Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BRS Physiology > Neurophysiology > Flashcards

Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Three divisions of ANS?

A

Sympathetic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
Enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Origin of preganglionic neurons of SNS?

A

T1 - L3 (Thoracolumbar region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Origin of preganglionic neurons of PNS?

A

Nuclei of cranial nerves and in S2-S4 (Craniosacral region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pheochromocytoma, a tumor in the adrenal medulla, excretes what type of substance?

A

3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelix acid (VMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non adrenergic non cholinergic neurons release what kind of substances?

A

Substance P, Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and Nitric Oxice (NO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4 type of adrenoreceptors?

A

a1
a2
b1
b2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug that inhibits ganglionic nicotinic receptors? (ganglion blocker)

A

Hexamethonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drug that inhibits Muscarinic receptors?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cell bodies of the primary afferenr neurons are located in?

A

Dorsal root of the spinal cord ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dorsal column lemniscal system processes what types of sensation?

Dorsal column lemniscal system primarily consists of what type of nerve fiber?

A 
fine touch
pressure
vibration
proprioception
two point discrimination

group II nerve fiber (touch pressure; beta receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anterolateral system processes what types of sensations?

Anterolateral system primarily consists of what type of nerve fibers?

A

Temperature, pain and light touch

Group III and IV nerve fibers (delta fibers and C fibers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Destruction if the thalamic nuclei results in loss of sensation of what side of the body?

A

Contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Part of the vestibular system which detects ANGULAR ACCELERATION or ROTATION?

A

Semicircular canals (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Part(s) of the vestibular system which detects LINEAR ACCELERATION?

A

Utricle and Saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Characteristics of the BASE of the basilar membrane?

Near the oval and round windows

A

Narrow and stiff

Responds best to HIGH frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characteristics of the APEX of the basilar membrane?

Near the helicotrema

A

Wide and compliant

Responds best to LOW frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristics of ANTERIOR TWO-THIRD of the tongue?

A

has Fungiform papillae
detects SALTY, SWEET and UMAMI sensations
innervated by FACIAL nerve (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristics of the POSTERIOR ONE-THIRD of the tongue?

A

has Circumvalate and Foliate papillae
detects SOUR and BITTER sensations
innervated by GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL nerve (CN IX)

Back of the throat and epiglottis - innervated by VAGUS nerve (CN X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of muscle sensors and their corresponding characteristics?

A

Muscle spindles (group Ia and II afferents) - arranged IN PARALLEL with extrafusal fibers; detects both STATIC and DYNAMIC changes in MUSCLE LENGTH.

Golgi tendon organs (group Ib afferents) - arranged IN SERIES with extrafusal fibers; detect MUSCLE TENSION

Pacinian corpuscles (group II afferents) - detect VIBRATION

Free nerve endings (group III and IV afferents) - detect NOXIOUS STIMULI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 types of muscle fibers and its characteristics?

A
  1. Extrafusal fibers - bulk of muscle; innervated by ALPHA-motoneurons; provide FORCE of muscle contraction
  2. Intrafusal fibers - smaller; innervated by GAMMA-motoneurons; encapsulated in sheaths to form MUSCLE SPINDLES; too small to generate significant force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false? The finer the movement, the greater the number of muscle spindles in a muscle.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of intrafusal fibers in muscle spindles?

y-motoneurons

A
  1. Nuclear BAG fibers - group Ia afferents; detect fast, DYNAMIC changes in muscle length; nuclei collected in a central “bag” region
  2. Nuclear CHAIN fibers - group II afferents; detect STATIC changes in muscle length; more numerous than nuclear bag fibers; nuclei arranged in ROWS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Renshaw cells?

A

INHIBITORY cells located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.
Produces negative feedback (inhibition) on the motoneuron when stimulated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stimulation of the rubrospinal tract (red nucleus) produces?

A

STIMULATION of flexors and INHIBITION of extensors

*originates from the Red nucleus –> Lateral spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the types of pyramidal tracts?

A
  1. Corticospinal tract
  2. Corticobulbar tract

*tracts that pass through the medullary pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the types of extrapyramidal tracts?

A
  1. Rubrospinal tract
  2. Pontine reticulospinal tract
  3. Medullary reticulospinal tract
  4. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
  5. Tectospinal tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Stimulation of Pontine retuculospinal tract produces?

A

Stimulation of BOTH Flexors and Extensors; MORE on the Extensors

*originates from the nuclei of the pons –> ventromedial spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Stimulation of the Medullary reticulospinal tract produces?

