Neuropathology 1,2,3 Flashcards
A 43-year-old South Asian man is brought
into the emergency department with general-
ized seizures and fever >38 (101F). CT head
does not show any abnormality. LP is per-
formed with an opening pressure of 22 cm
H2O and CSF analysis shows: WCC 748
(Polymorphs 113, Lymphocytes 635), RBC
28, normal protein and normal glucose.
Which one of the following is the most likely
cause?
a. Enterovirus
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Wegener’s granulomatosis
a. Enterovirus
A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden
onset headache and photophobia. CT head
is unremarkable and she undergoes a lumbar
puncture. CSF analysis shows WCC 3, RBC
15000 and subarachnoid hemorrhage cannot
be excluded due to the presence of oxyhemo-
globin. CSF xanthochromia is detected by
which one of the following assays
a. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
b. Immunoprecipitation
c. Light microscopy
d. Spectroscopy
e. Western blotting
d. Spectroscopy
Which one of the following is the most
appropriate marker for tumor proliferation?
a. GFAP
b. Ki-67
c. LDH
d. P53
e. S100
b. Ki-67
MIB-1 antibody is directed against the cell cycle- associated antigen Ki-67 expressed in the nucleus of cells that have entered the cell cycle (i.e. exited the G0 (resting) phase). It aids assessment of mitotic fig- ures in order to estimate the proliferative potential and thus aggressiveness of a tumor. Generally grade II gliomas have MIB-1 indices of $2-5% and glioblastomas of $>10%. However, tumors with the highest proliferation index are PNETs ($20- 60%) and high-grade lymphomas ($40-90%).
Which one of the following pathologies is
most likely to exhibit the finding shown?
a. Ataxia telangiectasia
b. Neurofibromatosis-1
c. Neurofibromatosis-2
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Neurofibromatosis-1
Individuals with light irises tend to have orange or brown round Lisch nodules. In an individual with a dark iris, on slit-lamp examination reveals light- colored nodules appear like splattered putty or white paint.
Which one of the following is most accurate
regarding tumors with 0-6-methylguanine-
DNA methyltransferase methylation?
a. More susceptible to alkylating agents
b. More susceptible to antimetabolites
c. More susceptible to antitumor antibiotics
d. More susceptible to topoisomerase
inhibitors
e. More susceptible to ribunucleotide reduc-
tase inhibitors
a. More susceptible to alkylating agents
Promoter methylation is a mechanism of gene- silencing that occurs spontaneously in many tumor types. MGMT is one of many DNA repair enzymes and in a tumor with MGMT gene silencing by promoter hypermethylation little functional MGMT enzyme is produced. MGMT is particularly effective in repairing DNA damage induced by alkylating chemotherapeutic agents such as temozolomide (TMZ). The less func- tional MGMT is present in a rapidly proliferating tumor such as GBM, the more effective alkylating agents are likely to be in killing cells off by induc- ing irreparable cytotoxic DNA damage. There- fore, MGMT methylation status can be used to stratify tumors into likely TMZ-responders and non-responders. It has been shown that GBM patients with a good performance score and MGMT methylation benefit from post-operative combined TMZ and radiotherapy treatment (Further reading Hegi ME, Diserens AC, Gorlia T. MGMT gene silencing and benefit from temozolo- mide in glioblastoma, N Engl J Med. 2005 Mar 10;352(10):997-1003), resulting in a significant survival benefit.
Which one of the following genetic muta-
tions are associated with improved brain
tumor prognosis?
a. Loss of 1p/19q
b. Loss of 1p/22q
c. Loss of 1p/10q
d. Loss of 1p/10q
e. Loss of 1p/10q
a. Loss of 1p/19q
This is the signature genetic defect in classical oli- godendrogliomas (WHO grade II and III). They often occur together and can be the result of a trans- location of 1p and 19q [t(1,19)(q10;p10)]. The pres- ence of these mutations typically indicates an improved prognosis particularly for patients with WHO grade III anaplastic oligodendrogliomas (irrespective of treatment). It was also thought that this genetic signature (particularly LOH 1p) was associated with a good response to early PCV che- motherapy resulting in overall improved survival. 1p/19q loss can also occur in mixed oligoastrocyto- mas. If it is the main genetic abnormality in these tumors, it usually also indicates a somewhat improved prognosis. There are presumed oligo- dendroglioma tumor-suppressor genes on 1p and 19q, but their specific identity remains unclear.
