Neuropharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

How would you treat glaucoma?

A

Decrease production of aqueous humour - blockers of carbonic anhydrase –> acetazolamide, dorzolamide

Decrease blood flow to ciliary body - beta 2 agonists (timolol) or alpha 2 agonists (apraclonidine)

Increase clearance of aqueous humour
Open uveoscleral outflow with prostaglandin F2 analogues (e.g. Latanoprost)
Increase irido-corneal angle using muscarinic agonist (pilocarpine, anticholinesterase, physiostigmine) - ciliary muscle contraction

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1
Q

What drugs would you use to dilate the pupil?

A

Atropine
Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide
Phenylephrine

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2
Q

Stages of anaesthesia

A

Induction - voluntary and involuntary excitement

Maintenance - surgical anaesthesia

Recovery - or death

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3
Q

What is balanced anaesthesia?

A

Controlled reversible loss of consciousness with reduced perception of external stimuli and motor response.

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4
Q

3 basic points of balanced anaesthesia?

A

Sleep
Analgesia
Relaxation

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5
Q

Types of drugs used during anaesthetic?

A
Sedatives/hypnotics/tranquillisers 
Analgesics
Induction agent (IV)
Volatile anaesthetics 
Oxygen
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6
Q

Anaesthetics administered by inhalation

A

Di-ethyl ether (not used generally)
Nitrous oxide
The ‘anes’ halothane, isofluorane etc.

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7
Q

Anaesthetics administered by injection

A

Barbiturates (e.g. Pentobarbitone)
Propofol
Ketamine
Alphaxolone

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8
Q

Routes of administering anaesthetic (fast - slow)

A

Intravenous
Intraperitoneal
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous

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9
Q

Pros of injectable anaesthetics

A
Stage 1 and 2 passed rapidly
Minimal equipment required
Cheap
(BUT Poor quality
Little control)
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10
Q

Details of chloralose

A
1-2hrs long acting (alpha-chloralose = 8-10hrs)
Light anaesthetic
No analgesia
Carcinogenic 
Used in rodents
Few cardiopulmonary effects
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11
Q

Of pentobarbitone and phenobarbitone which is short and which is long acting?

A

Pentobarbitone - short acting - euthanasia

Phenobarbitone - long acting - epilepsy

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12
Q

What happens if you add alkyl groups to barbituric acid?

A

CNS depressive activity

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13
Q

Main barbiturates

A

Barbituric acid
Pentobarbitone (euthanal)
Phenobarbitone
Thiopentone (intraval)

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14
Q

Characteristics of thiopentone

A
Very lipid soluble
Fast onset
Induction agent
Not much analgesia
Respiratory depressant
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15
Q

Characteristics of propofol?

A

Lipophilic GABA channel opener
Safer than thipentone
Huge cvs depression
Not analgesic

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16
Q

Subtypes of GABA receptors ratio

A

2 alpha : 2 beta : 1 gamma

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17
Q

What are neurosteroids and their properties?

A
Neuroactive steroids
Alphaxalone (alfaxan)
Induction and maintenance 
Not as cumulative like thiopentone
Less cvs than propofol (similar to thio)
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18
Q

Characteristics of ketamine

A

Dissociative anaesthetic
Hallucinogenic (Related to phencyclidine)
Antagonised (non-competitively) glutamate at NMDA receptors
Profound analgesia
Increases salivation and muscle tone
Superficial sleep (eyes open)
Used with alpha 2 agonists (xylazine)

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19
Q

List of inhalation agents

A
Isofluorane 
Halofluorane
Sevofluorane
Desfluorane
Nitrous oxide
Diethyl ether
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20
Q

Factors affecting the depth of anaesthesia

A

Concentration/partial pressure in brain

Potency of drug

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21
Q

Which gases have high partial pressures more quickly?