A

INHIBITION of BOTH Flexors and Extensors; MORE on the Extensors

*originates from the medullary reticular formation –> spinal cord interneurons in the intermediate gray area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stimulation of the Lateral vestibulospinal tract produces?

A

Inhibition of Flexors and Stimulation of Extensors

*originates in Deiters nucleus –> ipsilateral motoneurons and interneurons

30
Q

Stimulation of the Tectospinal tract produces?

A

CONTROL of the neck muscles

*originates from the superior colliculus –> cervical spinal cord

31
Q

Effects of transections of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Paraplegia - loss of voluntary movement below the level of the lesion
  2. Loss of conscious sensation
  3. INITIAL loss of reflexes - Spinal shock
    * limbs become flaccid and reflexes are absent
    * with time –> return of reflexes or even hyperreflexia
32
Q

Spinal cord lesion at C7 causes?

A

Loss of sympathetic tone to the heart

  • decrease heart rate
  • decrease arterial pressure
33
Q

Spinal cord lesion at C3 causes?

A

Cessation of BREATHING

*disconnection of respiratory muscles from the control center in the brainstem

34
Q

Spinal cord lesion at C1 causes?

A

DEATH

*most commonly via hanging

35
Q

Lesions above the vestibular nucleus produces?

A

DECEREBRATE RIGIDITY

*because of removal of inhibition from higher centers, resulting in excitation of alpha and gamma motoneurons and rigid posture

36
Q

Lesions above the pontine reticular formation but below the midbrain produces?

A

DECEREBRATE RIGIDITIY

*removal of central inhibition from the pontine reticular formation, resulting in excitation of alpha and gamma motoneurons and rigid posture

37
Q

Lesions above the red nucleus produces?

A

DECORTICATE RIGIDITY and intact neck reflexes

38
Q

3 functions of the cerebellum?

A
  1. Vestibulocerebellum - control of balance and eye movement
  2. Pontocerebellum - Planning and initiation of movement
  3. Spinocerebellum - Synergy of movement; Provides control of rate, force, range and direction of movement
39
Q

Layers of the cerebellar cortex?

A
  1. Granular layer - innermost layer
    * contains granule cells, Golgi type II cells and Glomeruli
    * Axons of mossy fibers form connection on dendrites of Granular and Golgi type II cells in the Glomeruli
  2. Purkinje cell layer - middle layer
    * contains Purkinje cells
    * has INHIBITORY OUTPUT
  3. Molecular layer - Outermost layer
    * contains Stellate cells, Basket cells, Parallel fibers (axons of granule cells), dendrites of Purkinje and Golgi type II cells
    * parallel fibers synapse on dendrites of Purkjinje cells, Golgi type II cells and Parallel fibers
40
Q

2 types of input to the cerebellar cortex?

A
  1. Climbing fibers - originate from a single region int he medulla (inferior olive)
    * make multiple synapses onto Purkinje cells, resulting in high-frequency bursts / COMPLEX SPIKES
    * condition the purkinje cells
    * plays a role in cerebellar motor learning
  2. Mossy fibers - originate from many centers in the brain stem and spinal cord
    * include vestibulocerebellar, spinocerebellar and pontocerebellar afferents
    * make multiple synapses on Purkinje cells; produces SIMPLE SPIKES
    * axons of mossy fibers bifurcate, giving rise to parallel cells –> excite purkinje cells and inhibitory interneurs (basket, stellate and golgi type ii cells)
41
Q

Output of the cerebellar cortex involves what type of cells?

A

Purkinje cells

  • always inhibitory; GABA
  • inhibitory output modulates the output of the cerebellum and regulates rate, range, and direction of movement (synergy)
42
Q

Basal ganglia consists of what 4 structures?

What is its function?

A
  1. Globus Pallidus
  2. Substantia nigra
  3. Subthalamic nuclei
  4. Striatum - connects to the thalamus and cerebral cortex via indirect (inhibitory) and direct (excitatory) pathways
  • Modulates thalamic outflow to the motor complex to Plan and Execute SMOOTH MOVEMENTS
  • many connections - inhibitory; use GABA
43
Q

Lesions of the globus pallidus produces?

A

Inability to maintain postural support

44
Q

Lesions of the subthalamic nuclei produces?

A

Wild, flinging movements (hemibalismus)

  • caused by release of inhibiton on the CONTRALATERAL side
45
Q

Lesions of the striatum produces?