Which one of the following types of cerebral
edema is seen in malignant hypertension?
a. Cytotoxic
b. Hydrostatic
c. Interstitial
d. Osmotic
e. Vasogenic
b. Hydrostatic
Cerebral ischemia is usually seen when global
cerebral blood flow is below:
a. 60 ml per 100 g tissue per min
b. 50 ml per 100 g tissue per min
c. 40 ml per 100 g tissue per min
d. 30 ml per 100 g tissue per min
e. 20 ml per 100 g tissue per min
e. 20 ml per 100 g tissue per min
Normal global cerebral blood flow is 55-60 ml per 100 g of brain tissue per min (i.e. 700 ml/min or 15% of resting cardiac output); more
precisely about 70-80 ml per 100 g per min in gray matter and 20-45 ml per 100 g per min in white matter. Physiological and EEG changes associated with different CBF is out- lined below:
Which one of the following descriptions sug-
gest WHO grade II astrocytoma?
a. Microcystic change
b. Nuclear atypia and hyperchromasia
c. >10 mitoses per high power field
d. Numerous mitoses and anaplasia
e. Microvascular proliferation or necrosis
b. Nuclear atypia and hyperchromasia
WHO grade is an independent prognostic factor and currently particularly used in determining need for adjuvant therapies (usually indicated in WHO III/IV lesions). Grade I lesions (pilocytic astrocytomas, meningiomas) are tumors with a low proliferation rate which often can be cured by surgery alone. Grade II lesions are often infil- trative, and in the glioma categories, tend to recur
or progress to higher grade lesions (survival gen- erally >5 years). Grade III is generally reserved for tumors with histological anaplasia and brisk mitotic activity; recurrence and progression is the rule (survival 2-3 years). Grade IV lesions are highly aggressive tumors prone to necrosis and relentless progression to within a year if left untreated (note that treatment of some WHO IV lesions such as medulloblastoma and germinoma can be quite successful).
Which one of the following best describes
the finding below?
a. Ash-leaf (macule)
b. Café-au-lait spot
c. Plexiform neurofibroma
d. Port wine stain
e. Shagreen patch
a. Ash-leaf spot
Tuberous sclerosis. Several lance-ovate (ash-leaf) and thumbprint white macules are noted on this infant’s back.
Which one of the following best describes
the finding below?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. Gorlin syndrome
c. MEN1
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Von Hippel Lindau
d. Tuberous sclerosis
Facial angiofibromas (“adenoma sebaceum”) are typically 1-4mm, skin-colored to red, dome- shaped papules with a smooth surface.
Which one of the following genetic mutations
is most likely seen with the finding below?
a. 9q34/16p13
b. 3p25
c. 17p13
d. 9q22
e. 5q21
a. 9q34/16p13
The shagreen patch is characteristically found at the lumbosacral area and has a peau d’orange texture.
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Angiofibroma
b. Collagenoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Neuroma
e. Periungual fibroma
e. Periungual fibroma
Tuberous sclerosis. Periungual and subungual fibromas on the fourth finger of this adolescent boy.
Which one of the following findings are most
likely associated with the clinical feature below?
a. Brainstem arteriovenous malformation
b. GI polyps
c. Optic glioma
d. Retinal hamartoma
e. Sensorineural deafness
e. Sensorineural deafness
Waardenburg syndrome is a group of four auto- somal dominant disorders characterized by a white forelock (hair depigmentation), hetero- chromia irides, cutaneous depigmentation and congenital sensorineural deafness. Individuals with the commonest type I have characteristic facial features—broad nasal root, lateral displace- ment of the medial canthi and lacrimal punctua of the lower lids (dystopia canthorum).
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. McCune-Albright syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
d. Neurofibromatosis type 2
e. Rhabdoid tumor syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
The presence of six or more café-au-lait spots >0.5 cm in diameter in children and 1.5 cm in adolescents suggests the possibility of NF1,
although having café-au-lait spots alone does not allow for definitive diagnosis.
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Acanthosis nigricans
b. Legius syndrome
c. Muenke syndrome
d. Neurofibromatosis type 2
e. Pfeiffer syndrome
b. Legius syndrome
Legius syndrome (Neurofibromatosis type 1-like syndrome) is an autosomal dominant RASopathy often mistaken for NF-1. Patients show multiple café-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, lipomas, macrocephaly, learning disabilities among others. It lacks Lisch nodules, bone abnormalities, neu- rofibromas, optic pathway gliomas and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors. Axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign) is present in 20-50% of individuals with NF1 and commonly appears between 3 and 5 years of age.
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. Legius syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
d. Rhabdoid tumor syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis complex
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 1. Dermal and subcuta- neous neurofibromas are rarely found before ado- lescence. These tumors, which originate from Schwann cells, increase in number progressively thereafter.
Which one of the following is most likely in
the image shown?
a. Basal cell naevus syndrome (Gorlin)
b. Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2
Plexiform neurofibromas are commonly present at birth and can resemble giant café-au-lait spots, although borders are often more irregular. With advancing age, plexiform neurofibromas may enlarge and become more elevated with a firm or “bag of worms” consistency.
Which one of the following is most likely in
the image shown?
a. Crouzon syndrome
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
c. Gardener’s syndrome
d. Gorlin syndrome
e. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
d. Gorlin syndrome
Gorlin (basal cell nevus) syndrome. Shallow erythematous depressions on the plantar surface of an adult female with BCNS (acral pits).
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Congestive edema
b. Diffuse cytotoxic edema
c. Focal cytotoxic edema
d. Interstitial edema
e. Vasogenic edema
e. Vasogenic edema
Port-wine stain (PWS) (nevus flammeus). This lesion involves both the V1 and V2 trigeminal dermatomes in this infant with Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS). Nevus flammeus, or PWS, is a congenital capillary malformation that may occur as an isolated lesion or in association with a variety of syndromes (e.g. SWS, Klippel- Trenauny syndrome, Von Hippel Lindau syn- drome, Wyburn-Mason syndrome, amongst others). It is often, but not always, unilateral and the most common site of involvement is the face, although they may occur on any cutane- ous surface. SWS (encephalofacial or encephalo- trigeminal angiomatosis) is a neuroectodermal syndrome characterized by a PWS in the distri- bution of the first (ophthalmic) branch of the trigeminal nerve (V1) in association with lepto- meningeal angiomatosis (presenting usually with seizures) and glaucoma. Central nervous system disease in SWS: seizures are the most common CNS feature, and often have their onset during the first year of life. The seizures of SWS may be difficult to control, and both early onset and increased seizure intensity are associated with future developmental and cognitive delay. Head- aches (including migraines), stroke-like episodes, focal neurologic impairments, cognitive deficits and emotional and behavioral problems, includ- ing depression, violent behavior, and self- inflicted injury, are also more common in SWS. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis is a classic compo- nent of the syndrome, and lesions are frequently ipsilateral to the cutaneous vascular stain. Cere- bral atrophy is a frequent radiologic finding, as is enlargement of the choroid plexus and venous abnormalities. Magnetic resonance imaging is the modality of choice for identifying these changes, although computed tomography scans are better
at detecting the classic cortical calcifications, which are also seen. These calcifications follow the convolutions of the cerebral cortex and are characterized by double-contoured parallel streaks of calcification (“tram lines”). Ocular involvement occurs in around 60% of patients with SWS. Glaucoma is the most frequent ocular finding, and it may present at any time between birth and the fourth decade. It may be unilateral or bilateral, with the latter being more common in patients with bilateral facial PWS. Vascular malformations of the eye in patients with SWS may involve the conjunctiva, episclera, choroid, and retina. Other eye findings include nevus of Ota, buphthalmos, and blindness. Dermatologic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic follow-up is indicated and the primary care provider must provide anticipatory guidance and support. Although the primary management for seizures is with pharmacologic agents, surgical therapy may become necessary. Visually guided lobec- tomy with excision of the angiomatous cortex is considered the primary surgical approach in patient with focal lesions. Hemispherectomy is often advised for patients with intractable seizures and unihemispheric involvement. This radical therapy is often successful, with decreased seizure activity and, in some patients, cognitive and behavioral improvement.
Which one of the following is most likely based on the image shown below?
a. Congestive edema
b. Diffuse cytotoxic edema
c. Focal cytotoxic edema
d. Interstitial edema
e. Vasogenic edema
e. Vasogenic edema
Vasogenic edema secondary to GBM. Widened gyri, narrowing of sulci, compres- sion of ventricles may be focal or diffuse. Vasogenic edema often associated with focal lesions, tumors, abscess.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arachnoid granulations
b. Calcification
c. Dural metastasis
d. Meningitis
e. Venous thrombosis
a. Arachnoid granulations
These whitish granular structures are located at the superior medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres near the sagital sinus. They function in resorp- tion of CS.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Subfalcine herniation
c. Tonsillar herniation
d. Transtentorial herniation
e. Upwards herniation
b. Subfalcine herniation
In this image, a lesion, not visible in this image (at least the lesion is not), causing significant mass effect in the right frontal lobe has caused right cingulate gyrus herniation under the falx.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Brain stem compression
b. Demyelination
c. Infarction
d. Primary brainstem hemorrhagic stroke
e. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
a. Brain stem compression
Duret (secondary) hemorrhage. Hemorrhages of the basis pontis may result from brain stem com- pression secondary to downward mass effect and herniation from above.