A

Very water INSOLUBLE gases
(If it’s soluble it stays In blood and doesn’t hit neurones)
Easy in, easy out

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22
Q

Which inhalation agents are least blood soluble?

A

Nitrous oxide
Servofluorane
Isofluorane
(Least to most)

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23
Q

What properties do you want to anaesthetise an animal quickly?

A

High concentration

Low solubility

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24
Q

What is the Meyer-Overton rule?

A

The more potent it is, the more readily it dissolves in oil

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25
Q

List drugs with decreasing potency

A
Halofluorane
Isofluorane
Servofluorane
Ether
Nitrous oxide
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26
Q

Characteristics of halothane

A

Low solubility
High potency
Sensitises heart to catecholamines
Depresses myocardium
Poor relaxation
20% metabolised with possible hepatotoxicity
Teratogenic - interferes with embryonic development

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27
Q

Characteristics of isofluorane

A
Similar to halothane
Less blood soluble
Vasodilator 
100% excretion by lungs 
Lady-safe
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28
Q

Servofluorane

A

Turbo charged nitrous
V.low blood solubility
Little effect on heart

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29
Q

Characteristics of Nitrous oxide

A

Low potency
Good analgesic
2nd gas effect
Diffusion hypoxia

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30
Q

What is the second gas effect?

A

Rapid movement of nitrous oxide from alveolar space to blood leads to higher concentrations of other gases.
This is good

31
Q

What is diffusion hypoxia?

A

Rapid movement of nitrous oxide from the blood to alveolar space driving out some of the oxygen

32
Q

Types of sedatives

A
Benzodiazepines 
Chloral hydrate
Alpha-agonists
Phenothiazines
Butyropherones
33
Q

What does a sedative do?

A

Calm and drowsy

Sleep

34
Q

What are sedatives used for?

A

Pre-med anaesthesia
Diagnostic procedures
Minor surgical procedures
Restraint (transport)

35
Q

What does a tranquilliser do?

A

Calm and alert

Catalepsy

36
Q

What are tranquillisers used for?

A

Calm nervy patients
Pre-med (anaesthesia)
Restraint
Neuroleptic - antipsychotic

37
Q

Examples of minor and major tranquilizers

A

Minor - Diezepam

Major - ACP (acepromazine)

38
Q

What do sedatives do?

A

Stop excitatory synapses or facilitate inhibitory synapses

39
Q

What are benzodiazepines like?

A
Minor tranquilizers 
Sedation
Muscle relaxation
GABA antagonist 
Diezepam (Valium) -premed/postop
40
Q

What is midazolam?

A

Similar to Diezepam

Shorter acting, potent

41
Q

What does oxazepam do?

A

Appetite stimulation

42
Q

What do alpha 2 agonists do?

A

Block Nad/neurotransmitter
Calming effect
Drowsiness, leghargy/sleep
Visceral (deep pain) analgesia

43
Q

What effects do alpha 2 agonists have?

A

Muscle relaxation - glycine potentiating in spinal cord
Reduction in subsequent anaesthetic dose
Cvs depression

44
Q

Examples of alpha 2 agonists

A

Xylazine - shorter (Rompun)
Detomidine - longer (Domosedan)
Medetomidine - better (Dormitor)

45
Q

How would you use medetomidine?

A

Selective agonist, potent, deep sedation
Combine with injectable ketamine
Racemix - sedation, relaxation (dexmedetamine active d-isomer)
Ketamine (NDMA antagonist) analgesia or combo with opoid

46
Q

What is an alpha 2 antagonist reversing agent?

A

Atipamezole - “antisedan” = used for waking up

47
Q

What are Phenothiazines?

A

Major tranquilizers
Neuroleptics
Antagonist action

48
Q

Example of phenothiazine

A

ACP - Acepromazine
Sedative or premed
(Combined with ket)
Effects other narcotics (reduce dose)

49
Q

Side effects of chlorpromazine

A
Tremors
In coordination
Hypotension
Hypothermia
Male effects
50
Q

What are butyrophenones?

A
Major tranquilizers
Neuroleptic
V potent
Anti-emetic
Neuroleptanalgesics
Antipsychotic in humans
Opioid in large game
51
Q

What is an anti-emetic?

A

Helps motion sickness

Via D2/H antagonism in pathway from vestibular apparatus to chemoreceptors trigger zone in 4th ventricle

52
Q

4 types of analgesia

A

NSAIDs
Corticosteroids
Local anaesthetics
Opioids

53
Q

NSAIDs

A

Aspirin
Carprofen
Meloxicam

54
Q

What are COX-1 and COX-2 responsible for?

A

COX-1 - housekeeping

COX-2 - inflammation and pain

55
Q

What are coxibs?

A

Cox-2 inhibitor
Deracoxib
Firocoxib
Related to cox-2 selective inhibitors with coxibs name

56
Q

What are cox-1 sparing inhibitors?

A

Carprofen
Meloxicam
Selective for cox-2 not 1
They aren’t coxibs

57
Q

What are cox inhibitors

A

Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Cox-1 actions include platelet aggregation and mucosal protection
Inhibits this

58
Q

What do corticosteroids do?

A

Inhibition of cox-1 and 2 sometimes decreasing expression of cox-2

59
Q

Examples of local anaesthetics

A

Procaine
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
- no post synaptic AP

60
Q

What are opioid analgesics used for?

A
Peri-operative pain
Sedation premed
Neuroleptanalgesia - sedation with analgesia
Restraint
Anti-diarrhoea - codeine
Anti-tussive
61
Q

Opioid receptors

A

Dor (OPRD1) - hallucinations
Mor ( - supraspinal analgesia, respiratory depression, euphoria, physical dependence
Kor - spinal analgesia, sedation

62
Q

Agonist at mor?

A

Morphine, pethidine, fentanyl

63
Q

Agonist at mor and kor

A

Alfentanil
Remifentanil
Etorphine

64
Q

Agonist at kor, antagonist at mor

A

Pentazocine
Buprenophine
Butorphanol

65
Q

Antagonist at mor and kor

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

66
Q

What does morphine do?

A

Cortex - sedation
Medulla - stimulation, depression
Peripheral GIT action (increased segmental tone, decreased peristalsis, increased sphincter tone, decreased secretions)
Also affects metabolism - liver, bile secretion

67
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia?

A

Neuroleptic and opioid
Profound analgesia
ACP and opioids

68
Q

Methods of euthanasia (ways of disrupting CNS)?

A

Hypoxic disruption of CNS
Chemical disruption - 2ndary hypoxia
Electrical disruption - 2ndary hypoxia
Physical disruption/destruction of CNS - respiratory and cardiac arrest

69
Q

Actual methods of euthanasia used?

A

Exsanguination
Anaesthetic overdose
Electric stun then exsanguination
Free bullet/captive bolt stun and pithing

70
Q

Mechanism of anaesthetic overdose

A
Chemical CNS depression
Unconsciousness
Respiratory arrest
Hypoxaemia
Hypoxic CNS depression
Cardiac arrest (myocardial hypoxia & deepening CNS hypoxia)
Cessation of circulation (CNS hypoxia worsens indirectly)
Death
71
Q

What are cardio toxic agents used for?

A

Causing early cardiac arrest during anaesthetic overdose

72
Q

What inhalation and injection agents can be used for euthanasia

A

Inhalation - CO2, CO+CO2, N2+Ar

Injection - barbiturates
Somulose - horses, dogs, cats, cattle (inject over 10-15 seconds to minimise premature cardiac arrest)

73
Q

What is Hypercapnic Encephalopathy?

A

Acute respiratory acidosis

Headache, confusion, spasms

74
Q

How to euthanise reptiles

A
Sedate heavily (IM), overdose ketamine
Small reptiles, inhalation agent