D

A
•	Viral Serology
o	Acute HBV: 
•	HBsAg positive
•	IgM anti-HBcAg
o	Chronic HBV:
•	HBsAg positive
•	IgG anti-HBcAg
•	HBeAg positive or negative 
o	HBV Cleared or Vaccinated against HBV:
•	Anti-HBsAg antibody positive 
•	IgG anti-HBcAg
o	HDV infection:
•	Detected by IgM or IgG against HDV
•	PCR is used for detection of HDV 
•	LFTs
o	High: AST, ALT, ALP, bilirubin
•	Clotting
o	High PT (in severe disease)
•	Liver Biopsy
383
Q

Generate a management plan for viral hepatitis B and D

A

• Prevention: blood screening, safe sex, instrument sterilisation
• Passive immunisation
o Hepatitis B immunoglobulin following acute exposure and to neonates born to HBeAg-positive mothers (in addition to active immunisation)
• Active immunisation
o Recombinant HBsAg vaccine for individuals at risk and neonates born to HB
• Acute HBV Hepatitis
o Symptomatic treatment (antipyretics, antiemetics and cholestyramine) and bed rest
o Notifiable disease
• Chronic HBV
o Interferon alpha (standard or pegylated)
• Side-effects: flu-like symptoms such as fever, chills, myalgia, headaches, bone marrow suppression and depression
o Nucleoside/nucleotide analogues (adefovir, entecavir, telbivudine, tenofovir)

384
Q

Identify the possible complications of viral hepatitis B and D

A
  • 1% get fulminant hepatic failure
  • Chronic HBV infection (10% of adults, much higher in neonates)
  • Cirrhosis
  • HCC
  • Extrahepatic immune complex disorders (e.g. glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa)
  • Superinfection with HDV may lead to acute liver failure or more rapidly progressive disease
385
Q

Summarise the prognosis of patients with viral hepatitis B and D

A
  • Adults: 10% of infections become chronic

* Of the chronic infections, 20-30% will develop cirrhosis

386
Q

Define viral hepatitis C

A

• Hepatitis caused by infection with hepatitis C virus (HCV), often following a chronic course (in 80% of cases)

387
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of viral hepatitis C

A

• HCV is a small, enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus
• RNA viruses have poor fidelity of replication and mutation rates are high
• So, there are lots of HCV genotypes (which can co-exist in a single patient)
• Transmission: PARENTERAL
o Sexual transmission
o Vertical transmission
• At risk patients:
o Recipients of blood and blood products
o IV drug users
o Non-sterile acupuncture
o Tattooing
o Haemodialysis
o Health care workers
• Pathology/Pathogenesis of HCV
o The virus is not thought to be directly hepatotoxic
o It is the humoral and cell-mediated responses to the viral infection that leads to hepatic inflammation and necrosis
o Liver biopsy shows:
• Chronic hepatitis
• Lymphoid follicles in portal tracts
• Fatty change
• Cirrhosis may be present

388
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of viral hepatitis C

A
  • COMMON

* Different genotypes of HCV have different geographical prevalence

389
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of viral hepatitis C

A
  • 90% of acute infections are ASYMPTOMATIC
  • 10% become jaundiced with mild flu-like illness
  • May be diagnosed after incidental abnormal LFT
390
Q

Recognise the signs of viral hepatitis C on physical examination

A

• May be NO SIGNS
• There may be signs of chronic liver disease (if long-standing HCV infection)
• Extra-hepatic manifestations (rare) include:
o Skin rash
o Renal dysfunction (due to glomerulonephritis)

391
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for viral hepatitis C

A

• Bloods
o HCV Serology
• Anti-HCV antibodies - IgM (acute) or IgG (past exposure or chronic)
o Reverse-transcriptase PCR
• Allows detection and genotyping of HCV
o LFT
• Acute infection: High ALT, AST and bilirubin
• Chronic infection: 2-8 x elevation of AST + ALT (often fluctuates over time)
• Liver Biopsy
o Assess the degree of inflammation and liver damage
o NOTE: transaminase (AST and ALT) levels bear little correlation to histological changes
o Useful for diagnosing cirrhosis