A

Quick, uncontrollable movements (Huntington disease)

*caused by release of inhibition

46
Q

Lesions in the substantia nigra produces?

A

Lead-pipe rigidity, tremor, reduced voluntary movement

  • seen in patients with Parkinsons disease
  • inhibits indirect (inhibitory pathway) and excites direct (excitatory pathway), destruction of dopaminergic neurons is INHIBITORY
47
Q

Pre-motor complex and Supplementary motor complex are located where?

A

Area 6

  • responsible for generating a PLAN for movement –> transferred to the primary motor cortex for execution
  • supplementary motor complex programs complex motor sequences; active during “MENTAL REHEARSAL” for a movement
48
Q

Primary motor cortex is located where?

A

Area 4

  • responsible for EXECUTION of movement
  • epileptic events in PMC cause Jacksonian seizures
49
Q

Beta waves (EEG) predominate during?

A

Awake period with eyes OPEN

50
Q

Alpha waves (EEG) predominate during?

A

Awake period with eyes CLOSED

51
Q

Slow waves (EEG) predominate during?

A

Sleep period

*muscles relax, heart rate and blood pressure decrease

52
Q

Sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythm) is driven by what structure?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the Hypothalamus

*receives input from the retina

53
Q

True or false? Benzodiazepines (i.e. clonazepam, diazepam) and increasing age decrease the duration of REM sleep?

A

True

54
Q

Right hemisphere of the brain is dominant in?

A

Facial expression, intonation, body language and spatial tasks

55
Q

Left hemisphere of the brain is dominant in?

A

Language, even on left-handed individuals

*Lesion produces aphasia

56
Q

Damage to the Wernicke’s area cause?

A

Sensory aphasia - inability/difficulty UNDERSTANDING written or spoken language

57
Q

Damage to the Broca’s area cause?

A

Motor aphasia - difficulty writing and talking but understanding is intact

58
Q

Bilateral lesions of the Hippocampus cause?

A

inability to form new Long-term memories

59
Q

Blood brain barrier consists of?

A

Endothelial cells of cerebral capillaries
Choroid plexus epithelium

*barrier between cerebral capillary blood and CSF

60
Q

Protein and Cholesterol may enter CSF, True or false?

A

False

*Excluded from CSF because of large molecular size

61
Q

Functions of the blood-brain barrier

A
  1. Maintains a constant environment for neurons in the CNS and protects the brain from endogenous or exogenous toxins.
  2. Prevents escape of neurotransmitters form their functional sites in the CNS into the general circulation.
  3. Drugs penetrate the blood-brain barrier to varying degrees. (non-ionized/lipid soluble drugs > than ionized/water soluble drugs)
62
Q

Shivering is orchestrated by what structure?

A

Posterior hypothalamus

63
Q

Response to heat / heat loss is orchestrated by what structure?

A
  1. Anterior hypothalamus and
  2. Sympathetic muscarinic control of sweat glands

*causes decrease in sympathetic tone to cutaneous blood vessels –> increasing blood flow through arterioles –> increase AV shunting of blood to venous plexus near surface of skin –> heat loss by radiation and convection

64
Q

True or false? Pyrogens increase the set point of body temperature?

A

True

  • Increase in set point –> Decrease in “perceived body temperature” –> Shivering (Post. Hypothalamus)
  • set about by prostaglandins
65
Q

Pyrogens increase the production of what type of substance?

A

Interleukin-1

  • produced by phagocytic cells
  • acts on ant. hypothalamus to increase production of PROSTAGLANDINS.
  • Prostaglandins - increase set point temperature
66
Q

Aspirin inhibits what type of enzyme?

A

Cyclooxygenase

  • inhibits production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes
  • DECREASES set-point temperature –> heat loss (Ant. hypothalamus)
67
Q

Steroids reduce fever by?

A

Blocking release of arachidonic acid from brain phospholipids, preventing production of prostaglandins.

  • “Arachidonic acid inhibitor”
68
Q

Heat exhaustion is caused by?

A

Excessive sweating

*resulting to decrease in blood volume and arterial blood pressure –> syncope

69
Q

Heat stroke occurs when?

A

When body temperature increases tremendously, to the point of tissue damage.

*sweating (normal response) is impaired, and core temperature increases further

70
Q

Disease in which there is an increase in temperature due to inhalational anesthetics

A

Malignant hyperthermia

  • Massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeletal muscle –> rapid rise in body temperature
  • Tx - Dantrolene

BRS Physiology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions