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Neurology > Neurophysiology > Flashcards

Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the somatic NS?

A

Voluntary motor system that is under conscious control

Consists of single motoneuron and skeletal muscle fiber (ACh)

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2
Q

What is the autonomic NS?

A

Involuntary system - Controls visceral organs

Two neurons: Preganglionic neuron (ACh) and postganglionic neuron (ACh, norepi, other)

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3
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the autonomic NS?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic (also the ENS in the GIT)

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4
Q

What type of nerves are preganglionic nerves?

A

All are cholinergic - Release ACh (interact with nicotinic receptors)

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5
Q

Name two areas that are involved in wakefulness/awareness.

A

ARAS (brainstem) and cerebral cortex

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6
Q

What area is involved in behavior?

A

Limbic system

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7
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral deviation of spine

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8
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Ventral curvature of spine

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9
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Dorsal curvation of spine

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10
Q

What is torticollis?

A

Twisting of neck

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11
Q

When an animal has extension of all limbs, opsithotonus, stupor/coma, if has?

A

Decrebrate rigidity (rostral brainstem lesion)

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12
Q

What is Schiff-Scherrington posture?

A

Thoracic limb extension with NORMAL voluntary movements and CPs, pelvic limb paralysis, normal mentation
Occurs with acute severe TL spinal cord lesion (interferes with inhibitory ascending neurons (border cells) that inhibits TL extensor tone)

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13
Q

What are the 3 types of ataxia?

A
  1. Proprioceptive ataxia: Lesion in proprioceptive pathway (peripheral n, spinal cord, brainstem, cerebral cortex) = Abnormal posural reactions, limb paresis
  2. Vestibular ataxia: Vestibular nuclei (central) , CN VIII or peripheral vestibular receptors = Head tilit, leaning, falling, nystagmus
  3. Cerebellar Ataxia: Wide based stance, intention tremors, truncal sway, dysmeteria
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14
Q

What is diffferent about circiling in animals with vestibular dz compared to forebrain dz?

A

Vestibular dz = Tight circles, other vestibular signs

Forebrain = Wide circles”

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15
Q

What is a nerve root signature?

A

Referred pain down limb causing lamenss/elevation of limb dt entrapment of spinal nerve (lateral disc, nerve root tumor)

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16
Q

Name two dog breeds that have idiopathic head bobbing?

A

Bulldogs and Dobermans

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17
Q

What is CN I?

A

Olfactory n.

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18
Q

What is CN II?

A

Optic n.

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19
Q

Which CN is not a true cranial n. but rather an extension of the brain?

A

CN II - Optic n.

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20
Q

What percentage of dogs and cats have crossing over at optic chiasm?

A

About 75% of dogs and 66% of cats

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21
Q

What does it mean when you have dilated and unresponsive pupils?

A

Dysfunction in CN II (Optic n.)

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22
Q

What is CN III?

A

Oculomotor n.

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23
Q

Which CN controls pupillary constriction for PLRs?

A

CN III - Oculomotor n.

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24
Q

If ventrolateral strabismus is noted, which CN is affected?

A

CN III - Oculomotor n.

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25
Q

What is CN IV?

A

Trochlear n.

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26
Q

What does trochlear n. (CN IV) do?

A

Contralateral dorsal oblique muscle (inward rotation of eye)

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27
Q

If dorsolateral strabismus is noted, which CN is affected?

A

Trochlear n. (CN IV)

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28
Q

What is CN V?

A

Trigeminal n.

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29
Q

What are the functions of CN V, trigeminal n?

A

Sensory innervation to face and motor inveration to masticatory muscle (manidbular)

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30
Q

What are the 3 branches of CN V?

A
  1. Ophthalmic
  2. Maxillary
  3. Mandibular
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31
Q

What is CN VI?

A

Abducent n.

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32
Q

What is the function of CN VI?

A

Ipsilateral lateral rectusnad retractor bulbi muscles

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33
Q

If a patient has ipsilateral medial strabismus you should consider dysfunction of which CN?

A

Abducent n. (CN VI)

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34
Q

If a patient is unable to retract globe when CS dysfunction should be considered?

A

Abducent n. (CN VI)

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35
Q

What is CN VII?

A

Facial n.

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36
Q

If a patient has dryness in mouth, one should consider dysfunction with which CN?

A

Facial n. (CN VII)

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37
Q

What is the function of CN VII?

A

Motor to muscles of facial expression, lacrimal glands (PNS)

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38
Q

What is CN VIII?

A

Vestibulocochlear n.

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39
Q

What branch of CN VIII is responsible for hearing?

A

Cochlear branch of CN VIII

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40
Q

If a patient has wide head excursions, wide based stance, asymmetric ataxia you should consider?

A

Vestibulocochlear n. (CN VIII) Dysfunction = Bilateral vesibular disease

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41
Q

What is CN IX?

A

Glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX)

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42
Q

What is CN X?

A

Vagus n. (CN X)

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43
Q

What is the oculocardiac refelx?

A

Vagal reflex = eyeball pressure

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44
Q

If a patient has dysphagia and absent gag you should consider dysfunction in which CN?

A

Glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX)

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45
Q

If a patient has laryngeal paralysis, dysphonia, and regurgitation you should consider dysfunction in which CN?

A

Vagus n. (CN X)

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46
Q

What is CN XI?

A

Accessory n (CNXI)

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47
Q

What is CN XII?

A

Hypoglossal n. (CN XII)

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48
Q

If a patient has problems with prehension, tongus atropy or deviation, dysfunction in which CN should be considered?

A

Hypoglossal n. (CN XII)

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49
Q

Palpebral Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: V (trigeminal) = Opthalmic (medial) or maxillary (lateral)
Efferent CN: VII (facial)
Effect: Blink elicited by touching medial or lateral canthus of eye

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50
Q

Corneal Sensation: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: V (trigeminal) = Ophtalmic branch
Efferent CN: VII(facial) and VI (abducent)
Effect: Blink and glob retraction elicited by touching cornea

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51
Q

Vestibulo-ocular Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: VII (vestibulocochlear)
Efferent CN: III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), VI (abducent)
Effect: Nystagmus induced by moving head

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52
Q

Menace Response: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: II (Optic)
Efferent CN: VII (Facial)
Effect: Blink elicited by menacing gesture

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53
Q

Nasal Stimulation: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: V (trigeminal ) = Opthalmic branch
Efferent CN: None
Effect: Withdrawal of head elicited by touching nasal mucosa

54
Q

PLR: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: II (Optic)
Efferent CN: III (Oculomotor)
Effect: Pupillary constriction elicited by shining light into eye

55
Q

Gag Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.

A

Afferent CN: IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (Vagus)
Efferent CN: IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (Vagus)
Effect: Contraction of pharynx elicited by its palpation

56
Q

When you are testing withdrawal reflex on the thoracic limbs what are you testing?

A

Spinal segments, C6-T2 (Brachial plexus), peripheral n (axillary, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar)

57
Q

When you are testing withdrawal reflex on the pelvic limbs what are you testing?

A

Spinal segments (L4-S2), femoral and sciatic nerves

58
Q

What would you expect for a brain lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: UMN

Pelvic Limbs: UMN

59
Q

What would you expect for a C1-C5 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: UMN

Pelvic Limbs: UMN

60
Q

What would you expect for a C6-T2 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: LMN

Pelvic Limbs: UMN

61
Q

What would you expect for a T3-L3 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: Normal

Pelvic Limbs: UMN

62
Q

What would you expect for a L4-S3 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: Normal

Pelvic Limbs: LMN

63
Q

What would you expect for a polyneuropathy, polyradiculopathy lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?

A

Thoracic limbs: LMN

Pelvic Limbs: LMN

64
Q

What does the patellar reflex test?

A

L4-L6, femoral n.

65
Q

What does the perineal reflex test?

A

S1-Cd5, caudal tail nerves, pudenal n.

66
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the medial antebrachium?

A

Musculocuteanous (C6-C8)

67
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the cranial antebrachium, except digit 5?

A

Radial (C7-T2)

68
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sensory distribution of the caudal antebrachium, entire digit 5?

A

Median and ulnar (C8-T2)

69
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the medial aspect of HL and first digit?

A

Femoral (L4-L6)

70
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the craniolateral aspect of HL to stifle?

A

Sciatic = Peroneal (L6-S2)

71
Q

What does the cutanous truci (panniculus) reflex test?

A

C8-T1 to lateral thoracic n. that innervates cutanous trunci muscle

72
Q

If your panniculus is lost ipsilaterally, this sugests what?

A

Disease of the brachial plexus only

73
Q

What is the prosencephalon?

A

Forebrain

74
Q

What is the telencephalon?

A

Cerebrum

75
Q

What is the mesechcephalon?

A

Midbrain part of brainstem

76
Q

What is the metencephalon?

A

Pons (part of brainstem) and cerebellum

77
Q

What is the myelencephalon?

A

Medulla oblongata (part of brainstem)

78
Q

If you have seizure this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Forebrain

79
Q

If you have nacrolepsy-cataplexy this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Diencephalon

80
Q

If you have hemi-neglect syndrome this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Forebrain

81
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the caudal aspect of HL to stifle?

A

Sciatic = Tibial (L6-S2)

82
Q

If you have abnormal behavior this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Forebrain

83
Q

If you have visual dysfunction this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Eye, optic n. optic chiasm, forebrain

84
Q

If you have head pressing this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Forebrain

85
Q

If you have circling this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Vestibular dz = Tight circles, other vestibular signs

Forebrain = Wide circles

86
Q

If you have head tilit, nystagmus, falling, rolling this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Vestibular disease

87
Q

If you have Strabismus this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Vestibular disease, CNs III, IV, VI

88
Q

If you have depression, stupor, coma this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Brainstem or forebrain

89
Q

If you have abnormal prehension this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN V and XII, caudal brainstem

90
Q

If you have dysphagia this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN IX and X, caudal brainstem

91
Q

If you have dropped jaw this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Bilateral CN V

92
Q

If you have paralysis of eyelides, lips, nostrils, and/or ears this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN VII

93
Q

If you have megaesophagus this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN X

94
Q

If you have laryngeal paralysis this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN X

95
Q

If you have tongus paralysis this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

CN XII

96
Q

If you have deafness this indicated neurolocalization of?

A

Auditory apparatus

97
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for contralateral blindness and decreased/absent menace with normal PLRs?

A

Forebrain

98
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for postrual reactions defs in contralateral limbs?

A

Forebrain

99
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for abnormalities in CN III/XII?

A

Brainstem

100
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for abnormalities in respiratory or cardiac function?

A

Brainstem

101
Q

Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the caudal aspect of HL to stifle?

A

Sciatic = Tibial (L6-S2)

102
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for ipsilateral menace def with normal vision?

A

Cerebellum

103
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for intention tremors?

A

Cerebellum

104
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for hypermetria?

A

Cerebellum

105
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for truncal sway?

A

Cerebellum

106
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for increased freq of urination?

A

Cerebellum (inhibitory influence on urination)

107
Q

How far does the spinal cord extend in dogs and cats?

A

L6 (dogs) and L7 (cats)

108
Q

What makes up the central core of the spinal cord?

A

Grey matter = dorsal root ganglion too

109
Q

What makes up the out portion of the spinal cord?

A

White matter = doral, lateral, and ventrla funiculus

110
Q

What is the segmentation of the spinal cord?

A

8 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, and at least 2 caudal segments

111
Q

What makes up the cervicothoracic intumescence?

A

C6-T2

112
Q

What makes up the lumbosacral intumescence?

A

L4-S3

113
Q

What is the typical order of loss of function in progressive spinal cord disease?

A
  1. CPs
  2. Motor Function
  3. Bladder function
  4. Nociception
114
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome?

A

C1-C5 and C6-T2

115
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for paresis or paralysis in ALL 4 limbs, with postural rxn defs in all 4 limbs, normal to increased spinal reflexes in all 4 limbs?

A

C1-C5

116
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for paresis or paralysis in ALL 4 limbs or just 1 thoracic limb, with postural rxn defs in all 4 limbs or just one thoracic limb, normal to increased spinal reflexes in in HLs with decreased to absent spinal reflexes in TLs?

A

C6-T2

117
Q

If you have a reduced or absent ipsilateral cutaneous trunci reflex which spinal cord segments are affected?

A

C6-T2

118
Q

If you have Schiff-Sherrington, which spinal cord segment is affected?

A

T3-L3

119
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and normal to increased spinal reflexs in HLs?

A

T3-L3

120
Q

When you have reduced to absent cutaneous trunci reflex caudal to level of last intact dermatome which spinal cord segments should be considered?

A

T3-L3

121
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and decreased to absent spinal reflexs in HLs?

A

L4-S3

122
Q

What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and decreased to absent spinal reflexs in HLs, with flaccid tail?

A

L6-S3

123
Q

When fecal incontinence is present with neurolocalization should be considered?

A

L6-S3

124
Q

In peripheral nerves were is the motor located?

A

Neurons in ventral horn of spinal cord/grey matter of brainstem

125
Q

IN peripheral nerves were is the sensory located?

A

Cell bodies in dorsal root gnaglion and ganglia of CNs

126
Q

What is the brachial plexus?

A

C6-T2 = FLs

127
Q

What is the lumbosacral plexus?

A

L4-S3 = HLs

128
Q

What CN are commonly affected with generalized neuropathies?

A

CN VII (Facial), IX (Glossopharygneal), X (Vagus)

129
Q

What are the 3 types of neuromuscular disease?

A
  1. Presynaptic
  2. Postsynaptic
  3. Enzymatic”
130
Q

How does botulism or tick paralysis work?

A

Presynaptic neuromuscular disease = Decrease in ACh released = LMN signs in all 4 limbs (severe hypotonia and hyporeflexia)

131
Q

How does myasthesia gravis work?

A

Postsynpatic neuromuscular disease = Interference of ACh receptor activation mechanism
Exercise-induced weakness, normal neuro exam with rest

132
Q

How does organophosphates work?

A

Enzymatic neuromuscular disease = Chemical cmpound that interferes wit acetykcholinesterase (enzyme that inactivates ACh in synapse) = Stiff, rigid with muscle tremors and exercise intolerance

Neurology (3 decks)

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