392
Q

Generate a management plan for viral hepatitis C

A

• Prevention
o Screen blood, blood products and organ donors
o Needle exchange schemes for IV drug users
o Instrument sterilisation
o NO VACCINE AVAILABLE
• Medical
o Acute - mainly supportive (antipyretics, antiemetics, cholestyramine)
o Chronic
• Pegylated interferon-
• Ribavirin (guanosine nucleotide analogue)
• Duration:
 HCV Genotype 1 or 4: 24-48 weeks
 HCV Genotype 2 or 3: 12-24 weeks
o Regular US of the liver may be needed if the patient has cirrhosis

393
Q

Identify the possible complications of viral hepatitis C

A
  • Fulminant hepatic failure
  • Chronic carriage of HCV
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Less common: porphyria cutanea tarda, cryoglobulinaemia, glomerulonephritis
394
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with viral hepatitis C

A
  • 80% of exposed will progress to chronic carriage

* Of these, 20-30% will develop cirrhosis over 10-20 years

395
Q

Define volvulus

A

• Rotation of a loop of small bowel around the axis of its mesentery that results in bowel obstruction and potential ischaemia.
• The areas usually affected:
o Sigmoid colon - 65%
o Caecum - 30%
o Volvulus Neonatorum - occurs in neonates and typically affects the midgut

396
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of volvulus

A
•	Anatomical factors (e.g. long mesentery)
•	Risk Factors
o	Adults
•	Long sigmoid colon
•	Long mesentery 
•	Mobile caecum 
•	Chronic constipation 
•	Adhesions
•	Chagas disease
•	Parasitic infections 
o	Neonatal
•	Malrotation
397
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of volvulus

A
  • Severe colicky abdominal pain and swelling
  • Absolute constipation
  • Vomiting
  • There may be a history of transient attacks in which spontaneous reduction of the volvulus has occurred
  • Neonatal volvulus presents around 3 months
398
Q

Recognise the signs of volvulus on physical examination

A
  • Signs of bowel obstruction with abdominal distension and tenderness
  • Absent or tinkling bowel sounds
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
  • Signs of dehydration
399
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for volvulus

A
•	AXR
•	Erect CXR - if perforation is suspected 
•	Water-soluble contrast enema
o	Shows site of obstruction 
•	CT Scan
400
Q

Define Wilson’s Disease

A

• An autosomal recessive disorder characterised by reduced biliary excretion of copper and accumulation of copper in the liver and brain, especially in the basal ganglia. Also known as hepatolenticular degeneration.

401
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors for Wilson’s disease

A
  • Mutation in a gene on chromosome 13 that codes for copper transporting ATPase (ATP7B) in hepatocytes
  • This interferes with the transport of copper into the intracellular compartments for incorporation into caeruloplasmin (copper containing complex)
  • Caeruloplasmin is normally secreted into plasma or excreted in bile
  • Excess copper damages the hepatocyte mitochondria, leading to cell death and release of free copper into the plasma
  • This free copper then gets deposited in tissues and impairs tissue function
402
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Wilson’s disease

A
  • Liver disease may present in children

* Neurological disease usually presents in young adults

403
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Wilson’s disease

A
•	Liver
o	May present with: hepatitis, liver failure, cirrhosis 
o	Symptoms:
•	Jaundice 
•	Easy bruising 
•	Variceal bleeding 
•	Encephalopathy 
•	Neurological
o	Dyskinesia
o	Rigidity 
o	Tremor 
o	Dystonia
o	Dysarthria
o	Dysphagia 
o	Drooling 
o	Dementia 
o	Ataxia
•	Psychiatric
o	Conduct disorder 
o	Personality change 
o	Psychosis
404
Q

Recognise the signs of Wilson’s disease on physical examination

A
•	Liver
o	Hepatosplenomegaly 
o	Jaundice 
o	Ascites/oedema 
o	Gynaecomastia
•	Eyes
o	Kayser-Fleischer Rings 

o Sunflower cataract (copper accumulation in the lens, seen with a slit lamp)

405
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Wilson’s disease

A

• Bloods
o LFTs: high AST, ALT, ALP
o Low serum caeruloplasmin
• NOTE: caeruloplasmin is an acute phase protein so may give false-negatives if there is an underlying infectious/inflammatory process
o Serum copper
• 24 hour urinary copper levels - increased in Wilson’s disease
• Liver biopsy - increased copper content
• Genetic analysis - Wilson’s is caused by a wide variety of gene mutations so there isn’t a simple genetic test that can be done